Week 6 pt 2 Flashcards

1
Q

List the counseling points for prenatal care

A

Smoking/tobacco use, alcohol, illicit drugs
STOP!
Risk of miscarriage, low birth weight, preterm labor, etc.
Marijuana use
Some people might self-medicate for N/V symptoms with cannabis
Associated with low birth weight, increased depression/anxiety, and hyperemesis gravidarum
Exercise
Nutrition – healthy foods, optimal BMI
Stress
Sleep
Sexual activity

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2
Q

When should people begin to take folate?

A

Most of the time this is formed before mom knows she’s pregnant, so start early (even start taking before pregnancy if planning to get pregnant)

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3
Q

Are prenatal vitamins besides iron and folate important?

A

Everything else is a bonus! Like Calcium, Vitamin D, Iodide

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4
Q

What PMH should you ask about?

A

DM
HTN
CKD
Thyroid
Psych
Epilepsy

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5
Q

What should you ask yourself abt a patient’s medical conditions? Explain

A

Do these conditions directly impact the fetus?
DM, HTN, CKD, Thyroid
Are the medications used to treat these conditions safe during pregnancy or teratogenic?

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6
Q

What should you ask abt a pts social history or psych history?

A

Social History
Do they have access to care?
Access to nutrition?
Feel safe at home? Any concerns for domestic violence?

Psych History
Are they on medication?
Any danger to self?
Depression?

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7
Q

What should you ask abt a pts genetic history? What else should you ask abt?

A

1) Genetic History
Chromosomal abnormalities (ex: Down Syndrome, Trisomy 13)
Cystic Fibrosis
Sickle Cell anemia
2) Allergies

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8
Q

Explain G&P

A

GxPxAx (i.e. G2P1A0)
1) Gravida: # of pregnancies (current or previous)
2) Para: # of births carried to viability (>20 weeks)
3) Spontaneous abortion (SAB)
-Pregnancy loss < 20 weeks
-Medical term does not refer to elective abortion

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9
Q

Explain TPAL

A

G#PTPAL (i.e. G2P1001)
1) Term: delivered > 37 weeks
2) Preterm: delivered < 37 weeks
3) Prior to the COMPLETION of 37 weeks gestation
4) Abortion: delivered < 20 weeks
Spontaneous abortion, elective abortion, miscarriage, ectopic pregnancy
5) Living kids: # of humans still alive

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10
Q

How do you test for pregnancy?

A

1) UPT (qualitative)
2) Serum HCG
-Qualitative
-Quantitative

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11
Q

What are the uses of Transvaginal ultrasound (TVUS)?

A

Helps to calculate EDD (estimated due date)
Determine gender
Assess for anatomical abnormalities

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12
Q

What is determined by LMP +/- TVUS?

A

Diagnosing pregnancy, EDD, gestational age

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13
Q

What is the follow up schedule if it’s a healthy pregnancy?

A

Q4 weeks: until week 28
Q2 weeks: until week 36
Weekly: until delivery

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14
Q

Can pregnant pts keep working?

A

Generally, a woman with uncomplicated pregnancy can work until onset of labor
Activity is generally good for you

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15
Q

Can pregnant patients exercise?

A

1) In absence of complications, 30 mins/day on most days is acceptable
2) Physical activity is encouraged, but do not greatly exceed the level of exercise engaged in prior to pregnancy. Discontinue supine exercises after 1st trimester
3) STOP EXERCISING IF: vaginal bleeding, dyspnea, dizziness, HA, CP, muscle weakness, calf pain, amniotic fluid leak, regular/painful contractions

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16
Q

What foods should pregnant patients avoid?

A

1) Hot dogs
2) Lunch meat (must be cooked)
3) Raw seafood
4) Monitor seafood intake closely (mercury)
5) Nothing unpasteurized (includes some soft cheeses!)
6) Alcohol

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17
Q

What are some general benefits of breastfeeding?

A

1) Excellent nutrition and immunologic protection
2) Comes from the colostrum primarily

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18
Q

What are some benefits of breastfeeding for the mother?

A

1) Rapid uterine involution (shrinking)
2) Maternal-child bonding
3) Decrease in postpartum bleeding
4) Lower rates of breast/ovarian cancer
5) More rapid weight loss

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19
Q

What is a benefit for breastfeeding for preterm infants?

A

Lower risk of SIDS

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20
Q

What should breastfeeding women with mastitis do?

A

Keep breastfeeding if able to; will not hurt the baby and will help to clear the infection

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21
Q

Describe sexual intercourse recommendations in pregnancy

A

1) Not restricted during a normal pregnancy
2) Restricted for certain high-risk conditions:
-Placenta previa
-Premature rupture of membranes
-History or current pre-term labor

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22
Q

Can you travel/ fly during pregnancy?

A

1) Most airlines say flying is safe up to 36 weeks
-May restrict sooner for longer, international flights
2) Also recommended that pregnant women with medical/OBGYN complications not travel away from their providers
-Uncontrolled DM, poorly controlled HTN, Sickle Cell
3) Want riskier patients to stay “close to home”

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23
Q

Describe X-rays/ CT scans in pregnancy

A

1) X-rays/CT scans can cause damage due to radiation
-Gene mutations, growth impairment, chromosomal damage, and malignancy, possibly even death.
2) Baby is most susceptible to this early on, particularly in the first two weeks
-At this stage, radiation dose of 10 rads produces damage
-During rest of 1st trimester, 25 rads causes detectable damage
-In late pregnancy, 1000 rads is required to cause damage
3) Diagnostic radiation in the form of an x-ray or CT only -delivers a dose of less than 5 rads, typically
-Varies based on number of films obtained, as well as location and ability to shield baby with a vest

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24
Q

Are MRIs okay in pregnancy?

A

Safe during pregnancy; no radiation
Can be used to evaluate conditions such as appendicitis

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25
FASDs (fetal alcohol spectrum disorders) include what symptoms?
1) Abnormal facial features 2) Small head size 3) Decreased height/weight 4) Poor coordination, attention, learning, attention 5) Sleep, hearing, vision problems
26
Explain Rh incompatibility
1) Occurs when mother’s blood type is Rh negative and her fetus’ blood type is Rh positive 2) In subsequent pregnancies, antibodies from Rh-negative mother (anti-RH+ antibodies) may enter the blood stream of her unborn, Rh+ infant, damaging the infant’s RBCs causing anemia-related health conditions
27
__________ trimester bleeding is very common in pregnancy and needs a work-up to differentiate implantation bleeding (normal) vs. spontaneous abortion (SAB)
First
28
What is a very common complaint in the ED?
Vaginal bleeding in pregnant women
29
True or false: All pregnant women have some level of insulin resistance, most can overcome it
True
30
Explain why insulin resistance occurs
During pregnancy, body makes special hormones and goes through many changes (such as weight gain) Because of these changes, body’s cells don’t use insulin very well.
31
All pregnant women have some level of insulin resistance, most can overcome it. Explain the role of insulin
Insulin is produced by pancreas, acts as a ‘key’ to let blood sugar into cells to be used as energy
32
What are some risk factors for gestational diabetes? (early screening is recommended w/ risk factors)
1) Diabetes or family history of gestational DM 2) Obesity or gaining too much weight in pregnancy
33
How do you screen for gestational diabetes?
Routine oral glucose tolerance testing (usually between 24-28 weeks) If fail the 1-hour OGTT, then must do the 3-hour OGTT test
34
Describe headaches in pregnancy
Common in early pregnancy, unsure exactly why Tylenol (APAP) is safe to take during pregnancy
35
Describe n/v in pregnancy and how to Tx
1) Correlated with the presence of the pregnancy hormone (Beta HCG) -Often worst in the morning 2) If mild, can take ginger, Vitamin B6 -If more severe, check with provider about medications (ex: Diclegis, Phenergan, Zofran, Reglan) -If unable to keep down fluids/foods, may need IV fluids
36
Why is swollen ankles a common sx of pregnancy?
Body is carrying around extra fluid; gravity pulls it down
37
Why is heartburn common in pregnancy?
52
38
Why is Constipation common in pregnancy?
39
Why is Fatigue common in pregnancy?
40
Why are leg cramps common in pregnancy?
Possibly due to low calcium or potassium? Etiology is unclear. Massage is helpful
41
When is back pain common in pregnancy? Why?
Common in late pregnancy; center of gravity has changed
42
Why is groin pain common in pregnancy?
Straining of the round ligament – causing stretch/spasm – as the uterus grows and expands. Can be very painful. Recommend slow movements, stretching.
43
Why is vaginal discharge common in pregnancy?
Hormonal changes can cause some discharge; it’s okay as long as not malodorous or bloody Watch for infection (ex: BV) and monitor for spontaneous rupture of membranes (leakage of clear, thin liquid) Amnisure test
44
Why are hemorrhoids common in pregnancy?
Body is carrying so much extra fluid in veins, some of which are present in the rectum. Usually resolve after pregnancy.
45
What are the 3 main ways to test for pregnancy?
Urine HCG Serum HCG (qualitative, quantitative) Transvaginal ultrasound
46
What is the rule for dating pregnancy? Explain
Naegele’s Rule for Dating Pregnancy Onset of last menses Move back 3 months Then 7 days forward One year forward
47
What is an assumption of Naegele's rule?
28-day cycles with 14-day follicular phase and woman knows her LMP
48
True or false: Margin of error in 2nd and 3rd trimesters is higher than 1st trimester for determining EDD
True
49
What are teratogens and their categories?
A teratogen is an agent that can disturb the development of an embryo or fetus (fetal limb defects, bony abnormalities, etc.) Pregnancy categories Category A, B, C, D, X
50
Approx. 4-6% of birth defects are caused by exposure to teratogens in the environment, which includes what main categories?
1) Maternal illnesses: DM, PKU syndrome (phenylketonuria) 2) Infectious agents (TORCH) 3) Physical agents (radiation, heat exposure) 4) Drugs 5) Chemical agents (ex: mercury)
51
List and explain 2 extremely teratogenic drugs
1) Thalidomide: Cancer medication (ex: multiple myeloma) -Children have short/absent limbs 2) Warfarin (Coumadin): Blood thinner -Hypoplastic nose, skeletal/ocular abnormalities, neonatal bleeding, cognitive impairment
52
What should you consider regarding epilepsy meds in pregnancy?
Weigh risk: drug vs. disease Better to come off drugs if mother can
53
What are the most widely used epilepsy meds in pregnancy (safe)?
1) Levels vary throughout pregnancy because estrogen effects their metabolism 2) Medications lose efficacy – increases seizure risk - must be monitored closely
54
1) What HTN meds are unsafe? 2) What Acne medication?
1)ACEs/ARBs Lisinopril, Enalapril, Ramipril, Losartan, Valsartan, Olmesartan, etc. 2) Isotretinoin (Accutane)
55
What abx are unsafe in pregnancy (Teratogenic)?
Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) Doxycycline/Tetracycline Fluoroquinolones Levofloxacin (Levaquin), Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
56
Name a teratogenic psych med
Lithium
57
1) First-line medication of choice for DM in pregnancy is ________, second line is __________ 2) What else is commonly used?
1) Insulin; metformin 2) Glyburide
58
Understanding of the following _____________ is important for framing risks and benefits during medical decision-making and patient education
procedures
59
Describe the use of ultrasounds in pregnancy
Primarily developed in 1960’s-1970’s Use of imperceptible sound waves that bounce off tissue and are compiled into an image Important in obstetric care because there are no known adverse fetal effects Used to detect many obstetric/fetal abnormalities Also, used to assist with various obstetric procedures such as amniocentesis, chorionic villus sampling, etc.
60
List the types of ultrasound
Transvaginal US Transabdominal US 3-D US Doppler sonography
61
What is the use of TVUS?
Commonly used during 1st trimester to accurately determine the estimated due date and check fetal location and number Can also identify structural malformations
62
What is Used to identify patients at risk of pre-term delivery? Explain
Transvaginal sonographic measurement of cervical length Median length at 24-28 weeks = 3.5 cm < 2.0 cm: 3-5x higher risk of preterm delivery
63
US can be used during 2nd/3rd trimesters for precise identification of placental location. This is called?
Transvaginal sonographic identification of placenta:
64
Transabdominal ultrasound can be used to evaluate what?
Fetal structural abnormalities Fetal growth Fetal well-being
65
Describe the 3rd trimester transabdominal ultrasound and fetal growth
1) Serial measurements provide information regarding fetal growth trajectory 2) Software combines this information to estimate fetal weight ~15% error (less utility with fetuses larger than 8 lbs.)
66
Describe Transabdominal ultrasound for fetal well-being
1) US allows visualization of fetal behavior -Body movement, breathing, etc. -Useful in observing fetal oxygenation and viability and used to arrive at a biophysical profile score
67
Explain the Biophysical profile score
1) Test performed after 28th week of pregnancy to evaluate the health of the fetus 2) Measures body movement, muscle tone, breathing movement, heart rate, and amniotic fluid levels 3) 2 points for each event during a 30-minute session 4) Risk of fetal death within a week of a score of 8 is < 1%
68
What are the elements of a biophysical profile?
69
Explain 3-D Ultrasonography
1) Combines ultrasound information to form a 3-dimensional image of the fetus -3D reconstruction is possible with CT and MRI, but CT involves radiation and MRI is expensive and often unavailable 2) 3D imaging is better than 2D imaging at detecting malformations such as: -Facial defects -Limb abnormalities -Neural tube defects
70
Explain Doppler Sonography and its uses
1) Measures the direction and speed of blood cells as they move through vessels 2) Used to measure velocity profile of blood through fetal vessels 3) Doppler study of fetal middle cerebral artery is used to estimate fetal hematocrit -Useful in evaluating fetal anemia and issues of isoimmunization (Rh incompatibility)
71
72
Who should get Amniocentesis and Chorionic Villus Sampling (CVS)?
1) > 35 years old by the time baby is due (^ risk of down syndrome) 2) Had a screening test that showed there could be a problem 3) Have a child with Down Syndrome, spina bifida, or other disorders 4) You or partner are known carrier of a genetic disorder (such as Cystic Fibrosis)
73
Amniocentesis (“Amnio”): 1) What is it? 2) Who is it offered to?
1) Prenatal test to remove a sample of fluid from the amniotic cavity to test for certain health conditions or infections Offered to women at risk of certain health conditions or chromosomal conditions Birth defects such as Down Syndrome, Cystic Fibrosis, spina bifida Most common invasive prenatal diagnostic procedure
74
Amniocentesis (“Amnio”): 1) Under what conditions is it performed? 2) What should be given?
1) Performed under ultrasonic guidance and sterile conditions RhoGAM should be given to Rh- mother due to small risk of procedure-related isoimmunization
75
Explain Amniocentesis for genetic diagnosis
1) Detects chromosomal abnormalities 2) Performed at 15-20 weeks (0.3% risk of pregnancy loss, 1% risk amniotic fluid leakage post-procedure) Increased risks if performed < 15 weeks
76
Explain Biochemical testing w amniocentesis and give examples
1) Amniocentesis allows testing of fluid for different biological chemicals 2) Ex: alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) and pulmonary phospholipids Elevated AFP indicates open dorsal/ventral wall Ex: neural tube defect 3) Pulmonary phospholipids present in amniotic fluids come from fetal lungs Used to evaluate risk of neonatal respiratory distress
77
Explain amniocentesis for Prenatal infections
Amniocentesis is used during evaluation of various prenatal infections CMV, parvovirus, varicella zoster, toxoplasmosis, etc. Culture, gram strain, cell count, glucose, etc.
78
When is Therapeutic amniocentesis used? Explain
1) Polyhydramnios: excessive accumulation of amniotic fluid due to various causes (lack of fetal swallowing, excessive fetal urination, idiopathic) -Can affect maternal respiration and/or increase risk of preterm labor -Amniocentesis is therapeutic in these cases
79
Chorionic villus sampling (CVS): 1) Define this test 2) What does it involve? When can it be done?
1) Prenatal test used to diagnose certain birth defects and genetic abnormalities by taking a small tissue sample of placenta, which is composed of maternal and embryonic tissue -Chorion is the embryonic portion of the placenta and has fingerlike projections (villi) 2) CVS involves removal of a sample of villi for testing -Can be performed earlier than amniocentesis but not performed before 9th week due to increased risk of malformation -Usually around weeks 10-13
80
How accurate is CVS & what does it not test? What are 2 different types? What should you give?
Less precise than amniocentesis in genetic testing Does not test for neural tube defects, certain birth defects, or Rh incompatibility CVS can be performed transcervical or transabdominal RhoGAM should be administered with both
81
Cordocentesis: 1) What is it? 2) Why is it done?
1) Cordocentesis – percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS) Prenatal test taking a sample of blood directly from the umbilical cord to detect for any abnormalities Genetic mutations, blood diseases, infections, etc.
82
Cordocentesis: 1) How is it done? 2) Is it common?
1) Fetal blood obtained directly from umbilical vein -Performed under US guidance 2) Becoming rare due to advancements with amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling, which are safer (less risk)
83
Give an example of use for Cervical Cerclage and explain
1) Cervical insufficiency (cervical weakness, cervical incompetence): Inability of cervix to retain pregnancy (cervix dilates before pregnancy has reached term) -Circumferential suture/band placed into/around cervix
84
Cervical Cerclage: 1) When should it be done if normal cervical length? 2) When should it be done if an elongated cervix? 3) When is the suture removed?
1) Normal cervical length: cerclage at 13-16 weeks 2) Elongated cervix: cerclage at 22-24 weeks 3) Suture is removed prior to labor
85
Define spontaneous vaginal delivery
 A vaginal delivery that happens on its own and without labor-inducing drugs. ~68% of all births in the US
86
Define induced vaginal delivery
Drugs or other techniques initiate labor and prepare your cervix. This is also called labor induction.
87
Define assisted vaginal delivery
A vaginal birth that occurs with the help of forceps or a vacuum device to get your baby out. Both spontaneous and induced vaginal delivery can be assisted.
88
Explain Forceps delivery
1) Assisted delivery that can help with vaginal delivery when labor is not progressing (stalled in the second stage) 2) Obstetrical forceps are used to grasp the baby inside the birth canal and help guide them out. 3) When successful, they can help birthing parents avoid a c-section.
89
1) How common are forceps deliveries? 2) What do they require and what else can they be used for?
1) <1% of vaginal births 2) Requires a skilled clinician who is trained Can be used to rotate the baby if in poor position
90
Vacuum-assisted delivery 1) Define 2) When may it be done? (Only recommended under certain conditions)
1) Assisted delivery procedure that can help get fetus through the birth canal when labor is stalled in the second stage (pushing stage). 2) Fetal head is engaged, cervix is fully dilated, fetus is in an appropriate position, etc. ~2.5% of vaginal births
91
Explain breech delivery
1) Fetus positioned feet or bottom first in the uterus. Ideally, a baby is positioned so that the head is delivered first during a vaginal birth. 2) Most breech babies will turn to a head-first position by 36 weeks. 3) Some breech babies can be born vaginally, but a C-section is usually recommended.
92
Cesarean delivery (C-section): 1) What is it? 2) When can it be done? 3) Is it risky? How common is it?
1) Surgical procedure used to deliver a baby when a vaginal delivery can't be done safely. 2) Can be planned (scheduled) or performed in an emergency. 3) It carries more risk than a vaginal delivery, with a slightly longer recovery period ~30% of deliveries in the US
93
What is the biggest risk of VBAC? (Vaginal birth after cesarean section)
Uterine rupture
94
Vaginal birth after cesarean section (VBAC): 1) Is it successful? 2) What are the risks?
1) Vaginal birth after cesarean delivery has a success rate of 60%-80%. 2) Because a surgical cut results in a scar on your uterus, the biggest risk is a uterine rupture
95
Explain Newborn circumcision
1) Circumcision is the surgical removal of foreskin from an infant’s penis. 2) There are several benefits, including a lower risk of diseases like urinary tract infections. 3) Older boys and men get circumcised as well. 4) Usually heals within a week.