Week 9 - 14 multiple choice

Question 1

while a patient is receiving a general anaesthesia, he or she must be continually monitored because:
A) the person has no pain sensation
B) generalised CNS depression affects all body functions
C) the person cannot move
D) the person cannot communicate

Answer 1

A) the person has no pain sensation
B) generalised CNS depression affects all body functions*
C) the person cannot move
D) the person cannot communicate

Question 2

Local anaesthetics are used to block feeling in specific body areas. If given in increasing concentrations, local anaesthetics can cause loss, in order, of the following:
A) temperature sensation, touch sensation, proprioception and skeletal muscle tone
B) touch sensation, skeletal muscle tone, temperature sensation and proprioception
C) Proprioception, skeletal muscle tone, touch sensation and temperature sensation
D) skeletal muscle tone, touch sensation, temperature sensation and proprioception

Answer 2

A) temperature sensation, touch sensation, proprioception and skeletal muscle tone*
B) touch sensation, skeletal muscle tone, temperature sensation and proprioception
C) Proprioception, skeletal muscle tone, touch sensation and temperature sensation
D) skeletal muscle tone, touch sensation, temperature sensation and proprioception

Question 3

Proper administration of an ordered narcotic:
A) can lead to addiction
B) should be done promptly to prevent increased pain and the need for larger doses
C) would include holding the drug as long as possible until the person really needs it
D) should rely on the person’s request for medication

Answer 3

A) can lead to addiction
B) should be done promptly to prevent increased pain and the need for larger doses*
C) would include holding the drug as long as possible until the person really needs it
D) should rely on the person’s request for medication

Question 4

The benzodiazepines are the most frequently used anxiolytic drugs because:
A) they are anxiolytic at doses much lower than those needed for sedation or hypnosis
B) the can be stimulating
C) they are more likely to cause physical dependence that older anxiolytic drugs
D) they do not affect the neurotransmitters

Answer 4

A) they are anxiolytic at doses much lower than those needed for sedation or hypnosis*
B) the can be stimulating
C) they are more likely to cause physical dependence that older anxiolytic drugs
D) they do not affect the neurotransmitters

Question 5

The nurse or midwife would expect administration of a NMJ blocker as the drug of choice to accomplish which of the following (select all that apply)
A) facilitate endotracheal intubation
B) facilitate mechanical ventilation
C) prevent injury during electroconvulsive therapy
D) relieve pain during labour and birth
E) treat myasthenis gravis
F) treat a person with a history of malignant hyperthermia

Answer 5

A) facilitate endotracheal intubation*
B) facilitate mechanical ventilation*
C) prevent injury during electroconvulsive therapy*
D) relieve pain during labour and birth
E) treat myasthenis gravis
F) treat a person with a history of malignant hyperthermia

Question 6

Suxamethonium has a more rapid onset of action and a shorter duration of activity that the non-polarising NMJ blockers because it:
A) does not bind well to receptor sites
B) rapidly crosses the blood brain barrier
C) is broken down by acetycholinesterase that is found in the plasma
D) is very unstable

Answer 6

A) does not bind well to receptor sites
B) rapidly crosses the blood brain barrier
C) is broken down by acetycholinesterase that is found in the plasma*
D) is very unstable

Question 7

A nurse or midwife is about to administer digoxin to a person whose apical pulse is 48 beats/min. She should
A) give the drug and notify the precriber the the heart rate is low
B) retake the pulse in 15 minutes and give thr drug if the pulse has not changed
C) retake the pulse in 1 hour and withhold the drug if the pulse is still less than 60 beats/min.
D) withhold the drug and notify the prescriber that the heart rate is below 60beats/min

Answer 7

A) give the drug and notify the precriber the the heart rate is low
B) retake the pulse in 15 minutes and give thr drug if the pulse has not changed
C) retake the pulse in 1 hour and withhold the drug if the pulse is still less than 60 beats/min.*
D) withhold the drug and notify the prescriber that the heart rate is below 60beats/min

Question 8

Antiarrhythmic drugs alter the action potential of the cardiac cells. Because they alter the action potential antiarrhythmic drugs often:
A) cause heart failure
B) alter blood flow to the kidney
C) cause new arrhythmias
D) cause electrolyte disturbances

Answer 8

A) cause heart failure
B) alter blood flow to the kidney
C) cause new arrhythmias*
D) cause electrolyte disturbances

Question 9

A person who is receiving an antiarrhythmic drug needs:
A) constant cardiac monitoring until stabilised
B) frequent blood tests, including drug levels
C) an antidepressant to deal with the psychological depression
D) dietary changes to prevent irritation of the heart muscle

Answer 9

A) constant cardiac monitoring until stabilised*
B) frequent blood tests, including drug levels
C) an antidepressant to deal with the psychological depression
D) dietary changes to prevent irritation of the heart muscle

Question 10

Medications that increase the force of myocardial contraction have what type of effect?
A) positive inotropic
B) negative inotropic
C) positive chronotropic
D) negative chronotropic

Answer 10

A) positive inotropic*
B) negative inotropic
C) positive chronotropic
D) negative chronotropic

Question 11

Digoxin is classified as a:
A) hypokalaemic
B) cardiac glycoside
C) coronary artery vasodilator
D) positive chronotropic

Answer 11

A) hypokalaemic
B) cardiac glycoside*
C) coronary artery vasodilator
D) positive chronotropic

Question 12

Atropine and hyoscine work by blocking
A) nicotinic receptors only
B) muscarinic and nictonic receptors
C) muscarinic receptors only
D) adrenergic receptors to allow cholinergic receptors to dominate

Answer 12

A) nicotinic receptors only
B) muscarinic and nictonic receptors*
C) muscarinic receptors only
D) adrenergic receptors to allow cholinergic receptors to dominate

Question 13

A nurse or midwife would expect atropine to be used for which of the following? (select all that apply)
A) to depress salivation
B) to dry up bronchial secretions
C) to increase the heart rate
D) to promote uterine contractions
E) to treat myathenia gravis
F) to treat alzheimer's disease

Answer 13

A) to depress salivation*
B) to dry up bronchial secretions*
C) to increase the heart rate*
D) to promote uterine contractions
E) to treat myathenia gravis
F) to treat alzheimer's disease

Question 14

A health care provider prescribes adrenaline to a patient who was stung by several wasps 30 minutes ago. The nurse knows that the primary purpose of this medication for this client is to:
A) stop the systemic release of histamine produced by mast cells
B) counteract the formation of antibodies in response to an invading organism
C) increase the number of white blood cells produced to fight the primary invader
D) increase a declining blood pressure and dilate constricting bronchi associated with anaphylaxis

Answer 14

A) stop the systemic release of histamine produced by mast cells
B) counteract the formation of antibodies in response to an invading organism
C) increase the number of white blood cells produced to fight the primary invader
D) increase a declining blood pressure and dilate constricting bronchi associated with anaphylaxis*

Question 15

An asthmatic who is being treated for hypertension with a beta-blocker is most likely receiving:
A) a non-specific Beta Blocker
B) an alpha1-specific Beta Blocker
C) Beta and Alpha Blockers
D) a Beta 1 specific blocker

Answer 15

A) a non-specific Beta Blocker
B) an alpha1-specific Beta Blocker
C) Beta and Alpha Blockers
D) a Beta 1 specific blocker*

Question 16

You would caution a person who is taking an adrenergic blocker:
A) to avoid exposure to infection
B) to stop the drug he or she experiences flu-like symptoms
C) never to stop the drug abruptly
D) to avoid exposure to the sun

Answer 16

A) to avoid exposure to infection
B) to stop the drug he or she experiences flu-like symptoms
C) never to stop the drug abruptly*
D) to avoid exposure to the sun

Question 17

The nurse or midwife would anticipate an order for a loop diuretic as the drug of choice for a person with:
A) hypertension
B) shock
C) pulmonary oedema
D) fluid retention related to pregnancy

Answer 17

The nurse or midwife would anticipate an order for a loop diuretic as the drug of choice for a person with:
A) hypertension
B) shock
C) pulmonary oedema*
D) fluid retention related to pregnancy

Question 18

The nurse is teaching a group of clients with cardiac conditions who are taking diuretic therapy. the nurse explains that individuals prescribed Frusemide should:
A) avoid consuming large amounts of cabbage, cauliflower and kale
B) rise slowly from sitting or lying position
C) count their pulse for 1 full minute before taking medication
D) restrict fluid intake to no more than 1000mL in a 24 hour period

Answer 18

conditions who are taking diuretic therapy. the nurse explains that individuals prescribed Frusemide should:
A) avoid consuming large amounts of cabbage, cauliflower and kale
B) rise slowly from sitting or lying position*
C) count their pulse for 1 full minute before taking medication
D) restrict fluid intake to no more than 1000mL in a 24 hour period

Question 19

A person with severe glaucoma who is about to undergo eye surgery would benefit from a decrease in intraocular fluid. This is often best accomplished by giving the person:
A) a loop diuretic
B) a thiazide diuretic
C) a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
D) an osmotic diuretic

Answer 19

A person with severe glaucoma who is about to undergo eye surgery would benefit from a decrease in intraocular fluid. This is often best accomplished by giving the person:
A) a loop diuretic
B) a thiazide diuretic
C) a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
D) an osmotic diuretic*

Question 20

Clients prescribed spironolactone are often at risk for electrolyte imbalance. The nurse assesses for this adverse effect because this drug may cause the body to:
A) retain potassium
B) release magnesium
C) excrete potassium
D) bind calcium

Answer 20

Clients prescribed spironolactone are often at risk for electrolyte imbalance. The nurse assesses for this adverse effect because this drug may cause the body to:
A) retain potassium*
B) release magnesium
C) excrete potassium
D) bind calcium

Question 21

Routine care of a person receiving a diuretic would include which of the following:
A) daily weighing
B) tight fluid restrictions
C) periodic electrolyte evaluations
D) monitoring of urinary output
E) regular intraocular pressure testing
F) teaching the person to report muscle cramping

Answer 21

Routine care of a person receiving a diuretic would include which of the following:
A) daily weighing*
B) tight fluid restrictions*
C) periodic electrolyte evaluations*
D) monitoring of urinary output*
E) regular intraocular pressure testing
F) teaching the person to report muscle cramping*