11-217 V1 Flashcards
(186 cards)
1
Q
The bearing pointer will point to the station when tuning in the ILS.
A
FALSE
2
Q
Each dot of deviation on the VOR represents ____ degrees.
A
5
3
Q
Although the course selected has no effect on the CDI, always set the published inbound front course of the ILS in the course selector window.
A
TRUE
4
Q
What purpose does the TO/FROM indication have on an ILS.
A
nothing, indication is not valid
5
Q
The appearance of a GS or LOC warning flag indicates course or glide slope signal strength is not sufficient.
A
TRUE
6
Q
Which NAVAID will continue to point to the station even after a malfunction in the compass system.
A
NDB/ADF
7
Q
Check NOTAMs and FLIP before flight for possible NAVAID limitations or malfunctions.
A
TRUE
8
Q
Most VORs are equipped for voice transmission.
A
TRUE
9
Q
How are VOR’s without voice capability annotated on enroute and sectional charts.
A
underlining of frequency (annotated as VORW in IFR Sup)
10
Q
What are the two ways to identify a VOR?
A
By Morse Code or recorded voice ID
11
Q
Due to the nature of the TACAN signal, it is possible for the TACAN azimuth to lock on in multiples of 40 degrees from the true bearing with no warning flag appearing.
A
TRUE
12
Q
The LDA is of comparable utility and accuracy to a localizer but is not always aligned with the centerline of the runway.
A
true (Localizer signal is within 3 degs of rwy alignment. If alignment exceeds 3 degs its an LDA)
13
Q
Discontinue use of the ADF if you get a warning flag.
A
false (trick question ADF receivers do not have flag to warn pilot so monitor at all times)
14
Q
VORs are subject to line-of-sight restrictions.
A
TRUE
15
Q
Which NAVAID below does not have voice capability. VOR TACAN ADF ILS
A
TACAN
16
Q
DME does not operate on line-of-sight principle, preventing slant range problems.
A
false (DME operates on line of sight, and distance is slant range, not horizontal distance)
17
Q
Unless otherwise stated, the glide slope signal is usable to a distance of _____NM from the glide slope antenna.
A
10
18
Q
The localizer is usable and accurate to a range of ____ NM from the antenna unless otherwise stated on the IAP.
A
18
19
Q
Glide slope signals are not accurate when flying a localizer back course approach unless specified otherwise.
A
TRUE
20
Q
How is the outer marker beacon identified aurally.
A
continuous dashes
21
Q
How is the middle marker identified aurally.
A
alternating dashes and dots
22
Q
How is the inner marker beacon identified aurally.
A
continuous dots
23
Q
What do you call a radio beacon when it is used in conjunction with an ILS marker.
A
a compass locator
24
Q
GPS satellite spacing is arranged such that ____ satellites will normally be in view to the user, thereby, ensuring worldwide coverage in ____ orbital planes.
A
5 to 8, 6
25
Wind drift should not be applied when flying radar vectors.
TRUE
26
A TACAN station transmits an aural three-letter Morse code identifier approximately every ____ seconds. (2,15,35,45)
35
27
When reading the Morse code four-letter identifier the first letter will be a ""K" denoting it as an ILS.
false (should be an "I")
28
Not only does the ADF make a good source for listening to commercial broadcasting stations, these commercial broadcasting station also make good navigational aids.
false (should be used with caution, they are not flight checked for navigation)
29
Voice communications is possible on VOR, ILS, and ADF, but not a TACAN.
TRUE
30
Homing to a station should be used when maintaining course is required.
FALSE
31
If you put a VOR in your NAVAIDS to fly off of and it's 3 letter identifier is not showing up in your EHSI window, can you use it for navigation.
no, must identify station and monitor it to ensure reliability. If Morse code shows up on VOR can use it without with listening to Morse code.
32
When intercepting a course, the angle of intercept should not exceed ____ degrees.
90
33
Y TACANs do not produce Morse codes for identification.
FALSE
34
Station passage on a VOR and VOR/DME occurs when.
TO-FROM indicator makes the first positive change to FROM
35
Station passage on a TACAN occurs when.
When the range indicator stops decreasing.
36
Station passage on an ADF occurs when.
When the bearing pointer passes 90 degrees to the inbound course. (not talking subsequent turns in holding)
37
For groundspeed checks if the aircraft is at FL 200, groundspeed checks should be performed when beyond ___ nautical miles from the station.
20 (aircraft slant range distance should be more than the aircraft altitude divided by 1000.
38
Groundspeed checks made below ______ feet are accurate at any distance.
5000
39
A technique for maintaining an arc is to displace the bearing pointer _____ degrees from the reference point for each 1/2 mile deviation to the inside of the arc, and ___ degrees for each 1/2 mile outside the arc.
5, 10
40
List the three steps that apply to every pilot in every aircraft when using NAVAIDs. I.e. the first thing you should do before using the information of a NAVAID.
Tune, Identify, and Monitor
41
Altimeter checkpoints are required at all USAF bases if the takeoff end of the runway varies more than ____ feet from the official field elevation.
25
42
The maximum allowable error is ____ feet from your indicated altitude to the elevation of a known checkpoint (i.e. field elevation)
75
43
You are told you altimeter setting is 30.02 and you field elevation is 1000 feet. What should you pressure altitude be.
900 feet PA
44
High pressure is usually associated with good weather.
TRUE
45
Cold weather altimeter corrections will only be made for DHs, Minimum Descent Altitudes (MDAs), and other altitude inside, but not including, the Final Approach Fix (FAF).
TRUE
46
Where should you look for cold weather altimeter correction procedures.
FIH
47
Military Summary Reports and FDC NOTAMS are the same thing.
FALSE
48
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ contain information about runway closures, NAVAID outages, and frequency changes. 1. Civilian "D" Series NOTAMS 2. Civilian "L" Series NOTAMS 3. Class II NOTAMS 4. FDC NOTAMS
1. D series
49
How do you obtain Civilian "L" NOTAMS.
calling the local FSS
50
The most important thing to know about FDC NOTAMs is that they are regulatory.
TRUE
51
What must you enter in the DINS web page to get NOTAMs referring to GPS
KGPS
52
You must recheck your NOTAMs prior to all flights to ensure you have the latest NOTAMs.
TRUE
53
Low altitude (victor) airways are designated from ______ feet above the surface (sometimes higher) up to but not including _____ feet MSL.
1200/18000
54
An aircraft can fly an IAP only for its own category or \_\_\_\_\_\_(lower/higher), unless otherwise authorized by AF instruction or MAJCOM directives.
higher
55
Fill in the speeds for aircraft category for approaches. Category A - Category B - Category C- Category D- Category E-
A - less the 91 knots B- 91 knots or more but less that 121 knots C- 121 knots or more but less than 141 knots. D- 141 knots or more but less than 166 knots E- 166 knots or more
56
High altitude IAP charts depict instrument approaches for which category of aircraft.
C, D, and E (Low altitude IAP charts depict A,B,C,D)
57
If there is a requirement to execute an approach procedure with incompatible missed approach instructions, coordinate alternate missed approach/departure instructions with ATC before \_\_\_\_\_\_.
accepting approach clearance
58
When reference FLIP, if you are planning to accomplish the VOR/DME 17, what does this title indicate.
A VOR and or DME is required to execute the final approach. Final approach guidance to runway 17 is provided by the VOR, additional equipment may be required to execute the other portions of the procedure.
59
How is a circle identified on an IAP.
name of approach is followed by letter. EX TACAN-A
60
Emergency safe altitude provides what.
1000 feet or 2000 feet in mountainous within 100NM of the facility.
61
Define field elevation.
highest point on any usable landing surface.
62
Define touchdown zone elevation.
highest point in the first 3000 feet of the landing runway.
63
For a low altitude IAP, the initial descent gradient will not exceed _____ feet per NM ; and for a high altitude approach, the maximum allowable initial gradient is _______ feet per NM.
500;1000
64
VDPs are not a mandatory part of the approach.
true (but you should use them or calculate them)
65
A straight-in approach may bring your aircraft to the runway as much as ____ degrees off of the runway centerline and still be considered a straight-in approach.
30
66
On IAPs with a single ring, the entire plan view is to scale.
TRUE
67
A 2.5% gradient equates to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ft/nm.
152
68
A 3.3% gradient equates to _____ feet/NM.
200
69
Unlike USAF and USN fields, Civil and Army fields expect you to cross the departure end of the runway at ________ ft.
35
70
Runway end crossing heights are clearly identified in countries outside the United States (ICA0).
FALSE
71
When TERPS evaluate a field and no obstacles penetrate the 40:1 obstacle identification surface (OIS), then a minimum climb gradient of _____ ft/nm will ensure proper (48ft) obstacle clearance.
200
72
To fly a diverse departure, fly runway heading until _____ feet above field elevation before turning while maintaining a minimum climb gradient of ____ ft/nm.
400/200
73
When flying a diverse departure, how long do you maintain 200 ft/nm climb gradient.
until reaching a minimum IFR altitude
74
No matter what method of IFR departure is used, delay all turns until when.
400 feet above airport elevation
75
If issued a radar vector, you are no longer required to share the responsibility of obstacle clearance, even if the departure includes a trouble T.
FALSE
76
CHEYENNE, WY . . . . . . . . . Rwy 26, 500-2 What does the 500-2 mean.
500-2 is a see-and-avoid. We can not use this for an IFR departure. We need a "or standard"
77
Read Departure Procedure below and answer question. EAGLE, CO . . . . . . . . .Rwy 7, 5300-3\* \*or 800-2 with minimum climb of 650'/NM to 11,800. What do we nee to do or how do we depart rwy 7 IFR.
can't depart IFR no "or standard"
78
Unless otherwise cleared by ATC, pilots will fly the published instrument departure procedure for the runway used.
TRUE
79
Read Departure Procedure below and answer question. BAD PLACE INTL FIELD . . . . . . . . . .Rwy 6 900-2\* \*or standard with minimum of 270'/NM to 600 What do you need or what is required to depart rwy 6.
need 270'/nm climb gradient to 600' and AETC "standard" weather to depart IFR.
80
SIDS are primarily used to help pilots avoid obstacles.
FALSE
81
Military SIDS do not depict obstacles, but civil SIDS do.
FALSE
82
If the ATC controller says "radar contact"" - it means the controller now has responsibility for your terrain/obstacle clearance.
FALSE
83
If no climb gradient is specified on the SID, you must comply with the gradient published with the IFR departure procedure for that runway.
TRUE
84
It is up to the pilot to recognize and compute any ATC climb gradients on civil SIDS because they are not normally published.
TRUE
85
If a runway has a climb gradient published on the SID and a different climb gradient published in the IFR Departure Procedure section, the _____ climb gradient takes precedence.
SID
86
Unless a higher gradient is published, USAF aircraft are required to meet or exceed a _____ climb gradient on all IFR departures.
200 ft/nm
87
What is the definition of a standard holding pattern and time for altitude.
right hand turns, 1 minute inbound legs at or below 14000 and 1 1/2 minute inbound legs above 14000.
88
A holding pattern is non-standard when turns are made to the ____ .
left
89
If ATC does not specify the direction of turns in holding, they expect the pilot to make _____ turns
right
90
Do not hold over a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.(TACAN, VOR, or NDB)
TACAN
91
ATC should issue holding instructions at least ___ minutes before reaching a clearance limit fix. When an aircraft is ___ minutes or less from a clearance limit (holding fix) the aircraft is expected to start a speed reduction.
5, 3
92
Fill in max holding speeds. 0-6000 ft MSL \_\_\_\_\_KIAS above 6000-14000ft MSL \_\_\_\_\_KIAS above 14000ft MSL \_\_\_\_\_KIAS
200, 230, 265
93
You can lead the turn to enter holding instead of crossing the holding fix.
FALSE
94
When do you begin timing inbound in holding.
when wings level
95
When do you begin outbound timing in a holding pattern.
over or abeam the fix, if you cannot determine the abeam position, start timing when wings level outbound
96
Pilots can shorten holding patterns at their own discretion.
FALSE
97
In holding, you should adjust you inbound timing to meet the required outbound timing.
FALSE
98
You are required to use either the "AIM method" or "70 Degree Method" when entering holding.
FALSE
99
If you are established in holding at an altitude above that posted in the HIGH IAP. When can you descend in holding.
when cleared the approach
100
If you experience lost communications during an enroute descent you are automatically cleared to fly any published approach.
TRUE
101
Before starting an enroute descent. A. re-check the weather B. check heading and attitude systems C. finish the descent checklist D. A and B E. all of the above
D (also review the approach and coordinate lost comm if required)
102
Reduce airspeed to _____ KIAS or less when below 10,000 feet MSL.
250
103
ATC tells you to fly heading 240, descend and maintain 3000' MSL and then clears you the approach. If the minimum published altitude for that segment of the approach is 4,000' MSL what altitude should you fly.
3000
104
If cleared for an approach while enroute to a holding fix that is not collocated with the IAF where should you begin the approach.
Go to holding fix first then IAF unless IAF is located along the route of flight to the holding fix, begin approach at IAF.
105
Clearance for an approach does not include clearance to use holding airspace at the IAF.
TRUE
106
If you are established in holding and subsequently cleared the approach, you do not have to finish the holding pattern before beginning the approach.
FALSE
107
In general, MVA (minimum vectoring altitudes) give you ____ feet of obstacle clearance.
1000,2000 in mountainous terrain
108
If your heading is within ______ degrees of the procedure turn course, you may use normal lead points to intercept the course.
90
109
While being radar vectored, repeat all \_\_\_\_\_\_and comply with controller instructions.
headings, altitude (departing and assigned), and altimeter settings.
110
All high-altitude terminal routings will take you to the IAF.
FALSE
111
The altitudes published on low-altitude terminal routing are minimum altitudes and provide the same protection as MEAs.
TRUE
112
Ranges published along the low-altitude terminal routing are expressed in \_\_\_\_\_\_.
NM
113
"Expect altitudes published on a STAR are mandatory altitudes that ATC expects the pilot to meet once cleared for the arrival.
FALSE
114
When cleared for an arrival what does this clearance include?
cleared the routing but are expected to maintain your present altitude awaiting further clearance.
115
If you do not wish to fly a STAR you should place "NO STAR" in the remarks section of the flight plan.
TRUE
116
If you cleared for a high altitude approach and not within 90 degrees of the inbound course what should you do.
Cross IAF and turn in shortest direction to inbound course, or ask for maneuvering airspace.
117
When cleared for an arrival what does this clearance include (routing, altitudes, and any approach)
cleared the routing but are expected to maintain your present altitude awaiting further clearance.
118
When flying a non-DME teardrop penetration, use a descent gradient of _____ to ensure you remain within protected airspace.
800-1000 ft/NM
119
If no penetration turn altitude is published when flying a high altitude non-DME teardrop approach, when do you turn inbound
halfway between IAF and FAF altitudes
120
On a penetration turn you must use 30 degrees or standard rate of turn, whichever is less, to intercept the turn inbound.
FALSE
121
When an approach includes a dead reckoning (DR) course, the pilot should use lead points for turns to and from the DR leg and fly the depicted ground track by correcting for wind.
TRUE
122
When flying a radial-arc combination approach, you can consider yourself on the next segment of the approach when you reach a lead point and initiate the turn.
TRUE
123
When can you commence a descent fro a high IAF.
outbound IAF on a parallel or intercept heading to course and fly off restrictions met.
124
On a Non-DME Teardrop Approach, if you arrive at the IAF below the published altitude, maintain your current altitude and proceed outbound _____ seconds for each \_\_\_\_\_feet the aircraft is low before starting the descent.
15, 1000
125
When an altitude restriction is depicted at a fix defined as an intersection of a radial and an ARC the restriction must be complied with no later than the completion of the lead turn associated with that fix.
TRUE
126
Unless otherwise stated, the localizer signal has a usable range of at least ______ miles within 10 degrees of course centerline.
18
127
Can ATC clear you to intercept the localizer course beyond the published limit (usually 18 miles).
yes, as long as in radar contact and ATC is sharing responsibility for course guidance.
128
When do begin timing if timing is required to identify the missed approach point.
FAF
129
Final approach timing charts are based on \_\_\_\_\_\_speed.
ground
130
If timing is not published on the approach plate timing is not authorized to identify the missed approach.
TRUE
131
The middle marker can be used the sole means of identifying the MAP.
FALSE
132
The minimum visibility published on a IAP will always allow you to see the runway environment at your computed VDP.
FALSE
133
The final approach course of a nonradar final may vary from the runway heading as much as\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ degrees (except localizer) and still be published as a straight-in approach.
30
134
Unless otherwise stated, the glide slope has a usable range of \_\_\_\_\_miles.
10
135
While flying an ILS do not descend below localizer minimums if the aircraft is more than _____ dot (s) below or ____ dot (s) above the glide slope
1;2
136
When should you advise ATC you are accomplishing a coupled approach.
when weather is above 800 / 2
137
Fill in blank While flying a surveillance approach the control should talk to you when. \_\_\_\_\_when being vectored to final. \_\_\_\_\_while on final for an ASR approach, or \_\_\_\_\_while on final for a PAR approach
1 minute, 15 seconds, 5 seconds
138
To accomplish a visual approach you must cancel your IFR flight plan.
FALSE
139
You have to have either the runway or preceding aircraft in sight to accomplish a visual approach.
TRUE
140
Before a visual approach can be authorized the reported weather at the airport must have a ceiling at or above \_\_\_\_\_\_feet and visibility _____ miles or greater.
1000 / 3
141
The final approach portion of a non-precision approach begins at the ____ and ends at the \_\_\_\_\_.
FAF;MAP
142
Once an aircraft with only one VOR receiver is inside the final approach fix, that receiver must remain tuned to and display final approach course guidance unless retuning is required to identify a step-down fix.
FALSE
143
If both DME and timing are available to determine a MAP, DME is more accurate and should be used as the primary method.
TRUE
144
If descent from the MDA is initiated at the MAP a 3 degree (normal) glide path will be sufficient to accomplish the approach.
FALSE
145
A T-1A with an average groundspeed of 120 groundspeed will need a descent rate of \_\_\_\_fpm in order to fly a 3 degree ILS glide slope.
600
146
I you request an ASR that will terminate in a circling approach what do you need to furnish to the controller.
aircraft category
147
The ILS/LOC approach must be discontinued if full scale deflection of the CDI occurs.
TRUE
148
A relatively wide runway may give the illusion that the aircraft is below a normal glide path.
TRUE
149
A relatively narrow runway may give the illusion of being low on glide path.
false (illusion of being high)
150
Instrument approach lights provide excellent vertical guidance to the pilot, especially during poor weather conditions.
false (do not provide adequate guidance)
151
The absence of a VDP indicates either ____ or \_\_\_\_.
an obstacle penetrating the 20:1 surface area or lighting issues
152
VASIs work well for glide slope guidance but do not assist in runway alignment.
TRUE
153
If a three-bar VASI system is installed, which ones will a T-1 use.
first two (nearest) bars
154
Describe what you expect to see in the last 3000 feet of runway centerline lights.
3000 to 1000 alternating red and white. Last 1000 all red
155
Runway centerline lights begin and end ____ feet from the runway edge.
75
156
Basic runway markings include:
runway direction number and centerline marking
157
Nonprecision instrument runway markings include:
runway direction number, centerline marking, and threshold markings
158
Precision instrument runway markings include:
runway direction number, centerline marking, threshold markings, touchdown and sidestripe markings
159
A displaced threshold that is unusable for taxi, takeoff, or landing will be marked with yellow chevrons.
true (can also be called an overrun, is usuable if marked with white chevrons)
160
Instrument hold lines or CAT II ILS lines are used when weather conditions are less than _____ feet ceiling and/or ___ miles visibility.
800, 2 (with be directed to hold short)
161
Circling procedures and techniques are not compatible with precision approach criteria and should not be attempted.
true (MAP is based on DH, not MDA)
162
When accomplishing a circling approach always fly at circling MDA.
false (you can fly the circle up to your normal traffic pattern altitude)
163
You can descend from circling MDA when \_\_\_
you're in a safe position to place the aircraft on a normal glidepath to the runway
164
The reported RVR conditions for an airfield are usually conservative guesses so the actual visibility conditions the pilot will encounter may be greater.
FALSE
165
Shallow fog extends more than 200 feet in height and may cause a loss of visual cues during the last portion of the approach.
true (deep fog extends to a height of several hundred feet and usuall forms a total obscuration)
166
Two synchronized flashing lights, one of which is located laterally on each side of the runway threshold describes what?
REILs
167
A red-over-red display on the VASIs indicates what.
aircraft below glide slope
168
What lighting system consists of four light boxes installed in a horizontal row on one side of the runway.
PAPIs
169
A pulsing white light on a PVASI system indicates the aircraft is what.
above glide path
170
To determine the MDA and weather minimum for a circling approach, use the runway to which the circle will be flown to.
false (use the runway to which the approach was flown)
171
When can you begin a side-step maneuver.
runway environment in sight typically past the FAF
172
\_\_\_\_\_ fog can cause turbulence and wind problems.
Advection
173
Do not descend from a MDA on a side-step approach until
reaching a point at which a normal descent to land on the side-step runway can be started
174
You should execute a missed approach if:
the runway is not in sight, not in a safe position to land, or when directed
175
The missed approach point for a precision approach is what.
DH
176
You cannot start a missed approach prior to the missed approach point.
FALSE
177
How do you initiate the missed approach prior to the missed approach point (MAP)
proceed to the MAP along the final approach course
178
If you go missed prior to the MAP you may climb to _____ and do not initate any turns until \_\_\_\_\_
MAP altitude, MAP
179
If you delay going missed approach at the MAP 220ft/nm is required to avoid obstacles.
false (do not delay going missed at the MAP, but must ensure 200 ft/nm)
180
Clearance for an approach includes clearance for the published missed approach unless ATC issues different instructions.
TRUE
181
If the circling maneuver has begun and the airport environment is visually lost what do you do.
initiate a climbing turn toward the landing runway until established on the climbout or missed approach for runway the approach was flown to.
182
Unless otherwise published, on a missed approach, a climb gradient of ___ is required.
200 ft/nm
183
The MAP depicted on the IAP is for the \_\_\_\_
non-radar approach with the lowest HAT.
184
When flying a radar approach, missed approach instructions will be given when.
any portion of the final approach will be conducted in IFR conditions
185
Published missed approach instructions supersede "climb out" instructions.
FALSE
186
If you lose visual reference while circling to land, follow the missed approach specified for the approach just flown.
TRUE
