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Pathology I > Session 13,14 - Respiratory I + II > Flashcards

Session 13,14 - Respiratory I + II Flashcards

1
Q

Three routes into the lung

A

Aerogenous
Hematogenous
Direct extension

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2
Q

What tends to enter the lung aerogenously?

A

Infectious pathogens + Toxins

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3
Q

What tends to affect the lungs through a hematogenous mechanism?

A

Speticemia
Bacteremia
Parasites
Neoplasia

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4
Q

What is involved in the direct extension mechanism of lung routes?

A

Bites
Penatrating wounds
Migrating FB’s
Neoplasia

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5
Q

Where do particles larger then 2 um tend to get stuck?

A

Nasal Turbinates + Tracheal/Bronchial bifurcations

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6
Q

What are the methods of clearance in the upper respiratory tract (URT)?

A

Destruction + Neutralization + Removal

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7
Q

What are the four ways the lungs can remove things from the airway?

A

Sneezing + Coughing + Phagocytosis + Mucociliary transport

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8
Q

Where is the mucociliary transport present in the airways?

A

Bronchi to Pharynx

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9
Q

What are the layers of the mucous within the URT?

A

Gel + Sol

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10
Q

What cells produce the mucous in the URT?

A

Goblet + Serous + Submucosal

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11
Q

What are the cell-associated defenses within the nose, trachea, and bronchi (aka URT)?

A

AB’s + Lysozymes + Mucus

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12
Q

What are the cell-associated defenses within the bronchioles?

A

Clara cells + Antioxidants + Lysozymes + Antibodies

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13
Q

What is a special structure that is present in the bronchial bifurcations?

A

APC’s

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14
Q

Where do the APC’s take the inhaled particles they come across at the bronchial bifurcations?

A

BALT

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15
Q

What is BALT?

A

Bronchial associated lymphoid tissue

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16
Q

What are clara cells?

A

Non-ciliated cells present only in the bronchioles

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17
Q

What are the functions of the clara cells?

A

Cytokine inhibitor
Produce antibacterial + Antioxidant molecules
Surfactant production
Secretion of mixed function oxidase-containing granules

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18
Q

What can be a problem associated with clara cells?

A

Create toxic metabolites that can damage the bronchiolar epithelium and therefore create an environment for a secondary infection

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19
Q

What are three bovine viruses that allow for viral-bacterial synergism?

A

BHV-1 + PI-3 + BRSV

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20
Q

What is a common canine virus that allows for viral-bacterial synergism?

A

Canine distemper virus

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21
Q

What are two feline viruses that allow for viral bacterial synergism?

A

Feline herpesvirus + Feline calicivirus

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22
Q

What are two gases that tend to causes damage to the respiratory defenses?

A

Ammonia + Hydrogen sulfide

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23
Q

What are some sequela that occur when regional structures allow chronic rhinitis and sinusitis to spread to other areas?

A

Septal deviation
Osteomyelitis
Meningitis
Otitis media/interna

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24
Q

What is does catarrhal describe?

A

Exduate that forms on surfaces
Will be irregular and tan
Viscous + Necrotic material that is often mucopurulent

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25
Q

What are two common nasal parasites?

A

Oestrus ovis

Cuterebra spp.

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26
Q

What animal does Oestrus ovis tend to infect?

A

Sheep

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27
Q

How do Oestrus ovis tend to develop?

A

In the nostrils then maggots will migrate into the sinuses

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28
Q

What pathology is seen with a Oestrus Ovis infection?

A

Mucopurulent rhinitis + Sinusitis

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29
Q

What animals does Cuterebra spp. tend to infect?

A

Rabbits + Rodents + Cats

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30
Q

What Equine Influenza type is most severe?

A

Type A

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31
Q

What are common symptoms seen with Equine Influenza Type A?

A

Nasal discharge + Fever + Conjunctivitis

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32
Q

What happens with serious infections caused by Equine Influnenza Type A?

A

Pneumonia

Bronchointerstitial penumonia

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33
Q

What does Pneumonia caused by equine influenza type A suggest?

A

The horse is immunocompromised

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34
Q

What are the two equine herpes viruses that cause viral rhinopneumonitis?

A

1 + 4

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35
Q

What is seen in fowls with EHV-1,4 infections?

A

Mild respiratory disease

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36
Q

What are severe pathologies that can occur with EHV-1,4 infections?

A

Myeloencephalopathy

Mare abortions

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37
Q

Where can the herpes virus remain latent in the body?

A

Trigeminal ganglia

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38
Q

What is strangles caused by?

A

Streptococcus equi ssp. equi

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39
Q

What age is strangles most commonly seen?

A

Young horses

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40
Q

What lymph nodes are affected in strangles?

A

Mandibular + Retropharyngeal

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41
Q

What symptoms are seen with strangles?

A

Suppurative rhinitis, nasal discharge
Lymphadenitis
Cough
Conjunctivitis

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42
Q

What happens when there is hematogenous spread of strangles?

A

Bastard strangles - goes to other organs

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43
Q

What are common sequela seen with strangles?

A

Bronchopneumonia
Nerve compression
Purpura hemorrhagica
Guttural pouch empyema

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44
Q

What two nerves can be affected by strangles?

A

Recurrent laryngeal + Sympathetic nerve

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45
Q

What is the effects of the compressed sympathetic nerve in strangles?

A

Facial paralysis + Horner’s

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46
Q

What is the triad in horner’s?

A

Miosis + Partial ptosis + Loss of hemifacial sweating

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47
Q

What causes purapura hemorrhagica?

A

Step. Equi Ag/Ab complexes form in small vessels of the skin and mucosa

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48
Q

What can Bovine herpesvirus 1 (BoHV-1) cause?

A

Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis

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49
Q

What are the pathogens that can cause porcine atrophic rhinitis?

A

Bordetella bronchoseptica
Pasteurella multocida
Haemophilus parasuis
Porcine cytomegalovirus

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50
Q

What causes porcine atropic rhinitis?

A

increased osteoclastic activity and osteopenia due to the pathogen present leading to the loss of nasal conchae

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51
Q

What causes bovine necrotic laryngitis?

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum

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52
Q

What are the possible outcomes of bovine necrotic laryngitis?

A

Endotoxemia +/- Bacteremia
Laryngeal Obstruction
Aspiration

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53
Q

What causes infectious laryngotracheitis of chickens?

A

Herpes virus

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54
Q

What happens in infectious laryngotracheitis of chickens?

A

mild laryngitis that can lead to thick diphtheritic membranes and eventually necrotic plugs

55
Q

What symptoms are seen with severe laryngotracheitis?

A

Dyspnea + Gasping + Coughing

56
Q

Where do cats tend to get nasal polyps?

A

Nasopharynx + Eustachian tubes

57
Q

Where do horses tend to get nasal polyps?

A

Ethmoid

58
Q

What are nasal polyps associated with?

A

Chronic rhinitis + Sinusitis

59
Q

What are nasal polyps composed of?

A

Inflammatory vascular stroma covered by squamous or pseudostratified epithelium

60
Q

What is the gross presentation of equine ethmoid hematoma?

A

Non-neoplastic

Dark red, pedunculated mass

61
Q

How do equine ethmoid hematomas present?

A

Unilateral nasal bleeding

62
Q

What side is most common to have laryngeal hemiplegia?

A

Left

63
Q

What structures (nerve, muscle, etc) are involved in laryngeal hemiplegia?

A

Arytenoid cartilages
Dorsal and Lateral cricoarytenoid muscles
Recurrent laryngeal

64
Q

What dogs are most commonly affected by laryngeal hemiplegia?

A

Siberian husky
Bouvier des Flandres
Older dogs

65
Q

What is another name for laryngeal hemiplegia in horses?

A

Roaring

66
Q

What can roaring be a sequela to in horses?

A

Strangles

67
Q

What causes the roaring in strangles?

A

Lymph node enlargement compresses the nerve

68
Q

What are the three pathogens that can cause kennel cough?

A

Bordetella bronchoseptica
Canine Adenovirus 2
Canina Parainfluenza 2

69
Q

What is seen with kennel cough?

A 
Mucopurulent rhinitis 
Conjuncitivits 
Tonsillitis 
traacheobronchitis 
Cough, dry hacking
70
Q

What is the medical terminology for kennel cough?

A

Canine infectious tracheobronchitis

71
Q

What are the factors that make up brachycephalic airway disease?

A

Long soft palate
Small nares
Evereted laryngeal saccules
+/- narrow/collapsing trachea

72
Q

What are the sequela to brachycephalic airway disease?

A

Exercise intolerance
Cyanosis
Collapse

73
Q

What are the two pathogens most commonly the cause of equine guttural pouch disease?

A

Aspergillus fumigatus

Streptococcus sp.

74
Q

What is happening in equine guttural pouch disease?

A

Infection of large diverticula on ventral portion of eustachian tube of horses

75
Q

What are the cellular defenses in the alveoli?

A

Alveolar/Intravascular macrophages
Opsonizing antibodies
Surfactant
Antioxidants

76
Q

What is a specialized cell type in the alveoli besides the macrophages?

A

Type 2 pneumocytes

77
Q

What do the type 2 pneumocytes do?

A

Produce surfactant

78
Q

How are pulmonary macrophages specialized?

A

Can withstand the aerobic environment of the lungs

79
Q

What part of the immune system do the pulmonary macrophages belong to?

A

Innate

80
Q

What do the pulmonary macrophages do?

A

Phagocytose particles and remove them via mucocilary transport

81
Q

What are the bacterium that are most commonly resistant to the pulmonary macrophages?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Listeria monocytogenes
Brucella abortus
Salmonella (some)

82
Q

Where are the intravascular macrophages? What do they do?

A

Reside in pulmonary capillaries

Remove circulating pathogens

83
Q

What is the most vulnerable part of the lung?

A

Alveoli

84
Q

Why are the alveoli the most vulnerable part of the respiratory system?

A

Poor clearance
Long, skinny particles can pass through barriers
Large amount of vascularity

85
Q

Why is there poor clearance in the alveoli?

A

No cilia or mucous producing cells

86
Q

What does atelectasis mean?

A

Deflation of alveoli leading to partial or complete lung collapse of the lung

87
Q

What is occurring with emphysema?

A

Hyperinflation of alveoli, leading to septal rupture and fusion of air spaces

88
Q

What do you see in a radiograph that could suggest a bronchial pattern?

A

Doughnuts and railroad tracts

Small vessel walls remain sharp and distinct

89
Q

What gross changes would you see with a bronchial disease pattern?

A

Thick, white, firm airway walls

90
Q

What can cause a bronchial disease pattern?

A

Chronic bronchitis
Feline asthma
Eosinophilic pulmonary infiltrates
Parasitic infestations

91
Q

Where are changes seen with chronic bronchial inflammation and damage?

A 
Bronchial gland  
Goblet cell
Smooth muscle 
Fibrosis 
Squamous cells 
Bronchiectasis 
Bronchiolitis obliterans
92
Q

What happens with hypertrophy and metaplasia of the bronchial glands and goblet cells?

A

Excess mucous production

93
Q

What happens with smooth muscle changes seen with chronic inflammation of the bronchials?

A

Firm, non-compliant airways

94
Q

What are ciliated cells replaced with during chronic inflammation of the bronchials?

A

Squamous cells

95
Q

What is bronchiectasis?

A

Permanent loss of mural integrity

Leads to dilation and dysfunction of the bronchi

96
Q

What is bronchiolitis obliterans?

A

Fibrotic response to bronchiolar wall damage

Leads to occlusion of the airway lumen

97
Q

What disease fall under equine RAO?

A

Heaves
COPD
Emphysema
Chronic small airway disease

98
Q

What are the clinical signs of RAO?

A

Recurrent respiratory distress
Chronic cough
Exercise intolerance

99
Q

What is the pathologic mechanism behind RAO?

A

Some disease process leads to a hyper-reactive airway
Cytokine production
Leukocyte-induced bronchiolar damage
Chronic alterations of lower airway

100
Q

What does the inflammatory infiltrates of RAO tend to be composed of?

A

Lymphocytes
Plasma cells
Eosinophils
Neutrophils

101
Q

What are the clinical signs of feline allergic bronchitis?

A

Bronchoconstriction
Cough
Dyspnea

102
Q

What is the pathologic mechanism for feline allergic bronchitis?

A

Inhaled allergen leads to Type 1 hypersensitivity
Peribronchial inflammation w/ strong eosinophilic presence
Chronic alterations of the airway structure

103
Q

What would an alveolar pattern look like radiographically?

A

Dense white appearance

Silhouetting with adjacent soft tissues = air bronchogram

104
Q

What are the four gross changes that would cause a radiographic changes?

A

Bronchopneumonia
Atelectasis
Edema
Hemorrhage

105
Q

What does bronchopneumonia look like grossly?

A

Meaty to firm
Red to tan tissue
Exudate: Suppurative

106
Q

What does atelectasis look like grossly?

A

Fim and meaty
Red
NO INFLAMMATORY EXUDATE

107
Q

What does Edema look like grossly?

A

Firm
Color variable
Exudate: Frothy fluid

108
Q

What disease processes can lead to a radiographic alveolar pattern?

A

Bronchopneumonia
Pulmonary edema
Hemorrhage
Lobar collapse

109
Q

What is bronchopneumonia?

A

Inflammation of the Bronchi + Bronchioles + Alveoli

110
Q

What is the most common distribution of bronchopneumonia?

A

Crainoventral

111
Q

What are the reasons for a cranioventral distribution of bronchopneumonia?

A

Gravity
Vascular
Short, abrupt branching of airways

112
Q

What are the two types of interstitial patterns?

A

Unstructured + Structured

113
Q

What is seen radiographically in regards to an interstitial pattern?

A

Diffuse opacities that obscure structures

Small vessel walls are indistinct

114
Q

What gross changes are seen with a structured interstitial pattern?

A

Obvious masses of varying appearances

115
Q

What gross changes are seen with an unstructured interstitial pattern?

A

Lungs fail to collapse

Feel air-filled but firm

116
Q

What can be possible causes for a structured interstitial pattern?

A

Pulmonary masses due to neoplasia or granulomas

117
Q

What can be possible causes for an unstructured interstitial pattern?

A

Fibrosis
Interstitial pneumonia
Pulmonary lymphoma
Early or resolving edema

118
Q

What are the common bacteria in bovine that can cause embolic pneumonia?

A

Arcanobacterium pyogenes
Fusobacterium necrophorum
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

119
Q

What are the common bacteria in swine that can cause embolic pneumonia?

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
Streptococcus suis Type II

120
Q

What are the common bacteria in poultry that can cause an embolic pneumonia?

A

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

121
Q

What are the common bacteria in canines that can cause an embolic pneumonia?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

122
Q

What are the common bacteria in equine that can cause an embolic pneumonia?

A

Streptococcus equi

123
Q

What causes lipid pneumonia in cats?

A

Lipids from surfactant and degenerate cells accumulate in alveolar macrophages

124
Q

What does lipid pneumonia look like grossly?

A

Multifocal, white nodules

125
Q

What is the histologic appearance of lipid pneumonia?

A

Vacuolated macrophages with variable degrees of mononuclear inflammation and fibrosis

126
Q

What can the histologic appearance of lipid pneumonia be confused with?

A

Heart failure cells

127
Q

What do heart failure cells look like histologically?

A

Hemosiderin pigment is present from the break down of red blood cells

128
Q

What is the structural description of aspiration pneumonia?

A

Bronchopneumonia

129
Q

What portion of the lung tends to be most affected with aspiration pneumonia?

A

Right cranial lobe

130
Q

What can follow aspiration pneumonia?

A

Septic shock + ARDS

131
Q

What occurs with ARDs?

A

Diffuse alveolar damage + Pulmonary hypertension + Aggregation of Neutrophils in capillaries

132
Q

What is a sign that a cow has died of metastatic pneumonia?

A

Sudden death

Acute, bright red hemorrhage from nose

133
Q

What is the path of a venal caval thrombosis?

A 
Hepatic abscess ruptures into either hepatic veins or into vena cava directly 
Pulmonary artery
Secondary abcess in lung parenchyma 
Necrosis of vascular walls 
Ruptures --> Intra pulmonary hemorrhage

Pathology I (19 decks)

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