OB EXAM 4 Flashcards

1
Q

true labor contractions

A

• Occur regularly, becoming stronger, lasting longer, and occurring closer together

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2
Q

in true labor: contractions do what with walking

A

get more intense

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3
Q

where are contractions felt in true labor?

A

• Are usually felt in the lower back, radiating to lower portion of the abdomen

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4
Q

true labor & comfort measures

A

• Continue despite use of comfort measures

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5
Q

true labor & the cervix

A

• Shows progressive change (softening, effacement, and dilation signaled by the appearance of bloody show)

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6
Q

position of cervix in true labor

A

anterior position

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7
Q

fetus in true labor

A

• Presenting part usually becomes engaged in the pelvis, which results in increased ease of breathing; at the same time, the presenting part presses downward and compresses the bladder, resulting in urinary frequency

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8
Q

contractions in false labor

A

• Occur irregularly or become regular only temporarily

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9
Q

false labor contractions with walking or position change

A

stop with walking or position change

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10
Q

false labor contractions can be felt where?

A

back or abdomen above the navel

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11
Q

false labor contractions with comfort measures

A

can be stopped

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12
Q

cervix with false labor

A

• May be soft but with no significant change in effacement or dilation or evidence of bloody show

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13
Q

cervix with false labor is in which position

A

posterior

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14
Q

fetus is presenting how in false labor

A

Presenting part is usually not engaged in the pelvis

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15
Q

stoic response to labor pain

fathers usually not present

A

south korea

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16
Q

natural childbirth methods practiced

may labor silently

may eat during labor

father may be present

A

japan

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17
Q

stoic response to pain

fathers usually not present

side-lying position preferred for labor and birth because this position is thought to reduce infant trauma

A

china

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18
Q

natural childbirth methods preferred

father is usually not present

female relatives usually present

A

india

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19
Q

father not present

female support & female caregivers preferred

A

iran

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20
Q

may be stoic about discomfort until second stage

may request pain relief after that

fathers & female relatives may be present

A

mexico

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21
Q

may use squatting position for birth

fathers may or may not be present

female attendants preferred

A

laos

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22
Q

how many stages of labor?

A

4

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23
Q

stage 1 starts & ends with what?

A

starts with active contractions

ends with 10 cm dilated

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24
Q

stage 1 is the ______ stage of labor for a woman

A

longest

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25
Q

phases of stage 1

A

latent phase
active phase
transition phase

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26
Q

latent phase is through ____cm of dilation

A

3

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27
Q

nursing Dx for latent phase

A

anxiety

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28
Q

latent phase is the best time to?

A

teach her

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29
Q

how long is latent phase

A

6-8 hours long

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30
Q

contractions in latent phase

A

mild to moderate irregular contractions occurring 5-10 minutes apart lasting 30-45 seconds

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31
Q

active phase is ___-___cm of dilation

A

4-7cm

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32
Q

nursing dx in active phase

A

alteration in comfort

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33
Q

interventions for active phase

A

focused breathing

effleurage
massage

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34
Q

the status of amniotic membranes, such as a gush or seepage of fluid

A

SROM

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35
Q

use amniohook to rupture

A

AROM

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36
Q

vitals in active phase

A

every 30 min

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37
Q

FHR in active phase

A

15-30 min

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38
Q

latent phase vitals & FHR

A

30-60 min

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39
Q

uses a cotton tip applicator impregnated with Nitrazine dye for determining pH

A

nitrazine test

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40
Q

differentiates amniotic fluid

A

nitrazine test

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41
Q

amniotic fluid is?

A

slightly alkaline

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42
Q

urine & purulent material (pus) is?

A

acidic

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43
Q

yellow fluid pH

A

5.0

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44
Q

olive-yellow pH

A

5.5

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45
Q

olive-green pH

A

6.0

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46
Q

blue-green pH

A

6.5

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47
Q

blue-gray pH

A

7.0

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48
Q

deep blue pH

A

7.5

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49
Q

spread a drop of fluid from the vagina on a clean glass slide with a sterile cotton-tipped applicator

A

ferning or fern pattern test

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50
Q

what to look for on the slide in a fern test

A

observe for appearance of ferning

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51
Q

fetus diagnosis

A

risk for impaired gas exchange r/t placental insufficiency.umbillial cord compression

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52
Q

goal for fetus diagnosis

A

maintains a FHR of 110-160, moderate variability, and no decal’s throughout the labor process

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53
Q

interventions of the fetus

A

observe FHR for non-reassuring signs of fetal hypoxia such as bradycardia, tachycardia, decreasing variability;

institute intrauterine resuscitation measures such as turning off piton

reposition mom

increase IV fluids

begin oxygen with tight fitting mask at 8-10 L/min

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54
Q

___-___cm of dilation in transition phase

A

8-10cm

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55
Q

nursing dx in transition phase

A

risk for ineffective coping r/t increasing frequency, longer duration, and stronger contractions

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56
Q

contracts during transition phase

A

very strong regular contractions 2-3 min apart lasting 45-90 seconds

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57
Q

interventions for transition phase

A

assess pain level

quiet environment

support

encouragement

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58
Q

stage 2 begins with _______ and meds with

A

begins with complete dilation and effacement of the cervix

ends with birth of the baby

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59
Q

nursing dx for stage 2

A

risk for acute pain r/t bearing down efforts & distention of the perineum

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60
Q

don’t asses for ____ in stage 2

A

pain

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61
Q

if the mom is 100% effaced and 10 cm dilated instruct her to do what?

A

push with the contraction.

tell her when to push and when to relax

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62
Q

if the mom isn’t 100% effaced and 10cm dilated do what?

A

pant and blow air with her

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63
Q

interventions for stage 2

A

iron the perineum

side-lying position for delivery

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64
Q

iron the perineum with?

A

olive oil

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65
Q

tear during stage 2

A

lacerations

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66
Q

cut with scissors the area between the vagina and anus-perineum body

A

episiotomy

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67
Q

1st degree involves

A

epidermis

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68
Q

2nd degree involved

A

dermis, muscle, fascia

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69
Q

3rd degree extends into

A

the anal sphincter

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70
Q

4th degree extends ?

A

up the rectal mucosa

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71
Q

stage 3 begins and ends when?

A

begins with birth of baby and ends when the placenta is expelled

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72
Q

nursing diagnosis for stage 3

A

risk for deficient fluid volume r/t blood loss occurring after placental separation/expulsion

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73
Q

interventions for stage 3

A

open up IV piton

massage fundus

put NB to mom’s breast

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74
Q

medications during stage 3

A

pitocin

methergine

hemabate

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75
Q

stage 4 is ___-____ hours after the baby is born

A

2-4

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76
Q

nursing diagnosis during stage 4

A

risk for fatigue r/t energy expenditure associated with childbirth

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77
Q

during stage 4 the fetus is now a ______.

A

neonate

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78
Q

what would the RN report to the midwife

A

VS

Fetal HR

Contraction pattern

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79
Q

non-english speaking client & the father won’t go in the room. RN finds the translator to do what?

A

assess his cultural beliefs about childbirth

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80
Q

2nd stage of labor has begun when the nurse does what?

A

the cervix cannot be felt during a cervical exam

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81
Q

a 19 y/o with membranes intact. cervix 50% effaced. 1 cm dilated: -3 station. wants to go pee:

A

go to BR

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82
Q

5 P’s of labor and delivery

A
passage
passenger
powers
psyche
position
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83
Q

birth canal

composed of the mother’s rigid bony pelvis and the soft tissues of the cervix, the pelvic floor, the vagina, and intoitus

A

passage

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84
Q

the external opening to the vagina

A

introitus

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85
Q

the 4 basic types of pelvis are classified as the following:

A

gynecoid
android
anthropoid
platypelloid

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86
Q

the classic female pelvis

A

gynecoid

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87
Q

resembling the male pelvis

A

android

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88
Q

resembling the pelvis of anthropoid apes

A

anthropoid

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89
Q

the flat pelvis

A

platypelloid

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90
Q

The women that you saw in labor and they just push that baby out in a matter of 2 hours with no problems, they probably had this pelvis. Shaped like a heart that is more wide and long

A

gynecoid pelvis

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91
Q

. In the shape of a small heart.

A

android pelvis

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92
Q

A long interior-posterior diameter

A

anthropoid pelvis

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93
Q

The baby will get stuck up there. Has a wide transverse diameter

A

platypeltoid pelvis

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94
Q

• The way the passenger, or fetus, moves through the birth canal is determined by several interacting factors:

A

size of the fetal head

fetal presentation

fetal lie

fetal attitude

fetal position

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95
Q

Because the bones are not firmly united, slight overlapping of the bones, or _______ of the shape of the head, occurs during labor.

A

molding

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96
Q

Molding can be extensive but the heads of most newborns assume their normal shape within ____ days after birth.

A

3

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97
Q

♣ The fetus’ bones are joined by membranous ligaments called sutures

A
  • Lambdoid suture
  • Sagittal suture
  • Coronal suture
  • Frontal suture
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98
Q

♣ ________ refers to the part of the fetus that enters the pelvic inlet first and leads through the birth canal during labor.

A

presentation

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99
Q

♣ The three main presentations are:

A

cephalic
breech presentation
shoulder presentation

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100
Q

cephalic presentation

A

head first

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101
Q

breech means?

A

buttocks, feet, or both first

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102
Q

shoulder presentation means?

A

baby’s lying horizontally with shoulder presenting first

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103
Q

is the part of the fetus that lies closest to the internal os of the cervix

A

presenting part

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104
Q

in the Cephalic presentation the presenting part is usually the

A

occiput

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105
Q

in breech presentation the presenting part is?

A

sacrum

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106
Q

in cephalic presentation what presents first?

A

scapula

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107
Q

when the presenting part is the occiput the presentation isn noted as ____.

A

vertex

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108
Q

is the relation of the long axis (spine) of the fetus to the long axis (spine) of the mother

A

Lie

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109
Q

the 2 primary lies are?

A

longitudinal or vertical

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110
Q

is the relation of the fetal body parts to each other.

A

attitude

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111
Q

is the normal attitude and is characterized by the back of the fetus being rounded so that the chin is flexed on the chest, the thighs flexed on the abdomen, and the legs are flexed at the knees

A

general flesion

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112
Q

is the largest transverse diameter and an important indicator of fetal head size

A

biparietal diameter

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113
Q

biparietal diameter is usually ___ cm at term

A

9.25

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114
Q

is the widest part of the head entering the pelvic inlet

A

biparietal diameter

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115
Q

of the several anteroposterior diameters, the smallest and the most critical one is the ______ ______.

A

suboocipitobregmatic diameter

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116
Q

when the head is in complete ____ this diameter allows the fetal head to pass through the true pelvis more easily.

A

flexion

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117
Q

is the relationship of a reference point on the presenting part, or sinciput to the four quadrants of the mother’s pelvis.

A

position

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118
Q

is the relationship of the presenting fetal part to an imaginary line drawn between the maternal ischial spines and is a measure of the degree of descent of the presenting part of the fetus through the birth canal.

A

station

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119
Q

is the term used to indicate that the largest transverse diameter of the presenting part has passed through the maternal pelvic brim or inlet not the true pelvis and usually corresponds to station 0

A

engagement

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120
Q

engagement can be determined by?

A

abdominal or vaginal examination

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121
Q

involuntary and voluntary ____ combine to expel the fetus and the placenta from the uterus.

A

powers

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122
Q

involuntary uterine contractions, called the _____ _____, signal the beginning of labor.

A

primary powers

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123
Q

augment the force of the involuntary contractions

A

secondary powers

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124
Q

terms used to describe the involuntary contractions include

A

frequency, duration, & intensity

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125
Q

the time from the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next

A

frequency

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126
Q

length of the contraction

A

duration

127
Q

strength of contraction at it’s peak

A

intensity

128
Q

the primary powers are responsible for the ?

A

effacement and dilation of the cervix and descent of the fetus

129
Q

_________ of the cervix means the shortening and thinning of the cervix during the first stage of labor

A

effacement

130
Q

enlargement or widening of the cervical opening and the cervical canal that occurs once labor has begun

A

dilations

131
Q

primary powers=

A

effacement and dilation

132
Q

secondary powers=

A

bearing down efforts

133
Q

the secondary powers have no effect on ____ ______, but they are of considerable importance in the expulsion of the infant from the uterus and vagina after the cervix is fully dilated.

A

cervical dilation

134
Q

frequent ____ __ _____ relieve fatigue, increase comfort, and improve circulation.

A

changes in position

135
Q

which position offers a number of advantages

A

upright position (walking, sitting, kneeling, or squatting)

136
Q

with an upright position uterine contractions are?

A

stronger and more efficient in effacing and dilating the cervix, resulting in a shorter labor.

137
Q

this position may be used to relieve backache if the fetus is in an occipitoposterior position and may assist in anterior rotation of the fetus and incases of shoulder dystocia.

A

“all fours” position

138
Q

this position can be used by the woman to help rotate a fetus that is in a posterior position.

also used for less force to be used during bearing down, such as when there is a need to control the speed of a precipitate birth

A

lateral position

139
Q

in 1st time pregnancies the uterus sinks downward and forward about 2 wks before term, when the fetus’ presenting part (usually the fetal head) descends into the true pelvis

A

lightening

140
Q

also known as “dropping” and usually happens gradually

A

lightening

141
Q

after lightening occurs:

A

women feel less congested and breathe more easily, but usually more bladder pressure results from this shift and consequently a return of urinary frequency occurs.

142
Q

the course of labor at or near term gestation in a woman with out complications and a fetus in vertex presentation consists of:

A

regular progression of uterine contractions

effacement and progressive dilation of the cervix

progress in descent of the presenting part

143
Q

the turns and other adjustments necessary in the human birth process are termed the ___ __ _____

A

mechanism of labor

144
Q

the 7 cardinal movements of the mechanisms of labor that occur in a vertex presentation are:

A
engagement
descent
flexion
internal rotation
extension
external rotation
expulsion
145
Q

when the biparietal diameter of the head passes the pelvic inlet, the head is said to be ____ in the pelvic inlet.

A

engaged

146
Q

the head is usually engaged in a ______ position

A

synclitic

147
Q

one that is parallel to the anteroposterior plane of the pelvis.

A

synclitic position

148
Q

when the head is deflected anteriorly or posteriorly in the pelvis

A

asynclitism

149
Q

asynclitism can facilitate _____ because the head is being positioned to accommodate to the pelvic cavity.

A

descent

150
Q

refers to the progress of the presenting part through the pelvis

A

descent

151
Q

descent depends on at least four forces:

A

pressure exerted by the amniotic fluid

direct pressure exerted by the contracting funds

force of the contraction of the maternal diaphragm and abdominal muscles in the second stage of labor

extension and straightening of the fetal body.

152
Q

the degree of descent is measured by?

A

the station of the presenting part

153
Q

as soon as the descending head meets resistance from the cervix, pelvic wall, or pelvic floor, it normally ______, so that the chin is brought into closer contact with the fetal chest

A

flexes

154
Q

flexion permits the ? rather than the larger diameters to present to the outlet

A

suboccipitobregmatic diameter (9.5 cm)

155
Q

the maternal pelvic inlet is widest where?

A

in the transverse diameter

156
Q

therefore the fetal head passes the inlet into the true pelvis in the ________ position.

A

occipitotransverse

157
Q

the outlet is widest where?

A

in the anteroposterior diameter

158
Q

in order for the fetus to exit it must?

A

rotate the head

159
Q

when the fetal head reaches the perineum for birth, it is deflected anteriorly by the _____.

A

perineum

160
Q

the occiput passes under the lower border of the symphysis pubis first, and then the head emerges by _____.

A

extension

161
Q

the extension of the head occurs by:

A

first the occiput, then the face, and finally the chin

162
Q

the pain and discomfort of labor have two origins:

A

visceral and somatic

163
Q

1st stage of labors pain is located where?

A

over the lower portion of the abdomen.

164
Q

referred pain in the 1st stage of labor

A

originates in the uterus and radiates to the abdomen wall, lumbosacral area of the back, iliac crests, gluteal area, thighs, and lower back.

165
Q

when is pain during the 1st stage of labor?

A

during the contractions and mom is free of contractions between contractions.

166
Q

some women, especially those whose fetus is in a ______ position, experience continuous contraction-related low back pain, even in the interval between contractions.

A

posterior

167
Q

during the second stage of labor the woman has somatic pain which is often described as:

A

intense, sharp burning and well localized.

168
Q

pain in the second stage of labor results from?

A

stretching and distention of perineal tissues and the pelvic floor to allow passage of the fetus from distention and traction on the peritoneum and uterocervical supports during contractions, from pressure against the bladder and rectum, and from lacerations soft tissue.

169
Q

pain experienced in the 3rd stage of labor and the after pains of the early postpartum period are ____, similar to the pain experienced early in the first stage of labor

A

uterine

170
Q

is steady pressure applied by a support person to the sacral area with a firm object (e.g. tennis ball) or the fist or heel of the hand.

A

counterpressure

171
Q

application of _________ helps the woman cope with the sensations of internal pressure and pain in the lower back

A

counterpressure

172
Q

is light stroking, usually of the abdomen, in rhythm with breathing during contractions

A

effleurage

173
Q

effleurage is used to distract woman from ______ pain.

A

contraction

174
Q

often the presence of monitor belts makes it difficult to perform effleurage on the abdomen; therefore, what may be used?

A

a thigh or chest

175
Q

can provide distraction, enhance relaxation, and lift spirits during labor, thereby reducing the woman’s level of stress anxiety, and perception of pain.

A

music

176
Q

is performed at approximately half the woman’s normal breathing rate and is initiated when she can no longer walk or talk through contractions.

A

slow-paced breathing

177
Q

the woman should take no more than ___-___ breaths per minute

A

3-4

178
Q

woman’s breathing with become shallower and faster than her normal rate of breathing, but should not exceed

A

twice her resting rate.

179
Q

this pattern requires that she remain alert and concentrate more fully on breathing, thus blocking more painful stimuli than the simpler slow-paced breathing pattern.

A

modified-paced breathing

180
Q

the most difficult time to maintain control during contractions comes during the transition phase of the first stage of labor, when the cervix dilates from __-__ cm

A

8-10cm

181
Q

what type of breathing is suggested when the cervix is dilated between 8-10 cm

A

patterned-paced breathing (pant blow)

182
Q

opioid agonist analgesic

A

demerol

183
Q

these are effective for relieving severe, persistent or recurrent pain by blunting the perception of pain, though not eliminating it completely.

A

opioid agonist analgesic

184
Q

as pure opioid agonist, they stimulate?

A

major opioid receptors: mu and kappa

185
Q

opioid agonist analgesics have no _____ effect but create a feeling of well-being or euphoria and enhance a woman’s ability to rest between contractions.

A

amnesic effect

186
Q

because opioids can inhibit uterine contractions, they should not be administered until?

A

until labor is well established unless they are being used to enhance therapeutic rest during a prolonged latent phase of labor.

187
Q

these analgesics decrease gastric emptying and increase N/V.

bladder and bowel elimination can be inhibited

A

opioid agonist analgesic (demerol)

188
Q

because HR, BP, and respiratory effort can be adversely affected, opioid analgesics should be used cautiously in women with?

A

respiratory and cardiovascular d/o.

189
Q

opioids decrease maternal heart rate and respiratory rate and blood pressure, which affects ________ _______.

A

fetal oxygenation

190
Q

opioid agonist-antagonist analgesic

A

stadol nubain

191
Q

these are agonists at kappa opioid receptors and are either antagonists or weak agonists at mu opioid receptors

A

opioid agonist-antagonist analgesic (stadol nubain)

192
Q

opioid agonist-antagonist analgesic (stadol nubain) doses given during labor provide adequate what?

A

analgesia without causing significant respiratory depression in the mother or neonate

193
Q

mixed opioids are less likely to cause ____, but sedation may be as great or greater when compared with pure opioid agonists.

A

N/V

194
Q

these are used more commonly during labor

A

opioid agonist-antagonist analgesic (stadol nubain)

195
Q

opioid antagonist

A

narcan

196
Q

these can promptly reverse the CNS depressant effects, especially respiratory depression

A

opioid antagonist (narcan)

197
Q

the antagonist (narcan) is especially valuable if labor is?

A

more rapid than expected and birth is anticipated when the opioid is at its peak effect.

198
Q

what will happen with pain if narcan is given?

A

it will come back

199
Q

opioid antagonist are contraindicated for?

A

opioid-dependent women

200
Q

why are opioid dependent woman not allowed to receive narcan?

A

because it may precipitate abstinence syndrome

201
Q

anti-emetic

given for N/V

A

PHENEGRAN

202
Q

s/e of phenegran

A
drowsiness
sedation
confusion
sleepiness
dizziness
dry mouth
N/V
leukopenia
respiratory depression
203
Q

if phenegran is given PO you can reduce GI distress by?

A

giving with food or milk

204
Q

don’t admin phenegran IV by?

A

concentration above 25 mg/ml

or at a rate above 25 mg/minute

205
Q

stop phenegran 4 days before?

A

diagnostic skin testing

206
Q

examples of continuous lumbar epidural

A

marcaine

bupivacaine

ropivacaine

207
Q

relief from the pain of uterine contractions and birth can be achieved by injecting a suitable local anesthetic agent into the epidural space

A

continuous lumbar epidural

208
Q

where is the injection made with lumbar epidural block

A

between the 4th and 5th lumbar vertebrae

209
Q

for relieving the discomfort of labor and vaginal birth a block from ___ to ___ is required

A

T10-S5

210
Q

for cesarean birth, a block from ___ to ___ is essential

A

T8-S1

211
Q

ex of pudendal

A

lidocaine (1%-2%)

212
Q

a pudendal nerve block, administered in the second stage of labor, is useful when?

A

if an episiotomy is to be performed or if forceps or a vacuum extractor are used to facilitate birth.

213
Q

although a pudendal nerve block does not relieve the pain from uterine contractions, it does relieve pain where?

A

in the lower vagina, the vulva, and the perineum

214
Q

a pudendal nerve block should be administered ___-___ min before perineal anesthesia is needed

A

10-20 min

215
Q

spinal anesthesia is most commonly used with?

A

cesarean delivery

216
Q

an anesthetic solution containing a local anesthetic alone or in combo with an opioid agonist analgesic is injected through the 3rd, 4th, or 5th lumbar interspace into the subarachnoid space, where the anesthetic solution mixes with cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).

A

spinal anesthesia (block)

217
Q

spinal anesthesia (block) used for cesarean births provides anesthesia from ____-____.

A

nipple (T6) to the feet

218
Q

nurses role in spinal anesthesia

A

supports the woman and encourages her to use breathing and relaxation techniques because she must remain still during the placement of the spinal needle

219
Q

the needle is inserted and the anesthetic injected between ____

A

contractions

220
Q

the position desired for cesarean birth with higher level of anesthesia

A

supine with head and shoulders slightly elevated

221
Q

in order to prevent supine hypotension with spinal anesthesia the uterus is displaced laterally by?

A

tilting the operating table or placing a wedge under one of her hips.

222
Q

usually the level of the block will be complete and fixed within

A

5-10 minutes

223
Q

the anesthetic effect will last how long with a spinal block

A

1-3 hours

224
Q

what may occur with spinal anesthesia

A

hypotension
placental perfusion
ineffective breathing pattern

225
Q

is rarely used for uncomplicated vaginal birth and is infrequently used for elective cesarean birth

A

general anesthesia

226
Q

if general anesthesia is considered what should we do?

A

NPO and ensure IV also admin oral antacid

227
Q

this prevents compression of the aorta and vena cava, which maintains cardiac output and placental perfusion

A

uterine displacement (placing wedge under moms hip)

228
Q

prior to induction of general anesthesia mom will be pre oxygenated how?

A

with 100% by nonrebreather face mask for 2-3 min

229
Q

S/E of epidural and spinal anesthesia

A
hypotension
local anesthetic toxicity
lightheadedness
dizziness
tinnitus
metallic taste
numbness of the tongue and mouth
bizarre behavior
slurred speech
convulsions
LOC
230
Q

is the most rapid, reliable, and beneficial relief measure for PDPH

A

epidural blood patch

231
Q

PDPH

A

postdural puncture headache

232
Q

how does an epidural blood patch work?

A

the womans blood (20ml) is injected slowly into the lumbar epidural space, creating a clot that patches the tear or hole in the dura mater.

233
Q

when is treatment with a blood patch considered?

A

if the headache is severe or debilitating or does not resolve after conservative measure

234
Q

the woman should be observed after a blood patch for?

A

alternation in VS

pallor
clammy skin
leakage of CSF for 1-2 hours.

235
Q

after a blood patch the woman should be instructed to avoid ____ or ______ for several days.

A

coughing or straining

236
Q

after a blood patch what meds should they avoid for 2 days?

A

analgesics that affect platelet aggregation (NSAIDs)

237
Q

involves listening to the fetal heart sounds at periodic intervals to assess the FHR

A

intermittent auscultation (IA)

238
Q

IA of the fetal heart can be performed with?

A

pinard stethescope
doppler ultrasound
ultrasound stethoscope
DeLee-Hillis fetoscope

239
Q

is applied to the listener’s forehead because bone conduction amplifies the fetal heart sounds for counting

A

fetoscope

240
Q

transmit ultra high frequency sound waves, reflecting movement of the fetal heart, and convert these sounds into an electronic signal that can be counted

A

doppler ultrasound

241
Q

IA is easy to use, inexpensive, and less invasive than

A

EFM

242
Q

is often more comfortable for the woman and gives her more freedom of movement.

not good for obese women

A

IA

243
Q

When using IA, uterine activity is assessed by

A

palpation

244
Q

2 type of electronic fetal monitoring

A

external and internal

245
Q

o The purpose of electronic FHR monitoring is the

A

ongoing assessment of fetal oxygenation.

246
Q

o are analyzed for characteristic patterns that suggest fetal hypoxic events and metabolic acidosis during labor. When hypoxia or metabolic acidosis is suspected in labor, interventions to resolve the problem can be implemented in a timely manner before permanent damage or death occurs.

A

FHR

247
Q

• Uses external transducers placed on the maternal abdomen to assess FHR and uterine activity.

A

external monitoring

248
Q

• The ultrasound transducer with external monitoring works by

A

reflecting high-frequency sound waves off a moving interface: in this case, the fetal heart and valves.

249
Q

what can cause weak or absent signals

A

Maternal obesity, occiput posterior position of the fetus, and anterior attachment of the placenta

250
Q

• Once the area of _____ _____ of the FHR has been located, conductive gel is applied to the surface of the ultrasound transducer, and the transducer is then positioned over this area and held securely in place using an elastic belt.

(external monitoring)

A

maximal intensity

251
Q

measures UA transabdominally. The device is placed over the fundus above the umbilicus and held securely in place using an elastic belt.

A

• The tocotransducer

252
Q

____ or fetal movements depress a pressure-sensitive surface on the side next to the abdomen.

A

UCs

253
Q

• The tocotransducer can measure and record the frequency and approximate duration of UCs but not their ____

A

intensity.

254
Q

• This method is especially valuable for measuring UA during the ____ stage of labor in women with intact membranes or for antepartum testing.

A

1st

255
Q

Do the use of external monitors confine the woman to the bed or chair?

A

yes

256
Q

• Uses a spiral electrode applied to the fetal (on the head) presenting part to assess the FHR and an intrauterine pressure catheter (IUPC) to assess UA and uterine resting tone.

A

internal monitoring

257
Q

to use internal monitoring what must happen?

A

amniotic bag must be ruptured

258
Q

the IUPC catheter goes all the way up to?

A

the funds area

259
Q

normal HR fot fetus in utero

A

110-160

260
Q

• is the location on the maternal abdomen at which the FHR is heard the loudest.

A

PMI (point of maximal intensity)

261
Q

PMI is usually where?

A

over the fetal back

262
Q

• In a vertex presentation, you can usually hear the FHR where?

A

below the mother’s umbilicus

263
Q

which quadrants can the PMI be felt?

A

in either the right or the left lower quadrant of the abdomen.

264
Q

• In a breech presentation you usually hear the FHR where?

A

above the mother’s umbilicus.

265
Q

• You will best hear the heart rate where

A

above the baby’s back.

266
Q

“abdominal palpation”

maneuvers are performed with the woman briefly lying on her back.

A

leopolds maneuvers

267
Q

leopolds maneuvers help ID what 4 things:

A

(1) number of fetuses;
(2) presenting part, fetal lie, and fetal attitude;
(3) degree of the presenting part’s descent into the pelvis; and
(4) expected location of the point of maximal intensity (PMI) of the FHR on the woman’s abdomen.

268
Q

how leopolds maneuvers are performed

A

• The examiner stands at the foot or side of the bed; trying to find what is in the fundus (butt or head), then you palpate down the vertebrae trying to find where to place the ultrasound transducer.

269
Q

what to do 1st before leopards maneuvers

A

ask woman to empty bladder

270
Q

what position for leopolds maneuver

A

supine with one pillow under her head and with her knees slightly flexed.

271
Q

. Identify fetal part that occupies the fundus. The head feels round, firm, freely movable, and palpable by ballottement; the breech feels less regular and softer. This maneuver identifies

A

fetal lie (longitudinal or transverse) and presentation (cephalic or breech)

272
Q

Using palmar surface of one hand, locate and palpate the smooth convex contour of the fetal back and the irregularities that identify the small parts (feet, hands, elbows). This maneuver helps identify

A

fetal presentation

273
Q

• There must be at least ____ minutes of interpretable baseline data in a 10-minute segment of tracing in order to determine FHR.

A

2

274
Q

o 3 parts of the contraction

A

♣ Building up
♣ Peak
♣ Letting down

275
Q

♣ Beginning of the increment to the beginning of the next increment
♣ This is how often the contractions are occurring

A

frequency

276
Q

♣ Start with the increment phase (nothing going to fetus) and you count the squares up until the decrament phase is complete

A

duration

277
Q

♣ when she is having a contraction place your palm and dig your fingers into her abdomen to feel the contractions

A

intensity

278
Q

mild feels like

A

nose

279
Q

moderate feels like

A

the chin

280
Q

strong feels like

A

the forehead

281
Q

why is it important to allow for resting periods between contractions

A

allows blood flow back to placenta

282
Q

o can be described as irregular waves or fluctuations in the baseline FHR of two cycles per minute or greater.

A

variability of FHR

283
Q

variability is a characteristic of the baseline FHR and does not include.

A

accelerations or decelerations of the FHR

284
Q

o Decreased variability when baby is

A

sleeping or pain meds admin.

285
Q

o Four possible categories of variability have been identified:

A

absent
minimal
moderate
marked

286
Q

minimal variability

A

5 beats/min

287
Q

moderate variability

A

6-25 beats/min

288
Q

marked variability

A

> 25 beats/min

289
Q

Absent of minimal variability

can result from

A

o form fetal hypoxemia and metabolic academia.

o congenital anomalies and preexisting neurologic injury.

290
Q

o is a baseline FHR greater than 160 beats/min for 10 minutes or longer.

A

tachycardia

291
Q

tachycardia can be considered an early sign of ___ ______, especially when associated with late decelerations and minimal or absent variability.

A

fetal hypoxemia

292
Q

what is usually elevated with tachycardia

A

temp

293
Q

o is a baseline FHR less than 110 beats/min for 10 minutes or longer.

A

bradycardia

294
Q

♣ Baseline bradycardia alone is not specifically r/t fetal oxygenation. The clinical significance of bradycardia depends on the underlying cause and the accompanying FHR patterns, including variability, accelerations, or decelerations

A

.

295
Q

• are those that occur with UCs.

A

periodic changes

296
Q

• are those that are not associated with UCs.

A

episodic changes

297
Q

defines as a visually apparent abrupt (onset to peak less than 30 seconds) increase in FHR above baseline rate.

A

acceleration

298
Q

ACCELERATION

A

o The peak is at least 15 beats/min above the baseline, and the acceleration lasts 15 seconds or more, with the return to baseline less than 2 minutes from the beginning of the acceleration.

299
Q

decelerations are caused by what response?

A

parasympathetic

300
Q

o Decelerations are categorized as:

A

early
late
variable
prolonged

301
Q

• FHR is a visually apparent gradual (onset to lowest point > 30 seconds) decrease in and return to baseline FHR associated with UCs.

A

early decelerations

302
Q

early decelerations are considered

A

normal and benign finding

303
Q

♣ Early Decelerations are sometimes called the “______ ____” of the contraction

A

mirror image

304
Q

• is a visually apparent gradual decrease in and return to baseline FHR associated with UCs.

A

late decelerations

305
Q

• The deceleration begins after the contraction has started, and the lowest point of the deceleration occurs after the peak of the contraction.

A

late decelerations

306
Q

why do late decelerations happen?

A

the baby doesn’t have the placental reserve to take him through the contraction

307
Q

what causes late decelerations

A

uteroplacental insufficiency

308
Q

• is defined as a visually abrupt (onset to lowest point less than 30 seconds) decrease in FHR below the baseline.

A

variable decelerations

309
Q

• The decrease is at least 15 beats/min or more below the baseline, lasts at least 15 seconds, and returns to baseline in less than 2 minutes from the time of onset.

A

variable decelerations

310
Q

variable decelerations

A

• occur any time during the uterine contraction phase and are caused by compression of the umbilical cord.

311
Q
  • is a visually apparent decrease (may be either gradual or abrupt) in FHR of at least 15 beats/min below the baseline and lasting more than 2 minutes but less than 10 minutes.
  • Nothing to do with contraction
A

prolonged deceleration

312
Q

• Fetal well being during labor can be measured by

A

the response of the FHR and uterine contractions.

313
Q

Intrauterine Resuscitation Steps

A
  • Stop Pitocin (if she is being induced)
    1. Reposition mom
    1. Increase IV fluid rate
    1. Begin oxygen at 8-10 L/min with a tight fitting mask.