Written exam past qs Flashcards
What is the right order of listing the parts of the prescription?
Heading, Superscription, Subscription, Inscription
Heading, Superscription, Inscription, Subscription
Heading, Inscription, Superscription, Subscription
Heading, Subscription, Inscription, Superscription
Heading, Superscription, Inscription, Subscription
What is the main goal in laying and breeding hens to prevent coccidiosis? Development of Immunity Chemoprophylaxis with Ionophores Chemoprophylaxis with chemotherapeutics Prevention with isolated keeping
Development of Immunity
Among the listed antibiotics, which would you choose for the treatment of bite wounds? Gentamicin Enroflaxacin Colistin Amoxicillin- Clavulanic Acid
Amoxicillin- Clavulanic Acid
In which case would you NOT use ß2-agonist bronchodilator? Feline Asthma Horse RAO (Recurrent Airway Obstruction) Congestive Heart Failure Emphysema of Lungs
Congestive Heart Failure
Mass medication is NOT recommended in… Poultry Cat Swine Honey Bee
Cat
Intravenous anaesthetic with important side effect of adrenocortical suppression; Thiopental Propofol Medetomidine-Ketamine Etomidate
Etomidate
Streptomycin is usually combined with this antibiotic: Procaine- and Benzathine- Penicillin Lincomycin Gentamicin Cefovecin
Procaine- and Benzathine- Penicillin
This is the name given to a drug by the International Pharmacopeia Commission and mainly uniform worldwide; Chemical name Brand name Approved name Licensed name
Approved name
Non-toxic anthelminthic drug, is very effective against gastro-intestinal nematodes in ruminants, can also be applied in slow release bolus: Diamphenethide Praziquantel Nitroscanate Morantel
Morantel
What is the pain-inducing source at the “tail-clip” test? Hot Metal Plate test Hot Water bath Strong Clippers Focused Infrared Light
Strong Clippers
This antibiotic is active against fungi, can be applied orally; Terbinafine Amphetamicin B Griseofulvin Ketoconazole
Griseofulvin
The drugs in this annexe have fixed MRLs. When prescribing these substances, the appropriate WP must be stated; Annexe 2 Annexe 1 Annexe 3 Annexe 4
Annexe 1
Which drug is most effective against Bordetella bronchiseptica from the following? Bacitracin Doxycycline Penethamat Cefalexine
Doxycycline
This drug has beneficial effect in every animal species during chronic stress and disease? Vitamin C Vitamin B1 Vitamin B7 Vitamin B6
Vitamin C
Its micro-emulsion formulation is highly susceptible to bacterial contamination: Propofol Alfaxalon-Alfadolon Ketamine Thiopental
Propofol
This drug has no analgesic properties, but it potentiates the effect of analgesia: Acepromazine Buprenorphine ?? Xylazine
Acepromazine
This drug can be used in foals for the treatment of R.equi infection? Tulathromycin Doxycycline Clindamycin Erythromycin
Erythromycin
Usual dosage of Doxycycline: 0.2-0.3 mg/bwkg daily 1x 200-300 mg/bwkg daily 2x 1.5-2.0 mg/bwkg daily 2x 5-10mg/bwkg daily 1-2x
5-10mg/bwkg daily 1-2x
Dosage of Praziquantil: 0.5 mg/bwkg 50mg/bwkg 5mg/bwkg 0.05mg/bwkg
5mg/bwkg
Can be combined with Carcogenicity studies :
Acute Toxicity Studies
Repeated-dose toxicity studies
Teratogenicity Studies
Preclinical Pharmacological Investigations
Repeated-dose toxicity studies
This sedative can increase the incidence of convulsions so not suitable for administration to patients with epilepsy: Xylazine Diazepam Acepromazine Phenobarbital
Acepromazine
Given together with this drug when do you expect pharmacodynamics interaction with gentamicin: Procaine-penicillin Diazepam Vitamin K Xylazine
Diazepam
The new solid dosage forms can be prescribed using the following type of prescription: Licensed All of these prescription types Prepared Official
Licensed
This medicine can be used for treating prostatitis: Penicillin-G Sulphonamide alone Cefalosporine Potentiated sulphonamide
Potentiated sulphonamide
The most potent anti-inflammatory glucocorticoids of these four is… Prednisolone Cortisole Flumethasone Triamcinolon
Flumethasone
Which factor has to be eliminated from a poultry farm to decrease the problems caused by coccidiosis? High Ammonia Content in the Air Overflowing troughs, Leaking Water Pipes Preventing contact with swine Vitamin K deficiency
Overflowing troughs, Leaking Water Pipes
What solution was used for the coloric reaction in our pharmacokinetic investigation with chicken? Trichloroacetic acid water solution Sodium nitrate solution Sodium sulfamate solution Naftil-ethylenediamine ethanol solution
Naftil-ethylenediamine ethanol solution
This ACE inhibitor is safe also for patients with hepatic failure: Enalepril Ramipril Lisnopril Benazepril
Lisnopril
This amino acid has liver-protective activity as well: Carnitine Glycine Alanine Taurine
Carnitine
Which substance can be used intramammarily against penicillinase producing S.aureus? Cloxacillin Benzathine-penicillin Procaine-penicillin Penethamat
Cloxacillin
Gels are dosage forms that; Vehicle is gel of animal or other origin Have high fat content None of these Are only orally applicable
Vehicle is gel of animal or other origin
Which of the following substances can be used as a vehicle in premixes? Lucerne Meal Saccharose Zinc Oxide Glucose
Lucerne Meal
It’s an amino acid in its absence the heart musculature of cats will be hypertrophied: Taurine Serine Methionine Alanine
Taurine
Dosage of Ramipril in cats and dogs:
- 125mg/bwkg PO
- 25mg/bwkg IM
- 125mg/bwkg IM
- 25mg/bwkg PO
0.125mg/bwkg PO
Generally, how often should intramammary infusion be administered in case of non-lactating cows? Every 6 hours Every 3 hours Every 12 hours Only once
Only once
This drug has a narrow therapeutic margin, its side effects are salivation, vomiting, …., bronchoconstriction: Diazonin Parmethrin Amitraz Ivermectin
Diazonin
What solution was used for diazotation in our pharmacokinetic investigation with chicken? Trichloroacetic acid solution Naftil-ethylenediamine ethanol solution Sodium Sulfamate water solution Sodium nitrate water solution
Sodium nitrate water solution
How long is the tested substance applied to experimental animals in chronic toxicity studies? 1 year 2 years 1 month 90 days
2 years
Among the listed quinolone carboxylic acid derivatives, this agent acts against anaerobes: Ciprofloxacin Ibafloxacin Pradofloxacin Marbofloxacin
Pradofloxacin
Which has significant antigiardial effect as well: Imidocarb dipropionate Fenbendazole Toltrazuril Sodium stibogluconate
Fenbendazole
- Water soluble vitamin, with pronounced skin-protective action
a. Vitamin E
b. Vitamin B12
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin A
c. Vitamin C
What is pharmacokinetic symbol of the distribution phase coefficient in a two compartiment model?
a. Alpha
b. Beta
c. Kab
d. Kel
a. Alpha
Strongly inhibits satiety centre in the CNS:
a. Diazepam
b. Vitamin B1
c. Vitamin B12
d. Nandrolone
a. Diazepam
Using an oily type of injection may lead to life- threatening effect in this route of application:
a. Intramuscular
b. Intraperitoneal
c. Subcutaneous
d. Intravenous
d. Intravenous
The micronuclues test
a. Is a light microscope method for determining mutagenicity
b. Is a light microscope method for determining teratogenicity
c. Is a electrone microscope method for determining teratogenicity
d. Is a electrone microscope method for determining mutagenicity
a. Is a light microscope method for determining mutagenicity
Usually this application method the onset of drug action is most rapid:
a. Subcutaneous
b. Intarmuscular
c. Intraperitoneal
d. Intravenous
d. Intravenous
When applying this anaesthetic alone, muscle relaxation and total unconsciousness CANNOT be achieved in the animal
a. Methohexital
b. Ketamine
c. Propofol
d. Etomidate
b. Ketamine
In this type of prescription the name and amount of ingredients (individual components) has to be given in the prescription part:
a. Prescription of a human licensed medicine
b. Prescription of a prepared (magistral) medicine
c. Prescription of a veterinary licensed medicine
d. Prescription of a formulate official medicine
b. Prescription of a prepared (magistral) medicine
This macrolide reaches high concentration in bronchial fluid, and persists for a long time:
a. Tylosin
b. Josamycin
c. Tulathromycin
d. Erytrhomycin
c. Tulathromycin
Besides Babesiosis its other indication is anaplasmosis:
a. Paromomycin
b. Ronidazole
c. Imidocarb dipropionate
d. Meglumine antimonate
c. Imidocarb dipropionate
This drug (group) is usually incompatible with tiamulin and the macrolide antibiotics:
a. Amprolium
b. Triazine anticoccidials
c. Ionophor antibiotics
d. Halofuginone
c. Ionophor antibiotics
IM usual dosage of Tiamulin in swine
a. 2-10 mg/bw.kg
b. 500 mg/bw.kg
c. 100-200 mg/bw.kg
d. 60 mg/bw.kg
a. 2-10 mg/bw.kg
Given together with this drug when do you expect pharmacodynamic interaction with gentamicin?
a. Xylazine
b. Procaine- Penicillin
c. Diazepam
d. Vitamin K
c. Diazepam
Which controlled drugs are not used normally in the veterinarian practice?
a. Schedule 3
b. Schedule 1
c. Schedule 2
d. Schedule 4
b. Schedule 1
Most appropriate method for the extraction of water-soluble, heat-sensitive substances from medicinal herbs:
a. Preparing an infusion
b. Preparing a tincture
c. Making a decotion
d. Extraction with ether
a. Preparing an infusion
Overdosage of this substance has hepatotoxic effect
a. Vitamin B1
b. Vitamin K
c. Carotine
d. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin D
Dosage of Atropine sulphate as antidote in poisoning
a. 0.5- 0.7 mg/bw.kg SC/ PO
b. 0.05- 0.1 mg/bw.kg SC/ PO
c. 0.25- 1.0 mg/bw.kg SC/ one third of the dose slowly IV
d. 0.05- 0.1 mg/bw.kg SC/ one third of the dose slowly IV
c. 0.25- 1.0 mg/bw.kg SC/ one third of the dose slowly IV
This active substance can be used for the treatment of varroosis in honeybees:
a. Ivermectin
b. Imidacloprid
c. Permethrin
d. Amitraz
d. Amitraz
Alpha 2- agonist molecule, its side effect are less frequent than those of xylazine:
a. Metomidate
b. Medetomidine
c. Ketamine
d. Tiletamine
b. Medetomidine
Which of the following substances can be used as a vehicle in premixes?
a. Glucose
b. Zinc oxide
c. Saccharose
d. Lucerne meal
d. Lucerne meal
Which vehicle is useful for preparation of eye ointment?
a. Simple ointment
b. Cocoa butter
c. White vaseline
d. Paraffin ointment
c. White vaseline
Bronchodilator, with relatively specific ß2- Receptor agonistic effect can be applied primarily by inhalation
a. Terburaline
b. Clenbuterole
c. Ephedrine
d. Salbutamol
d. Salbutamol
Its membrane- protective effect can partially replace that of Vitamin E:
a. Zinc
b. Selenium
c. Copper
d. Iron
b. Selenium
A drug with potent visceral analgesic properties
a. Xylazine
b. Butorphenol
c. Propofol
d. Ketamine
b. Butorphenol
Frequent combined partners of dihidro-streptomycin
a. Procain- and benzathine penicillin
b. Amoxicillin and clavulanic acid
c. Oxacilllin and cloxacillin
d. Cefapirin and cefazolin
a. Procain- and benzathine penicillin
In the case of fowl cholera (septicaemia) in chickens, which of the following antibiotics would you apply in medicated water?
a. Gentamicin
b. Amoxicillin
c. Colistin
d. Neomycin
b. Amoxicillin
IV dosage of Butorphanol in horses:
a. 10 mg/bw.kg
b. 0.1 mg/bw.kg
c. 1 mg/bw.kg
d. 0.01 mg/bw.kg
b. 0.1 mg/bw.kg
Butyrphenone tranquilizer used mainly in laboratory rodents:
a. Azaoerone
b. Acepromazine
c. Tiethylperazine
d. Fluanisone
d. Fluanisone
Long acting cephalosporin for the treatment of dogs and cats
a. Cepharin
b. Cefazolin
c. Cefalexin
d. Cefovecin
d. Cefovecin
If the aim of these investigations is to determine the accelerated stability of the drug product. What are the appropriate conditions?
a. Room temperature: 0-24 hours
b. Room temperature: 0-3 months
c. Room temperature: 0-4 weeks
d. 40°C, 75% RH, 0-6 months
d. 40°C, 75% RH, 0-6 months
The teratogenicity studies have to be performed at least on… :
a. 2 animal species
b. 3 animal species
c. 4 animal species including monkeys
d. 1 animal species
a. 2 animal species
Among the listed agents this one is NOT intended against infections caused by anaerobic bacteria
a. Tyrmethoprim
b. Pradofloxacin
c. Metronidazole
d. Clindamycin
a. Tyrmethoprim
Mode of action in Lincosamides
a. Concentration dependent bactericidal
b. Time-dependent bactericidal
c. Bacteriostatic
d. Detergent like activity
c. Bacteriostatic
In the case fo coli-septicaemia in swine, which drug would you apply in medicated water?
a. Gentamicin
b. Lincomycin
c. Enrofloxacin
d. Tylosine
c. Enrofloxacin
Expectorant drug, can be applied in combination with antitissuvies
a. Acetilcystein
b. Ambroxol
c. Guaifenesine
d. Bromhexin
c. Guaifenesine
This is obligatory when drug are supplied to owners by vets:
a. Label
b. Veterinary Record for controlled drugs
c. Prescription for Medicated Feedstuff (PMF)
d. Legalisation on requisition
a. Label
The most frequently applied drug in combination with spectinomycin:
a. Cefuroxime
b. Lincomycin
c. Gentamicin
d. Procaine-penicillin
b. Lincomycin
What is characteristic of suppositories?
a. Dissolve at body temperature
b. Non-divided dosage form
c. Semi-solid at room temperature
d. None of these
a. Dissolve at body temperature
What is characteristic of suppositories?
a. Dissolve at body temperature
b. Non-divided dosage form
c. Semi-solid at room temperature
d. None of these
a. Dissolve at body temperature
Strongly inhibits the satiety centre in CNS:
a. Vitamin B 1
b. Vitamin B 12
c. Diazepam
d. Nandrolone
c. Diazepam
Strongly inhibits the satiety centre in CNS:
a. Vitamin B 1
b. Vitamin B 12
c. Diazepam
d. Nandrolone
c. Diazepam
Bacterial susceptibility to certain antibiotics is usually determined with this method:
a. Disc-diffusion method
b. PCR
c. Macrobroth dilution method
d. ELISA
a. Disc-diffusion method
This is a prodrug, in practice it is used only against immature liver flukes, practically inactive against adult flukes and other types of worms:
a. Febantel
b. Netobimin
c. Diamphenethide
d. Triclabendazole
c. Diamphenethide
It is a GHS-category:
a. unknown mechanism of effect
b. mutagenic
c. highly toxic
d. non-toxic for fish
c. highly toxic
If the aim of these investigations is to determine the stability of the drug product after opening the package, what are the appropriate conditions?
a. 40°C, 75% RH, 0-6 months
b. Room- temperature: 0 - 3 months
c. Room- temperature: 0 - 24 hours
d. Room- temperature: 0 – 4 weeks
d. Room- temperature: 0 – 4 weeks
It can be given to birds and reptiles for control of subacute egg-retention
a. Dinoprost
b. Gonadorelin
c. Etiproston
d. Oxytocin
d. Oxytocin
Is a butyrophenone mainly used in swine for stress reduction:
a. Fentanyl
b. Droperidole
c. Acepromazine
d. Azaperone
d. Azaperone
Given directly after fertilization, it increases the rate of fertility:
a. Oestradiol
b. Dinoprost
c. Cabercoline
d. Buserelin
d. Buserelin
In dogs its fast readministration possibly does not cause emesis
a. Carbachole
b. Neostigmine
c. Apomorphine
d. Ipecacuanha syrup
c. Apomorphine
In the course of registration of licensed medicines, which documentation part is the clinical documentation according to EUDRALEX requirements?
a. Part 1
b. Part 2
c. Part 3
d. Part 4
d. Part 4
This ectoparasitic is NOT active against ticks
a. Amitraz
b. Fipronil
c. Pyriprol
d. Imidacloprid
d. Imidacloprid
Which drugs have to be kept in a locked receptacle with the key in the possession of the veterinarian?
a. Schedule 2 and 3 drugs
b. Schedule 3 and 4 drugs
c. Schedule 1 and 4 drugs
d. none of the above
a. Schedule 2 and 3 drugs
Usual dosage of Diazepam IM / IV:
a. 5-10 mg / b.w.kg
b. 0,01-0,02 mg / b.w.kg
c. 0,1-0,5 mg / b.w.kg
d. 10-20 mg / b.w.kg
c. 0,1-0,5 mg / b.w.kg
This macrolide can be administered to young horses only in certain cases:
a. Tylosine
b. Erythromycin
c. Tilmicosin
d. Tulathromycin
b. Erythromycin
In the majority of animal species this vitamin is not essential:
a. Vitamin E
b. Vitamin K
c. Vitamin B 12
d. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin C
It is not obligatory to keep records about this category of drugs when administered to food producing animals:
a. If a drug licensed for humans was used
b. homeopathic medicines
c. If the drug was administered according to the users information
d. If the drug was not administered according to the users information
b. homeopathic medicines
This drug has a very low therapeutic index, its IV administration is forbidden.
a. Imidocarb dipropionate
b. Sodium stibocluconate
c. Meglumine antimonate
d. Sulphonamides
a. Imidocarb dipropionate
This antibiotic can penetrate well intracellulary
a. Procaine-penicillin
b. Gentamicin
c. Benzathine-penicillin
d. Oxytetracycline
d. Oxytetracycline
Injected subcutaneously this drug is appropriate for the treatment of scabies-infestations:
a. Diazinon
b. Imidacloprid
c. Fipronil
d. Doramectin
d. Doramectin
Which bacterium is used in the AMES test?
a. Campylobacter jejuni
b. Salmonella typhimurium
c. Clostridium perfringens
d. Escherichia coli
b. Salmonella typhimurium
What information about any drug is included in the European Pharmacopoeia?
a. identification methods
b. detailed indications in veterinary medicine
c. dosage of the drug in humans
d. detailed indications in human medicine
a. identification methods
A general anesthetic with a narrow therapeutic margin:
a. Thiopental
b. Etomidate
c. Propofol
d. Ketamine
a. Thiopental
It has poor penetration into the CNS, therefore it is less sedative than the other three substances:
a. Hidroxycine
b. Cetirizine
c. Chloropyramine
d. Cyproheptadine
b. Cetirizine
Long term administration of this laxative drug can lead to the paralysis of plexus myentericus:
a. Aloe
b. Liquid paraffin
c. Magnesium sulphate
d. Lactulose
a. Aloe
During the late pregnancy its application is only allowed while the soft birth canal is dilated:
a. Prolactin
b. Oxytocin
c. Etiproston
d. None of them
b. Oxytocin
What is meant by a residual drug?
a. the drug metabolites remaining in the meat and other food products from the animal treated with the given pharmaceutical product
b. the total amount of the agent remaining in the meat and other food products from the animal treated with the pharmaceutical product
c. the total amount of the agent and its metabolites remaining in the meat of the animal treated with the given pharmaceutical product
d. the total amount of the agent and its metabolites remaining in the meat and food products of the animal treated with the given pharmaceutical product
d. the total amount of the agent and its metabolites remaining in the meat and food products of the animal treated with the given pharmaceutical product
A drug licensed for humans containing metronidazole:
a. cannot penetrate into the milk thus no WP for milk has to be stated
b. has to have at least 28 days WP for meat
c. must not be used in food producing animals
d. requires 0 days withdrawal period in food producing animals
c. must not be used in food producing animals
Most effective in the treatment of chemotherapeutics- induced vomiting, but less effective in other cases:
a. Diphenhydramine
b. Tiethylperazine
c. Maropitant
d. Ondansetron
d. Ondansetron
The primary choice of antibiotic for the treatment of swine erysipelas is:
a. Enrofloxacin
b. Penicillin
c. Gentamicin
d. Doxycycline
b. Penicillin
What is the formulation type of Burow ointment (Unguentum aluminii acetici tartarici)?
a. water in oil (W/O) type emulsion
b. Oil-in-water (O/W) type emulsion
c. real solution
d. oil suspension
a. water in oil (W/O) type emulsion
The oral bioavailability of Aminoglycosides (except apramycin):
a. 60-70 %
b. 0-10 %
c. 30-40 %
d. 90-100 %
b. 0-10 %
Administration of this drug to herbivorous rodents is NOT recommended because of the risk of disbacteriosis:
a. Enrofloxacine
b. Lincomycin
c. Spectinomycin
d. Sulfadimidine
b. Lincomycin
Primary choice of antibiotics in infections caused by Rickettsia:
a. Tetracyclines
b. Aminoglycosides
c. Macrolides
d. Penicillins
a. Tetracyclines
Usual dosage of Dexamethasone:
a. 10 mg/b.w.kg IV/IM
b. 50 mg/b.w.kg IV/IM
c. 0,1 mg/b.w.kg IV/IM
d. each answer is correct
c. 0,1 mg/b.w.kg IV/IM
Combined with cephalosporins the nephrotoxic effect of this drug can be enhanced:
a. Diazepam
b. Enrofloxacin
c. Clavulanic acid
d. Gentamicin
d. Gentamicin
Aminoglycoside with the best oral bioavailability:
a. Spectinomycin
b. Gentamicin
c. Apramycin
d. Neomycin
c. Apramycin
It has poor penetration into the CNS, therefore it is less sedative than the other three substances:
a. Hidroxycine
b. Cetirizine
c. Chloropyramine
d. Cyproheptadine
b. Cetirizine
What is the primary purpose of drug administration according to European rule?
a. Treatment
b. Prevention
c. Growth promotion
d. This is not determined
a. Treatment
Anticoccidial, can be administered via drinking water:
a. Diclazuril
b. Toltrazuril
c. Monensin
d. Clopidol
b. Toltrazuril
Usual dosage of Tylosin in poultry via drinking water:
a. 10-20 mg/l
b. 500 mg/l
c. 2-10 mg/l
d. 50 mg/l
b. 500 mg/l
Organisms resistant to the macrolides
a. most of the gram- positive organisms
b. E. coli and Salmonella ssp.
c. Mycoplasmae
d. fastidious gram- negative organisms
b. E. coli and Salmonella ssp.
Aminocyclitol, its mode of action is bacteriostatic:
a. Streptomycin
b. Gentamicin
c. Spectinomycin
d. Neomycin
c. Spectinomycin
In the course of registration of licensed medicines, which documentation part is the safety documentation according to EUDRALEX requirements?
a. Part 1
b. Part 2
c. Part 3
d. Part 4
c. Part 3
If the aim of these investigations is to determine the stability of the drug after opening the package what are the appropriate conditions?
a. 40°C, 75% RH, 0-6 months
b. Room- temperature: 0 - 3 months
c. Room- temperature: 0 - 24 hours
d. Room- temperature: 0 – 4 weeks
d. Room- temperature: 0 – 4 weeks
Concentration of Atropin in mydriatic eye drops:
a. 0,03 %
b. 0,25-0,5 %
c. 0,5-1 %
d. 1-2 %
c. 0,5-1 %
Juvenile- hormone analogue, that is combined with fipronil in a spot on preparation:
a. Fenoxicarb
b. Metopren
c. Imidacloprid
d. Lufenurone
b. Metopren
What is the pharmacokinetic symbol of the plasma concentration maximum at steady state after
multiple administrations?
a. C max
b. C t
c. C 0
d. C maxcc [not sure! Almost not readable]
d. C maxcc
What is the purpose of a residual drug analysis?
a. determination of the MRL value
b. the determination of withdrawal time according to food health legislation
c. Kinetics examination the residual drug
d. The investigation of the metabolism of the residual drug
b. the determination of withdrawal time according to food health legislation
This sedative can increase the incidence of convulsions, hence not suitable for administration to patients with epilepsy:
a. Xylazine
b. Diazepam
c. Acepromazine
d. Phenobarbital
c. Acepromazine
Which of the following drugs would you administer to a risk patient with cardiovascular disease?
a. Morphine
b. Acepromazine
c. Midazolam
d. Xylazine
c. Midazolam
Important indication for the use of tetracyclines:
a. treatment of intestinal infections
b. Tuberculosis
c. Metritis, foot rotting, local treatment of wounds
d. Swine- dysentery
c. Metritis, foot rotting, local treatment of wounds
Anticoccidial with Cidal- (killing) effect:
a. Sulfaquinoxaline
b. Amprolium
c. Trimethoprim
d. Semduramicin
d. Semduramicin
What information about any drug is included in the European Pharmacopoeia?
a. dosage of the drug in humans
b. detailed indications in veterinarian medicine
c. detailed indications in human medicine
d. identification methods
d. identification methods
Which drug would you apply for the treatment of horse- botfly- larval infestation (gasterophilosis)?
a. Foxim pour on
b. Fenbendazole orally
c. spraying with Amitraz
d. Moxidectin orally
d. Moxidectin orally
Imidazole antifungal that can be used only locally:
a. Terbinafine
b. Enilconazole
c. Ketoconazole
d. Itraconazole
b. Enilconazole
Imidazole antifungal that can be used only locally:
a. Terbinafine
b. Enilconazole
c. Ketoconazole
d. Itraconazole
b. Enilconazole
When anthrax is diagnosed in domestic animals, which drug would you administer?
a. Penicillin
b. Cefoperazon
c. Enrofloxacin
d. treatment is prohibited
a. Penicillin
It is appropriate for the prevention of tick infestation in cats:
a. Fipronil
b. Permethrin
c. Pyriprol
d. Amitraz
a. Fipronil
It has a very potent liver- protective activity:
a. Zinc
b. Selenium
c. Iron
d. Copper
b. Selenium
Dosage of Ketamine in cats:
a. 200 mg/b.w.kg IM
b. 2 mg/b.w.kg IM
c. 0,2 mg/b.w.kg IM
d. 20 mg/b.w.kg IM
d. 20 mg/b.w.kg IM
Which application method is suitable for the treatment of a large number of poultry sick with fowl cholera?
a. medicated fog
b. oral powder dispensed in the feedstuff
c. oral powder dispensed in drinking water
d. intramuscular injection
c. oral powder dispensed in drinking water
The major part of the text must be in the veterinarian’s own handwriting:
a. Prescription for medicated feedstuff (PMF)
b. Label
c. Legislation on requisition
d. Prescription
c. Legislation on requisition
Intravenous anesthetic with the important side effect of adrenocortical suppression:
a. Etomidate
b. Propofol
c. Medetomidine- Ketamine
d. Thiopental
a. Etomidate
For which dosage form is sterility the most significant attribute?
a. nasal drops
b. shampoo
c. eye drops
d. ear drops
c. eye drops
Selective COX2- inhibitor:
a. Metamizole
b. Piroxicam
c. Firocoxib
d. Acetyl- salicylic acid
c. Firocoxib
When used alone as an anticoccidial agent it can cause heat stress in chickens hence not suitable for use in the summer months:
a. Narasin
b. Nicarbacine
c. Diclazuril
d. Halofuginone
b. Nicarbacine
Which of the following is not a perquisite for anesthesia?
a. total unconsciousness
b. somatic an visceral analgesia
c. muscle relaxation
d. preoperative antiinflammatory action
d. preoperative antiinflammatory action
It is intended for control of benign prostatic hyperplasia in male dogs, but its continuous administration can lead to bone marrow suppression:
a. Oestradiol
b. Cabergoline
c. Medroxyprogesterone acetate
d. Proligestone
a. Oestradiol
This drug - because of its strong cycloplegic properties – can be applied as an eye drop in uveitis to decrease pain:
a. Atropine
b. Tetracaine
c. Pilocarpine
d. Procaine
a. Atropine
Which drug would you apply for the treatment of horse- botfly- larval infestation (gasterophilosis)?
a. Foxim pour on
b. Fenbendazole orally
c. spraying with Amitraz
d. Moxidectin orally
d. Moxidectin orally
Which of the following antibiotics would you apply in an animal with severe renal impairment?
a. Doxycycline
b. Gentamicin
c. Tobramycin
d. Enrofloxacin
d. Enrofloxacin
Provitamin, well documented to direct act on reproduction function of large animals
a. Vitamin B
b. Vit D
c. Vit K
d. Carotene
d. Carotene
In adult female rabbit it provokes oestrus
a. Dinoprost
b. Gonadorelin
c. ?
d. ?
b. Gonadorelin
Potassium sparing diuretic:
a. Flurosamide
b. Mannit
c. Spironolacton
d. ??
c. Spironolacton
Cephalosporin against mycoplasma
?
NONE!
Uterotonic drug:
a. Clenbuterol
b. Cloprostenol
c. Ergot, Carbachol, Oxytocin, Carbetocin
d. ??
c. Ergot, Carbachol, Oxytocin, Carbetocin
Sedative decreases body temperature, thus contraindicated in dehydrated animals:
a. Butorphan
b. Diazepam
c. Acepromazin
d. ???
c. Acepromazin
Dose of Ionophores:
a. Maduramycin 5 mg/food kg
b. Salino 10 mg/food kg 60
c. Monensin 17 mg/b.w.kg 100
d. Calsal 16 mg/food kg
a. Maduramycin 5 mg/food kg
Benzimidazol used for pigs and chickens in the industry:
a. Flubendazol
b. Albendazol
c. Thiabendazol
d. Triclabendazol
a. Flubendazol
This anthelmetic drug has very small oral bioavailability, but is highly effective in horses against nematodes in the large bowel, because of the high enough concentration there:
a. Triolabendazole
b. Praziquantel
c. Closantel
d. Pyrantel
d. Pyrantel
A frequent combination partner of nicarbazine:
a. Diclazuril
b. Narasin
c. Amprolium
d. Lazalocid
b. Narasin
Its administration is practically free from major side effects, rarely may cause allergy:
a. Dinoprost
b. Medroxyprogesterone acetate
c. Oestradiol
d. HcG
d. HcG
Which of the following are NOT water soluble bases?
a. wool fat
b. sunflower oil
c. Neither of these
d. both of them
d. both of them
Which technology is appropriate for achieving a pulsatile release of an active substance in a bolus?
a. expanding matrix
b. insoluble matrix
c. chip- controlled diaphragm
d. OROS
c. chip- controlled diaphragm
Necessary amount of chlorinated lime for disinfection of drilled wells:
a. 100 g/1 m 3 water
b. 30 g
c. 100 g
d. 30 g/1 m 3 water
c. 100 g
Antibacterial drug with bactericidal mode of action:
a. Erythromycin
b. Spectinomycin
c. Lincomycin
d. Gentamicin
d. Gentamicin
Antibacterial drug with bactericidal mode of action:
a. Erythromycin
b. Spectinomycin
c. Lincomycin
d. Gentamicin
d. Gentamicin
Polipeptide antibiotic, when it is applied in injection can be highly neuro- and nephrotoxic: A. Cefquinome B. Clavulanic acid C. Colistin sulphate D. Penethamat
C. Colistin sulphate
Its mode of action is coccidiostatic. It is active against second generation schizonts: A. Narasin B. Salinomycin C. Clopidol D. Sulfachloropyrazine
D. Sulfachloropyrazine
Which is characteristic to thiopental?
A. It induces total unconsciousness for a very short time.
B. It produces excellent analgesic effect
C. It has a long duration of action (30-60 minutes)
D. It is rapidly eliminated from the body
A. It induces total unconsciousness for a very short time.
Appropriate for the treatment of enteritis caused by E.coli and Salmonellae: A. Erythromycin B. Bacitracin C. Phenoxymethyl-penicillin D. Gentamicin
D. Gentamicin
The amoxicillin-clavulanic acid combination is ineffective against: A. Staphylococcus aureus B. E.Coli C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa D. Pasteurella multocida
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
How did we measure the free hemoglobin content in the in vitro tissue irritation test?
A. Flourometric measurement
B. Luminometric measurement
C. Light absorbance at specific wavelength
D. Light absorbance at the full spectrum
C. Light absorbance at specific wavelength
This antibiotic can be used for the treatment of mastitis caused by penicillinase producing Staphylococcus aureus: A. Benzylpenicillin-Na B. Oxacillin C. Benzathine penicillin D. Penethamat
B. Oxacillin
Among the listed macrolides this one has cardiotoxic effect (e.g. in goats): A. Erythromycin B. Tilmicosin C. Azithromycin D. Tylosin
B. Tilmicosin
Which is characteristic to polypeptide antibiotics?
A. They are very effective for the treatment of respiratory tract infections
B. They are well absorbed after oral administration
C. They have bactericidal effect
D. They are very safe antibiotics given IM
C. They have bactericidal effect
Which bacterium is highly sensitive to Cephalexine? A. Clamidophila felis B. Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae C. Staph. pseudointermedius D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Staph. pseudointermedius
This antibiotic has very short lasting effect, it has to be applied IV approx. 6 times a day: A. Oxacillin B. Benzathine-penicillin C. Benzylpenicillin-Na D. Penethamat
C. Benzylpenicillin-Na
This antiprotozoal drug can be applied in food-producing mammals and birds: A. Metronidazole B. Ronidazole C. Furazolidone D. Halofuginone
D. Halofuginone
The lowest man power requirement is during the external mass-treatment by application A. Pour on B. Spraying C. Spot on D. Washing
B. Spraying
Among the listed Aminoglycosides this agent is active against Pseudomonas aeruginosa: A. Spectinomycin B. Amikacin C. Neomycin D. Apramycin
B. Amikacin
Recommended application routes for the treatment of sick swine with elevated body temperature:
A. Only medicated water
B. Medicated water or parenteral treatment
C. Only parenteral treatment
D. None of these are true
B. Medicated water or parenteral treatment
What is the main side of blood taking in chicken? A. Vena saphena B. Vena antebrachii C. Vena auricularis D. Vena brachialis
B. Vena antebrachii
Procaine-benzyl penicillin is ineffective against: A. E.coli B. Streptococcus pyogenes C. Bacillus anthracis D. Pasteurella multocida
A. E.coli
23. Which of the listed materials is less sensitive to the presence of organic material remnants? A. Iodine containing agents B. Hypochlorates C. Tensides D. Aldehydes
C. Tensides
Where should the test material be applied in case of the tissue irritation test? A. Large muscles B. Per os C. Under the skin of the ear D. Intraosseal
A. Large muscles
