7c. Spine Pathologies Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 3 things that bones should be examined for

A

examined for fractures collapse/height/avulsion
parallel facet joints
abnormal calcification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what should be examined for disc spaces

A

examine for symmetry/normality of the intervertebral discs between each vertebra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are the spaces that should be checked for dens view of C spine

A

height of disk symmetrical on both sides

distance between medial sides of lat masses and peg are equal on both sides

check if lateral aspect of C1 and 2 aligned

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the lines to be checked for alignment of vertebral bodies and processes

A

anterior and posterior vertebral lines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what may widening prevertebral soft tissue indicate

A

pus or blood build up in the neck leading to swelling of tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is the max prevert soft tissue space distance in C3

A

max 5mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the max prevert soft tissue space distance in C2

A

<7mm anterior to C2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the max prevert soft tissue space distance in C7

A

<2cm anterior to C7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is retropharyngeal infection and what does it look like

A

collection of pus and space gets larger and pushes out anteriorly and can obstruct airway by retropharyngeal mass/infection

anterior to C2/3 there is an increase in prevertebral soft tissue space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is scoliosis

A

side to side curvature of the spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is kyphosis

A

AP curvature of spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are the 3 causes of scoliosis

A

idiopathic, associated with cerebral palsy and muscular dystrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are the 3 causes of kyphosis

A

idiopathic, fractures, osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how can kyphosis impact the spinal cord

A

spinal cord stretches around the deformity/kyphotic angle and can result in impingement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is spina bifida occulta

A

small defect of posterior elements of a vertebra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is spina bifida - myelomeningocele

A

spinal canal remains open along several vertebrae in the lower/middle back

both the membranes and the spinal cord or nerves exposed in sac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is spina bifida - meningocele

A

no cord protruding just fluid in sac

Fluid filled sac at back with no neural tissue often occur below level of where you have spinal cord like in sacrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is a cause of spina bifida

A

Deficiency of folic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is multiple sclerosis

A

autoimmune disease response that destroys myelin sheath that insulates nerve fibres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what does multiple sclerosis affect

A

brain and spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

where can lesions of multiple sclerosis develop

A

brain, optic nerves and spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

metastases has what appearance on xrays

A

increased bone signal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what do sclerotic metastases do to the bone strength and what does this mean for #

A

retain strength in bone so unlikely fracture, increases bone density

24
Q

what do lytic metastases do to the bone strength

A

decrease density and destroy bone

25
what can metastases do to the spinal cord
can encroach on spinal cord and cause spinal cord compression
26
if the metastases are high signal and bright but the spinal canal is dark what MRI type is it
T1 as its contrast enhanced and metastases have higher water content
27
will there be a difference between pre and post contrast for metastases in MRI T2
no
28
what is multiple myeloma
white blood cell malignancy and deposits widely in bone
29
what appearance does multiple myeloma have for bone on images
moth eaten appearance
30
what does multiple myeloma do to the bone in the spine
Spine taken over by tumor and destroys bone and replaced bone so bone becomes weaker and collapse on itself, vert reduced in height and tumor replacement between bony fragments
31
what other condition resembles multiple myeloma
osteoporosis
32
what is ewing sarcoma
aggressive primary bone tumor, locally invasive and has soft tissue mass
33
what do patients present with for ewings sarcoma
swelling and pain at site of tumor
34
what is characteristic of ewing sarcoma on images
soft tissue mass expands into the spinal canal
35
what are bone hemangiomas
benign malformed vascular lesions
36
where do bone hemangiomas occur most frequently
occur most frequently in vertebral column, commonly in L spine
37
what are bone hemangiomas seen as on images
bright round spot
38
what are 3 characteristic features of OA in the vertebral column
bony spur/osteophyte vertebral/intervertebral height loss nerve root entrapment/compression
39
what is typical of TB in the spine
collection of fluid ant to vert itself and collection post compressing spinal cord (ant collect is typical of TB)
40
what is gibbous TB
Gibbous is acute angulation/kyphosis of sp cord due to TB
41
what is osteoporosis in the spine
compression fracture risk and greatly reduced bone density
42
why does osteoporosis in the spine increase fracture risk and what results
Once structure of vertebrae itself becomes frail it can collapse on itself, lose height ant but post mostly fine -> kyphosis results (wedge fractures)
43
what does a osteoporotic vertebra create in the lateral veiw
wedge shape
44
what is a slipped disk
intervertebral disk has defect and soft centre of disk protrudes into spinal canal and can compress nerve roots emerging from spinal cord or compress spine
45
what is disc herniation
height of disc reduced so less space for spinal nerve content of disc squished posteriorly and impinges on nerve as it exits foramina
46
what are the most common areas for disk herniation
L3-5 commonly C spine second most common area of spine
47
what is spinal stenosis
reduce space for spinal cord
48
what is the 3 most common cause of spinal stenosis
disc herniation thickening of ligamentum flavum OA
49
what scan is needed if suspect a Cspine injury
CT scan
50
what is a tear drop # caused by
hyperflexion injury head acutely flexed forwards causing compression of vert so ant part breaks off (hyperflex injury)
51
what is a burst fracture
Fragments of bone going ant and post that can protrude into the spinal canal and can impinge on sp cord
52
why is a C2 dens fracture so unstable
once dens #s, only ligament holds C1 and 2 together so very unstable
53
what can be seen in a sagittal view for a C2 dens #
small collection of blood could be ant to dens
54
why is C2 body # deadly
because it can cut straight through the spinal cord that could kill the patient
55
what is a jefferson fracture
compression fracture of C1 bony ring
56
what 3 things to be checked in a jefferson fracture
check height which is equal both sides, distance betw dens and med border of lat masses, Lateral masses movement
57
what is spondylolithesis
both or one of pars in the vert Vert body slipped ant to lower levels and can cause compression of nerve roots