AIP Flashcards

1
Q

What is the maximum IAS for an aircraft (CAT A/B) in a 15˚ AoB turn when on a SID?

A

A: 120
B: 165

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2
Q

What is the equation for calculating Rate of Climb?

A

Ground speed * Gradient% * 1.013

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3
Q

What is the Maximum IAS for holding pattern for CAT A/B in normal and turbulent conditions below 14,000ft?

A

Normal: 170kts
Turbulent: 170kts

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4
Q

When in a hold, what sort of turns should be made?

A

Rate 1 or 25˚ AoB (whichever is lower)

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5
Q

What is Vat (Vref) for CAT A/B aircraft?

A

A: <91
B: 91 - 120

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6
Q

What is the range of speeds acceptable for initial approach for CAT A/B aircraft? What about procedure turns or reversals)

A

A: 90-150 (110 procedure/ reversal)
B: 120-180 (140 procedure/ reversal)

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7
Q

What is the range of speeds acceptable for final approach for CAT A/B aircraft?

A

A: 70-100
B: 85-130

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8
Q

What is the maximum speed for visual manoeuvring (circling) for CAT A/B aircraft?

A

A: 100
B: 135

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9
Q

What is the maximum acceptable speed on the miss approach for CAT A/B aircraft?

A

A: 110
B: 150

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10
Q

What is the equation for calculating Vat?

A

1.3 * Vs0 (Stall speed in landing configuration)

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11
Q

How may instrument approach procedure timing be changes if your approach speeds are significantly lower than those used to design the approach?

A

If approach IAS is 91-110kts:
2min = 2.5 min
3min = 4 min

If approach IAS is 70-90kts:
2 min = 3 min
3 min = 4.5 min

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12
Q

When will an ATIS say to “Expect Visual Approach”?

A
  • Vis > 16km
  • Ceiling > 1000ft above procedure commencement altitude or radar vectoring altitude
  • By day only (except NZCH)
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13
Q

Under what conditions will the CH ATIS say to expect visual approach?

A

Vis > 16km
Ceiling > 1000ft above procedure

At night when:
Vis > 16km
No cloud below 5000ft
When RWY 11/29 in use

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14
Q

What is the equation used for a correction to MDA/DA when using a remote QNH ?

A

(Distance-5)*5 = ft to add to MDA/DA

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15
Q

When will onwards clearance time or expect time of approach happen when in a hold?

A
  • When en-route hold onwards clearance time will always be given
  • If in approach hold expected approach time will be given if delay is expected to exceed 5 minutes
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16
Q

What are acceptable visual features to have in sight when operating below MDA/DA?

A
  • Runway or runway markings
  • Touchdown zone lights or markings or touchdown zone
  • Approach lighting system
  • Threshold marking or threshold lights
  • REIL
  • VASI/PAPI
  • Runway lights
17
Q

What altitude reference is used in the AOFIR?

A

QNE only

18
Q

What is the significance of the FIR boundary on altimeter setting?

A

In AOFIR only QNE is used

-In NZFIR, QNE, zone QNH or aerodrome QNH is used

19
Q

Describe the transition layer?

A

Transition altitude: 13,000ft
Transition level: FL150

Set QNE when climbing through transition altitude
Set zone//area QNH when descending through FL150

20
Q

What phrase must be said if you are not planning on flying at a non standard cruising altitude?

A

“Non Standard”

21
Q

What does RVSM stand for? what does it allow?

A

Reduced vertical separation minima

-Allows minimum ATC separation of 1000ft vertically, between 2 RVSM aircraft

22
Q

What equipment is required to operate in RVSM airspace?

A
  • 2 primary altimetry systems
  • 1 automatic altitude keeping device
  • 1 altitude alerting device
23
Q

What is MFA? What is it made up of and what does each mean?

A

-MFA: Minimum flight altitude

  • Route MSA: Minimum Safe altitude
  • MRA: Minimum reception altitude (VOR)
  • MEA: Minimum en-route altitude (NDB)
  • VHZ upper limit
  • Danger/ Restricted area upper limit

Then application of next highest magnetic cruising level must be used to get MFA

24
Q

What is the minimum net climb gradient for a departure climb? When may the initial turn be commenced?

A

3.3% (200ft/nm)

turn commenced after climbing through 400ft on RWY centreline

25
Q

When may you descent below MFA?

A

-On arrival in the following circumstances:
=In accordance with En-route descent steps
=VORSEC chart steps
=Under radar control

-Descent must be limited to the higher of MSA, or VHZ/Danger area/ Restricted area upper limit

26
Q

What different departure procedures can be done?

A
  • Published SID
  • Climb on track above VORSEC steps
  • Specified track, radar heading or radar SID within an evaluated climb sector
  • Departure instructions under radar control
  • Visual departure (with regard to prevailing met conditions, by day only)
27
Q

How long before entering RVSM airspace must you notify ATS if you cannot meet RVSM requirements?

A

30 minutes

28
Q

How does speechless comms work?

A

Yes: 1 pulse
No: 2 pulses
Say again: 3 pulses
At nominated position: 4 pulses

29
Q

What are the visual light signals

A
  • Solid green: cleared T/O or LDG
  • Flashing green: return to land, cleared to taxi
  • Solid red: Give way and continue circling, taxi clear of leg area
  • Flashing red: AD unsafe, do not land,
  • Flashing Red/green: Danger, be on alert
  • Flashing White: Land and proceed to apron, return to starting point
  • Red Pyro: not withstanding previous clearance
30
Q

When will onwards clearance time be passed and when will it be withheld?

A
  • En-route hold: will always passed

- Initial approach fix: if expected delay is to exceed 5 minutes

31
Q

Under what conditions may a secondary or grass runway with no departure procedure be used?

A
  • By day only if:
  • The pilot must maintain visual terrain clearance until established on a promulgated departure procedure for that aerodrome; and
  • The aircraft maintains an adequate climb gradient to ensure obstacle clearance
  • Track intercepted ASAP by the shortest practical means after completing turn described in procedure or by ATC
32
Q

When may an aircraft leave an evaluated climb sector?

A
  • established on evaluated route
  • established on a climb above VORSEC steps
  • established under radar terrain at or above min radar terrain contour level
  • At or above an approved area MSA
33
Q

What is the standard IFR departure minima?

A

300ft ceiling, 1500m vis; or

minim detailed in the departure minima for the AD

34
Q

What hold entry cannot be done for a hold on a DME arc?

A

Offset entry

35
Q

What are the 5 different types of IAP reversal procedures that can be done?

A
45˚ procedure turn
80˚ procedure turn
Base turn
Racetrack
Dead reckoning segment
36
Q

What terrain separation does a DME arc provide by design

A

1000ft from terrain and obstacles for a distance 2.5nm laterally of the curve

37
Q

What visual reference must be obtained for a visual approach at night?

A

Runway lights

NOT REIL or approach path lighting

38
Q

Can you do visual approach at an uncontrolled aerodrome?

A

yes provided you can maintain terrain separation and ceiling is not below initial approach level

39
Q

RVSM applies between which altitudes?

A

FL290 - FL410