Air Traffic Services Flashcards
(136 cards)
1
Q
Generically what 3 callsigns can be used?
A
- Operator agency followed by flight identification
- Operator agency followed by last three letters of registration
- Manufacturer, or model followed by last three letters of registration
2
Q
When can callsign be abbreviated after initial contact?
A
- Can just do last three letters of registration
3
Q
When can operator agency or manufacturer callsigns be approved for? (4)
A
- regular air transport service
- SAR
- medical transfer or medical emergency flight
- Police operation authorised by Commisioner
4
Q
When position reporting on departure at procedural airport do you need to have to also give altitude passing to nearest 100ft?
A
- yes
5
Q
Position reporting requirement enroute if not defined by reporting points?
A
- 30min
6
Q
In controlled airspace when report when holding? (4)
A
- first crossing aid/fix to enter
- when established after sector 1 or 2 entry
Training - when inbound and requesting onwards or approach - when crossing fix or vacating
7
Q
When need to call at Intermediate approach fix in controlled aerodrome?
A
- GNSS approach
8
Q
When do you not need to call at FAF at controlled aerodrome?
A
- When already called visual to tower
9
Q
When can you call visual at a controlled aerodrome IFR?
A
- When ground or water becomes continually visible and flight by reference to instruments no longer required.
10
Q
Do you need to call current altitude on fist contact with tower when on visual approach?
A
- Yes
11
Q
Altitude and radius within to talk to aerodrome with AFIS/uncontrolled?
A
- 3000ft and 10nm
12
Q
What calls need to be made at AFIS aerodrome/uncontrolled when on the ground intending to take off? (2)
A
- when about to taxi to the take off position
- immediately before take off, and if vacating, direction of flight
13
Q
If in transit what distance need to talk to AFIS/uncontrolled?
A
- 5-10nm
14
Q
Steady green? (2)
A
- F = cleared to land
- G = cleared for take off
15
Q
Steady Red? (2)
A
- F = Give way to other aircraft and continue circling
- G = Stop
16
Q
Series of green flashes? (2)
A
- F = Return for landing (clearance to land will be given in due course)
- G = Cleared to taxi
17
Q
Series of red flashes? (2)
A
- F = Aerodrome unsafe, do not land
- G = Taxi clear of landing area in use
18
Q
Flashing white? (2)
A
- F = Land at this aerodrome and proceed to landing
- G = Return to start point on aerodrome
19
Q
Alternating red and green flashes? (2)
A
- F = Danger, be on alert
- G = Danger, be on alert
20
Q
When given steady red in flight what does it mean when it says continue circling?
A
- Continue tracking via aerodrome traffic circuit - do not orbit in position
21
Q
How long before entering TIBA airspace should the listening watch commence?
A
- 10min
22
Q
When TIBA broadcast be made for takeoff?
A
- As soon as appropriate prior to or after take off
23
Q
How many minutes prior to a reporting point, crossing, and intervals between points should TIBA broadcasts be made?
A
- 10min
24
Q
How many minutes prior to or crossing an ATS route should TIBA broadcast be made?
A
- 10min
25
When should altitude or FL change be broadcast on TIBA? (3)
- Where possible 2-5min prior
- When changing
- When levelling
26
Should TIBA broadcasts be acknowledged?
- No unless potential collision risk is perceived.
27
Do normal position reporting procedures apply under TIBA?
- yes
28
When can you not comply with an ATC clearance or instruction? (2)
- When responding to an ACAS resolution advisory or GPWS/TAWS
- If complying will break a rule
29
When is a clearance in effect?
- When it is read back
30
When a clearance is done electronically when is it in effect?
- Acknowledgment of receipt
31
Who requires a clearance to operate within manouevering area at a controlled aerodrome?
- Pretty much everyone!
32
What does a clearance not absolve a pilot from? (2)
- compliance with rules
| - applying procedures for safety of flight
33
Does IFR need a clearance before operating an IFR flight in controlled airspace?
- Yes (hence IFR plan you request airways clearance).
34
Do you need to maintain two way comms when operating within vicinity of AFIS aerodrome if equipped with a radio?
- yes
35
When do you need to advise AFIS aerodrome your intended use of that aerodrome? (3)
- prior to taxiing on maneuvering area
- prior to landing or taking off
- entering aerodrome traffic circuit
36
If no radio when need to talk to AFIS and advise intentions? (2)
- prior to taxiing on maneuvering area
| - entering aerodrome traffic circuit
37
Does VFR need clearance into class e?
No
38
When IFR flights not separated in Class D?
- When flights have been cleared to climb or descend maintaining own separation VMC
39
Are IFR & VFR separated in Class D?
- not by day
40
When are SVFR flights separated?
- When reported visibility less than 5km
41
If VFR aircraft on common airspace level in Class D and IFR above at lowest applicable cruising level in Class C are they separated?
- No
42
When can vertical separation be reduced to 500ft in controlled airspace?
- Both aircraft are medium or light, and lower is VFR or SVFR operating at 4500ft or below
43
Min vertical sep above special use airspace?
| - Danger/Restricted/MOA established for IMC or SVFR activity?
- 1000ft (2000ft above FL290)
44
Min vertical sep above special use airspace?
| - Danger/Restricted/MOA established for VMC activity?
- 500ft (1000ft above FL290)
45
Min vertical sep above special use airspace?
| - Danger/Restricted/MOA not established for aircraft activity and Volcanic hazard areas?
- no minimum
46
Types of horizontal separation? (4)
- Longitudinal
- Lateral
- Radar
- Geographic
47
How is longitudinal separation expressed as? (2)
- distance
| - time
48
Definition of longitudinal separation?
- spacing between estimated positions of aircraft concerned is never less than prescribed minimum
49
How achieve longitudinal separation? (4)
- depart specified time
- lose time to arrive over specific location at specified time
- hold at a specific location until a specified time
- insuring aircraft are never less than specified distance apart
50
How can longitudinal separation be reduced on aircraft on reciprocal tracks outside of radar cover? Who's responsible for ensuring correct identification?
- Report sighting and passing aircraft, by day or night,
| - PIC
51
How is lateral separation area of conflict define?
- Apply navigation tolerance for navaid being used for track guidance, plus a buffer area, where they overlap is lateral separation point
52
If distance reference cant be used for lateral separation how can it be done other than by radar? (2)
- Determined by a point using NAVAID
| - Visual reference (day only)
53
What height can geographic separation be used up to in TMAs and CTRs?
- 6000ft
54
How is separation by GNSS or DME usually applied?
- by direct speech by ATC
55
When can visual separation be used to reduced separation in class C and D? (8)
- daylight
- pilot request
- both on same freq (except adjacent radar sectors)
- both remain VMC
- no possibility of incorrect identification
- each continuously visible
- both pilots concur
- pilot of succeeding has preceding in sight and can maintain it
56
When can 'in vicinity of aerodromes' be used to reduced separation? (3 different times)
- controller has each aircraft in continuous sight
- each pilot can see each other and report so
- succeeding pilot has preceding in sight and can maintain visual separation
57
When can 'composite visual separation' be used to reduced separation?
- when tower controller can see on, and knows where the other one is in both position and track and geographic separation is not practicable.
58
When can tower controller issue composite visual separation? (3)
- one aircraft continuously in sight within 10nm
- route and intentions of other is known and position confirmed via radar or other means
- instructions, when required, are issued to aircraft in sight to ensure adequate separation.
59
If aircraft instructed to maintain visual separation and lose sight what must pilot do?
- notify ATC
60
When told to follow visually what must pilot do? (2)
- ensure a safe landing interval
| - accept noise compliance and wake turbulence
61
As part of establishing a safe landing interval when following visually what must pilot do? (3)
- recognise or request approach characteristics of that aircraft
- establish aircraft in configuration and speed that will preserve spacing
- go direct to aerodrome traffic circuit and not deviate from final approach or runway centreline without ATC clearance
62
Can night visual separation at night?
- Yes, only within vicinity of aerodromes
63
What does term 'adequate separation' mean when visually following?
- Spacing required for safe operation, or to achieve runway separation, without need for sudden or violent manouevres
64
When can own separation VMC be requested IFR? (3)
- Class D, daylight, and only when not under radar service
65
Conditions when operating under own separation VMC when IFR? (6)
- all essential pilots must agree
- all on same freq
- clearance will be for a specific period
- Alternate instructions given if maintaining VMC may not be possible
- Must inform ATC if unlikely to maintain IMC and get alternate instructions before IMC
- essential traffic passed to all affected flights
66
Min normal radar horizontal separation? When reduced?
- 5nm
- Reduced to 3nm inside 60nm Auckland, Ohakea, Wellington, CH, Te Weraiti
- Or when aircraft on reciprocal tracks have radar symbols separated
67
What is essential traffic?
- traffic where provision of separation is applicable but it has been reduced and is not separated by prescribed minima e.g. flights maintaining own separation VMC
68
Min lat/ & long separation for RNP10?
- 50nm
69
What phases of flight is distance based wake turbulence separation applied? (3)
- Directly behind within 0.5nm (laterally) and at same level or less than 1000ft below
- aircraft is crossing behind another aircraft at same level or less than 1000ft below
- both using same runway or parallel runways less than 760m behind
70
Distance wake turb behind A380? (3)
- A380 = 4nm
- Non A380 Heavy = 6nm
- Medium = 7nm
71
Distance wake turb behind Heavy? (2)
- Heavy - 4nm
| - Medium - 5nm
72
In distance based wake turb if the distance is achieved but within _____ minutes what will ATC say?
- 2min
| - Caution wake turb
73
Time based wake turb - same direction runway - are applied when? (3)
- Same runway
- parallel less than 760m
- where possible projected flight paths will cross at same altitude or less than 1000ft
74
Time based wake turb same direction runway - arriving flights behind A380? (3)
- A380 = 2min
- Non A380 Heavy = 2min
- Medium = 3min
75
Time based wake turb same direction runway - arriving flights behind Heavy? (2)
- Heavy = 2min
| - Medium = 2min
76
Time based wake turb same direction runway - departing flights behind A380? (3)
- A380 = 2min (3min intermediate t/o)
- Non A380 Heavy = 2min (3min intermediate t/o)
- Medium = 3min (4min intermediate t/o)
77
Time based wake turb same direction runway - departing flights behind Heavy? (2)
- Heavy = 2min (3min intermediate t/o)
| - Medium = 2min (3min intermediate t/o)
78
Arriving/departing flights awake turb only applied when?
- When arriving going through departing flight path - i.e. arriving aircraft has displaced threshold
79
Arriving/departing flights wake turb generally anything behind A380 arriving or departing? Heavy arriving or departing?
- 3min A380 arriving or departing
| - 2min Heavy arriving or departing
80
Time based wake turb - opposite direction ruwnay - are applied when? (3)
- Same runway
- parallel less than 760m
- where possible projected flight paths will cross at same altitude or less than 1000ft
81
Arriving and departing - opposite direction - A380 leading aircraft (take off or landing or low or missed approach? (4)
- A380 = 2min
- Non A380 heavy = 3min
- Medium = 3min
82
Arriving and departing - opposite direction - Heavy leading aircraft (take off or landing or low or missed approach? (2)
- Heavy = 2min
| - Medium = 2min
83
In a crossing or non-intersecting runway with crossing flight paths wake turb aircraft lands prior to the intersection does wake turbulence need to be applied?
- no
84
For crossing wake turb general time behind A380 and Heavy? (2)
- 3min
| - 2min
85
When can go above 250kts when otherwise expected to? (2)
- min safe speed in AFM is more than 250kts
| - aviation event
86
Min descent height IMC at unattended aerodrome where conflict may exist?
- 1200ft above aerodrome elevation
87
How MSA derived?
- Controlling obstacle within Nav tolerance and buffer area
| - 1000ft or 2000ft (mountainous) and if controlling obstacle not surveyed then added 100ft
88
VORSEC and VORTAC charts show higher of which two?
- MSA or MRA
89
Can VORSEC charts be used by ATC to separate?
Yes
90
Can a holding aircraft use VORSEC charts?
No
91
Before an aircraft leaves a VORSEC chart they must be? (3)
- on a promulgated route at or above MSA
- Radar control
- above 13000ft AMSL
92
What distance do TAAs extend out to?
- 25nm
93
To use a TAA must you be travelling to that fix?
- Yes
94
When is radar responsible for terrain clearance?
when an aircraft is being vectored
95
If travelling along a boundary line between adjacent or radial between two sectors in a VORSEC, TAA, or 25nmMSA which MSA applies?
- The lowest one
96
How can radar provide terrain clearance? What methods? (5)
- contour levels on display (1000ft, 2000ft, or 3000ft volcanic alert level 1)
- MSA for route, including descent on VORSEC
- approved area MSA
- 25nm sector alt
- TAA
97
When can "maintain terrain clearance visually" be given?
- In VMC by day IFR arriving or departing on arrangement by pilot
98
Can radar descend to a level lower than we navigation tolerance may be jeopardised?
- Yes
99
Radar vectoring for a departing flight will not be terminated until?
- Aircraft is above MSA for the route
100
For general terrain monitoring how far ahead does radar look for actual versus predicted position and possible terrain infringement?
- 40sec
101
When can MSAW be turned off? (3)
- servicing
- QNH not available
- nuisance alerts
102
Which airspace is MSAW generally available in?
- operative controlled airspace
103
What is MSAW configured for? (4)
- where radar services being provided
- general monitoring in terminal airspace with reliable SSR down to 1000ft AGL
- Instrument approach path monitoring to within 2nm of threshold provided SSR coverage exists
- Monitoring suppressed if visual manouevres of leaving controlled airspace
104
Look ahead time for approach path monitoring?
- 15sec
105
What term used when priority is required for weather deviation?
"Weather deviation required"
106
How else can get priority for weather deviation?
- Pan call
107
If ATC has conflicting traffic for a request to deviate for weather what will they do?
- advise pilot unable due conflicting traffic and request pilot's intentions
108
If pilot does not get clearance due to traffic for weather avoidance what must/can pilot do? (4)
- ADVISE ATC of intentions
- COMPLY with clearance, OR
- Execute procedures in 2.11.4
- ESTABLISH voice comms with ATC to expedite dialogue on the situation
109
Is a radar service available in Class G?
- Yes, radar FIS within radar coverage
110
What are radar services limited to VFR in class G? (2)
- Emergency aircraft
| - Navigational assistance
111
What should radar speed control be kept within?
- 10kts
112
What distance from touchdown can speed control be maintained to? (2)
- 5nm in instrument approach
| - 4nm on visual approach
113
When can ATC vector for a visual approach? (2 - CH)
- day only, vis >16k, reported ceiling at least above applicable minimum radar vectoring altitude
- by night only at CH for runways 11 or 29 provided visibility is at least 16km and there is no cloud below 5000ft.
114
When is an unknown aircraft considered to be on a conflict path?
- when in opinion of radar controller the projected tracks would reduce separation to less than 3nm
115
If need to deviate from track oceanic without a clearance what must turn angle be done at and maintain a lateral track deviation by?
- 45deg
| - 15nm
116
If deviation for weather inside 10nm what altitude must be at?
- stay at assigned
117
If need to deviate due weather more than 10nm and no clearance what must do with height? (NZZO and NZZC)
```
NZZO
- East/Left=Descend300/Right=Climb300
- West/Left=Climb300/Right=Descend300
(Descend to equator, climb to pole)
NZZC
- North/Left=Descend300/Right=Climb300
- South/Left=Climb300/Right=Descend300
(Descend to Australia, climb to Chile)
```
118
If deviating due weather oceanic without a clearance what should you squawk?
- 7700
119
Should turn on exterior lights when deviating without clearance oceanic?
Yes
120
When finished deviating from track for weather without clearance and returning to track when must be back at assigned flight level?
- within side 10nm
121
When deviating without clearance oceanic what broadcast on 121.5 and 123.45? (4)
- Flight ID
- Flight level
- position (including route or track code)
- intentions
122
When unable to maintain assigned flight level when deviating (without clearance) the pilot should minimise aircraft descent rate until established at ______nm offset at which point climb/descend _____ft different to those levels normally used.
- 15nm
| - 300ft
123
If unable to meet RNP criteria when must notify ATC? (2)
- 30min prior to entering
| - immediately, if within 30min
124
When report on uncharted oceanic routes?
| What about diagonal routes?
- 5deg or 10deg of latitude or longitude
- Use 10deg if it is traversed in 1hr20min or less
- Diagonal routes - intervals not less than 1hr20min
125
IFR GPS ole means needs what approval level? (form)
- level 1 on CAA form 2129 and is endorsed as such
126
If aircraft operating in NZFIR IFR sole means GPS what must it be equipped with for ATO and non ATO?
- ATO - at least TWO operable sole means nav systems other than GPS receivers (appropriate for route being flown)
- Non ATO - at least ONE operable sole means nav systems other than GPS receivers (appropriate for route being flown)
127
What are the 4 nav system performance requirements for sole means navigation?
- accuracy
- integrity
- availability
- continuity of service
128
What is the restriction on use of sole means GPS within NZ FIR?
- Not under IFR using a sole means navigation system which uses only GPS sensors.
129
If operating more than 10 min en-route with RAIM or in GPS DR mode for more than 1 minute what must you do? (2)
- advise ATC
| - Verify position every 10min using another IFR approved navigation system
130
Can you commence an instrument approach when RAIM is displayed?
- No
131
Where in NZFIR can pilot operate random routing with GPS primary means navigation?
- Above FL160 within 20nm Mt Cook
| - Any other airspace above FL150
132
Can operate random routing GPS primary means without ATC clearance?
- No
133
Can random routing GPS primary means below FL150 be done?
- Yes, AC clearance and ATC continuously monitor for adequate terrain clearance
134
For GPS primary means IA when must RAIM prediction be done and how?
- prior to departure
| - Using onboard GPS receiver or approved air traffic service organisation (Part 172)
135
For GPS primary means enroute and terminal navigation must be conducted? (2)
- current GPS database with respect to enroute and area charts
- cross checking database selected track and distance for accuracy and reasonableness compared to charts
136
If GPS is used as primary means and and alternate is needed what must the alternate have?
- NAVAID with promulgated approach and aircraft is equipped to use it
