General Flashcards
1
Q
When is an aviation document required?
A
For pretty much everything (e.g. aircraft, pilots, ANSP, medical, training organisations etc)
2
Q
What is considered for fit and proper person assessment? (6)
- Compliance
- Experience
- Knowledge
- History
- Convictions
- Evidence
A
- Compliance History with transport safety regulation
- Experience in transport industry
- Knowledge of the applicable regulations
- History of physical or mental health or serious behavioural problems
- Convictions for any transport safety offence
- Evidence person has committed any transport safety offence or contravened or failed to comply with any rule
3
Q
For F&PP can the Director take into account any relevant other matters or evidence?
A
Yes
4
Q
Can the Director seek any information that the Director thinks fit and/or consider information obtained by any other source for F&PP?
A
Yes
5
Q
Can the F&PP test be applied to a body corporate? Which bit doesn’t apply?
A
Yes, except for the physical or mental health which is for an individual only.
6
Q
If Director finds prejudicial information about a person what must they do/allow?
A
Disclose information to the person and allow them reasonable opportunity to refute or comment.
7
Q
Can Director not disclose prejudicial information to an individual?
A
Yes, if it could endanger the safety of any person.
8
Q
If prejudicial information is not disclosed what can the individual do?
A
Either use Privacy Act complaint (if about them), or OIA in any other case.
9
Q
Duties of PIC? (3)
A
- Responsible for safe operation of aircraft in flight, safety and well being of all pax and crew, and safety of cargo.
- Final authority to control the aircraft while in command and for the maintenance of discipline by all persons on board
- Subject to 13A, responsible for compliance with all relevant regulatory requirements
10
Q
What must a pilot be satisfied with to breach rules for safety reasons? (4)
A
- Emergency involves danger to life or property
- Extent of breach only as far to deal with emergency
- No other reasonable means of dealing with the emergency
- Degree of danger involved with complying with the requirement is greater than deviating from it
11
Q
Can rules be broken if deviation not related to in-flight emergency?
A
Yes, if necessitates the urgent transportation of persons or medical supplies for the protection of life or property
12
Q
If rules are broken for the urgent transportation of persons or medical supplies for the protection of life or property it is only permitted if? (4)
A
- Emergency involves danger to life or property
- Extent of breach only as far to deal with emergency
- No other reasonable means of dealing with the emergency
- Degree of danger involved with complying with the requirement is greater than deviating from it
13
Q
When specifically can’t the rules be broken for emergency or protection of life and/or property? (3)
A
- If aircraft not registered in NZ or elsewhere
- The rule breach is in relation to airworthiness of an aircraft
- Operation of an aircraft is by a person not lawfully entitled to operate it
14
Q
If a rule is justifiably broken what must the PIC do? (2)
A
- Notify relevant ATC of the action
- As soon as practicable notify the Director of the action and circumstances that necessitated it, and if requested by Director a written report.
15
Q
If someone who holds a medical certificate notices a change in medical condition or previously undetected condition that may interfere with safe exercise of associated privileges what must they do? (2)
A
- Advise Director as soon as practicable
- Stop exercising those privilages
16
Q
Can Director through the Gazette issue general directions providing exceptions for temporary medical conditions to the reporting requirements?
A
yes
17
Q
If Director believes a licence holder MAY be unable to safely use their medical privileges the Director MAY? (2)
A
- Suspend the certificate; or
- Impose or amend any conditions/restrictions/endorsements
18
Q
If Director believes a licence holder IS be unable to safely use their medical privileges the Director MUST? (2)
A
- Suspend; or
- Revoke; or
- Impose or amend any conditions/restrictions/endorsements
19
Q
If someone has had their medical certificate revoked, withdrawn, or suspended or who is disqualified form holding it must surrender their certificate to? (3)
A
- The Director
- someone authorised by the Director; or
- Police
20
Q
Can anyone return their medical certificate to the Director or ask to have it cancelled?
A
Yes, then Director just cancel it and update register.
21
Q
If someone does or omit any part of the act and causes unnecessary danger to any other person or property what punishment could they face? (Individual and body corporate)
A
- Individual = 12mths or $10,000
- Body Corp = $100,000
22
Q
Punishment for operating an aircraft in a careless manner? (Individual and body corporate)
A
- Individual = $7,000
- Body Corp = $35,000
23
Q
Dangerous activity involving aircraft, aeronautical product or aviation related service which causes unnecessary danger to any other person or property what punishment could they face? (Individual and body corporate)
A
- Individual = 12mths or $10,000
- Body Corp = $100,000
24
Q
Def: Accident when a person is fatally or seriously injured as a result of? (3) (1xExcept)
A
- Being in the aircraft
- Direct contact with any part of the aircraft (including parts detached from aircraft)
- Jet blast
- Except self inflicted or inflicted by someone else or stowaways
25
Def: Accident when aircraft sustains damage or structural failure that? (3) (1xExcept)
- Adversely affects structural strength, performance, or flight characteristics; AND
- would normally require major repair or replacement of the affected component
- Except engine failure damage that is limited to the engine, its cowlings, or accessories, or damage limited to propellers, wing tips, antennae, tyres, brakes, fairings, small dents, or puncture holes in the aircraft skin; OR
- The aircraft is missing or completely accessible
26
Def: Act
Civil Aviation Act 1990
27
Def: Adequate Aerodrome?
Meets requirements for aerodrome and runway under 121.71 for particular aeroplane, except if aerodrome is designated as en-route alternate then fire and rescue must be at least CAT4 and must be available within 30min prior notification at expected ETA
28
Def: Aerodrome operational area? (2)
- Movement area and associated strips and safety areas
| - Any ground installation or facility needed for the safety of aircraft operations
29
Def: AIC? (2)
- Does not qualify as a NOTAM or AIP, and
| - relates to flight safety, air navigation, technical, administrative or legal matters
30
What aircraft categories are there? (6)
- Aeroplane
- Balloon
- Glider
- Microlight
- Helicopter
- Hang Glider
31
Def: ATO (Except 5)
Carriage of passengers or goods for hire or reward except:
- Commercial transport operation
- Sightseeing or joyride flight under VFR by day in a balloon, microlight, glider, or hang glider.
- Helicopter external load operation
- Ag aircraft operation
- Parachute operation
32
Def: AO under CAR Pt1?
- Either an ATO or commercial transport operation.
33
Def: AO under pt121.3?
- ATO or commercial transport operation using an aeroplane with more than 30 seats (except crew seats) or payload capacity greater than 3410kg.
34
Def: AO under pt125.3?
- ATO or commercial transport operation using an aeroplane with 10-30 seats (except crew seats) or payload capacity of 3410kg or less and a MCTOW greater than 5700KG or
- SEIFR with passengers
35
Def: AD
- Mandatory airworthiness requirement containing modifications, inspections, conditions, or limitations to ensure continue safe operation
36
Def: Airworthy Condition
Condition of aircraft including all components complies with all requirements relating to design, manufacture, maintenance, modification, repair and safety
37
Def: Alerting Service
- ATS provided to notify appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of SAR and to assist such organisations
38
Def: Alternate Aerodrome
- Aerodrome which an aircraft proceeds when it becomes either impossible or inadvisable to land at the intended aerodrome
39
Def: Area Navigation
- Method of NAV within coverage of ground or spaced based navigation systems or within limits of capability of self-contained navigation systems or a combination of
40
Def: ATC clearance vs Instruction
- Clearance means authorisation for an aircraft to proceed under conditions specified by ATC unit
- Instruction means a directive issued by ATC for the purposes of requiring a pilot to take specific action
41
Def: Augmented Crew
- More than the minimum required by aeroplane certification
42
Def: CATII
- DH less than 200ft, but not lower than 100ft, and RVR not less than 350m
43
Def: CATIIIA, B, and C?
- IIIA = DH lower than 100ft or no DH and RVR not less than 200M
- IIIB = DH lower than 50ft or no DH and RVR less than 200m but not less than 50m
- IIIB = no DH or RVR limitations
44
Def: Ceiling
- Height above ground or water of lowest layer (more than half the sky) and below 20000ft
45
Def: Flammable Liquid (Class 3.1A, C and D) (3)
- 3.1A = flash point below 23degC and has initial boiling point (IBP) of a maximum 35degC (includes petrol based products)
- 3.1C = flash point above 23degC but below 60DegC (includes kerosene based products)
- 3.1D = flash point above 60degC but below 93DegC (includes diesel based products)
46
Def: Class B cargo or baggage compartment? (3)
- Crew member can access all of it with a hand fire extinguisher
- When accessing it no hazardous quantity of smoke/fumes etc will enter any crew/pax compartment
- seperate approved smoke detector or fire detector system
47
Def: Clearway
- Define rectangular area over ground or water at Dep end of runway under control of aerodrome operator and selected or prepared as suitable area for initial climb to specified height
48
Def: Command Practice
- Performance by a co-pilot of the duties and functions of a PIC under supervision of a PIC designated for the purpose by the operator
49
Def: Commercial Transport Operation (except)
Carriage of passengers or goods for hire/reward where each passenger is performing a task/duty on the operation or pax/goods carried to or from a remote location. Except:
- Sightseeing/joyride in balloon, microlight, glider, hang glider, helo external load op, ag op, or parachute op.
50
Def: Contaminated runway
- more than 25% or runway surface of required length covered in water, slush, or loose snow more than 3mm deep or any part of runway with ice.
51
Def: Co-pilot
- Licensed, not PIC, and not receiving flight instruction.
52
Def: Crew member (4)
- Assigned by operator to perform a duty for operation of aircraft or operation of flight
- carried for sole purpose of giving instruction in control or navigation of the aircraft or undergoing instruction as FE or Flight Attendant
- Authorised by Director to exercise a function
- A flight examiner
53
Def: Baro-VNAV
- Nav system providing vertical guidance reference to a specified VPA based on barometric altitude.
54
Does Baro-VNAV use MDA/H or DA/H?
DA/H with no FAF or MAPt identified
55
Def: Dangerous Goods? (2)
- Listed by ICAO Tech Inst for Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air
- Have properties that would result in articles or substances being classified as dangerous goods by ICAO
56
Def: Day
- Civil twilight
- Morning = 6 deg below (centre of sun disc)
- Evening = 6 deg below
57
DA and DH based on?
- DA = MSL
| - DH = height above referenced runway threshold
58
Def: Aerodrome design aeroplane
- largest aeroplane aerodrome intended to serve. In terms of taxiway markings = greatest wheelbase
59
Def: Disabled passenger
- any pa whose physical, medical, or mental condition requires individual attention not normally extended to ATO pax
60
Def: Dual Flight Instruction
- Licensed and rated flight instructor occupying a pilot seat
61
Def: Dual Flight Time
- Receiving instruction by licensed and rated pilot on board a DUAL CONTROL aircraft
62
Def: EDTO
- Multi engine turbine aeroplane where flight time (one engine inop cruise speed ISA still air), from a point along route to adequate aerodrome is is greater than threshold time for aeroplane.
63
Def: Final Reserve Fuel
- min fuel to provide a margin to secure safe completion of flight in event of unplanned manoeuvring in vicintiy of destination or alternate or suitable aerodrome and in ordinary circumstances remains on board until completion of landing.
64
Def: Flight Attendant
- trained person assigned by operator to be responsible to PIC for passenger safety on the aircraft
65
Def: Flight Crew Member
- appropriately qualified person assigned by the operator for the duty of in an aircraft during flight time as a pilot or FE
66
Def: Flight Time (non-Balloon and Balloon)
- First moves for flight (include pushback) and comes to rest and end of flight.
- Balloon = burner on for first inflation until completely deflated
67
Def: height
- vertical component from a specific datum
68
Def: incident
- not an accident - any occurrence associated with operation of aircraft and affects safety of the operation
69
Def: Instrument Flight and Instrument Flight Time and Instrument Time
- Instrument Flight (IF) = piloted solely by reference to instruments without external reference points
- IFT = time during which an aircraft is piloted solely by ref to instruments without external reference points
- Instrument Time = includes IFT and time practicing simulated IF on an approved mechanical device
70
Def: IMC
- Vis, distance from cloud, and ceiling less than minima specified for VMC
71
Def: Landing Distance Available:
- length of runway declared by aerodrome operator suitable for ground run
72
Def: Mach Number
- Ratio of TAS to speed of sound
73
What is MDA referenced to?
- MSL
74
What is MDH referenced to? (2)
| For a circling approach?
- Aerodrome elevation or threshold elevation if if is more than 7ft below the aerodrome elevation
- Aerodrome elevation for circling appch
75
What is 25NM MSA centered on?
- NAVAID, or if GNSS based the ARP
76
NOTAM based on?
- Essential knowledge to personnel concerned with flight operations
77
Def: Passenger
- Carried by aircraft but not a crew member
78
P.A. is in relation to what standard?
- Standard atmosphere
79
Purpose of a Procedure Altitude?
- Recommended altitude established to accommodate a stabilised descent profile
80
What will Procedure Altitude never be lower than?
- Segment obstacle clearance altitude
81
Def: Regular Air Transport Passenger Service
- four or more ATO carrying passengers between two or more aerodromes within any 28 consecutive day period
82
RNP Performance percentage?
- 95%
83
Def: RVR
- pilot visibility on a centreline can see runway surface markings or lights delineating the runway or identifying its centreline.
84
Def: Serious Incident
- A incident where an accident nearly occurred
85
Def: Segment OCA
- An altitude that provides required obstacle clearance for a given segment of approach. Creates a do not descend below altitude by the procedure designer
86
Does def of student pilot exclude microlights, hang glider, powered glider or balloon?
- Yes
87
Def: TODA
- Takeoff run plus any clearway
88
Def: Take Off Run Available
- length declared by aerodrome operator available and suitable for ground run of an aeroplane taking off
89
When take off weight measured?
- Commencement of take off run
90
Def: Threshold
- Point at which 1:20 obstacle free approach surface intersects the runway
91
What QNH does transition level go to FL160? Where else is it FL160?
- QNH980
| - 20nm Mount Cook
92
Def: 'Type' in relation to an aeroplane
- all aircraft of same basic design, mods, etc except mods which result in significant change in handling of flight characteristics
93
Def: 'Type' in relation to an aircraft/engines/propellors
- all similar in design
94
Def: unlawful Interference
- act or attempted act endangering a passenger, crew, ground pers, aircraft or facility
95
Def: Validation permit
- permit issued under 61.7 and 61.9 and section 9 of Act to a foreign pilot to exercise that licence privelage
96
In the definition of visibility what is the different requirement between day vs night
- Unlit objects during day, lit during night
97
Def: ZFT Simulator
- Either Level 5 (NZCAA), Level D/phase II (FAA), or equivalent standard accepted by the Director.
