Instrument Departures and Approaches Flashcards
(68 cards)
1
Q
if IFR departure minima not prescribed on chart what is minima for take off?
A
- 300ft 1500m vis
2
Q
Reduced take off minima?
A
- zero cloud 800m vis
3
Q
What must have to conduct reduced minima take off? (5)
A
- centre line marking or lighting
- take off visibility is confirmed by the pilot by observing runway centre line marking or lighting
- reduced take off minima on runway to be used are published in applicable AIP
- any obstacles in take off flight path are taken into account
- if aircraft two engine propellor, then equipeed with operative auto feather or auto coarse system
4
Q
Min height for turn after departure?
A
- 400ft
5
Q
Climb on what before min turn at 400ft?
A
- runway centreline
6
Q
Unless specified, SID climb gradient = ?
A
- 3.3% or 200ft/nm
7
Q
When do SIDS terminate?
A
- When aircraft is on cleared route
8
Q
If given a departure instruction containing an initial altitude restriction under radar when can an amended clearance be expected to be received?
A
- when clear of conflicting traffic
9
Q
When need to make departure calls at an unattended aerodrome? (2)
A
- When about to taxi to the take off position
- Immediately before takeoff, with direction of flight if leaving the circuit
10
Q
When can a visual departure be made? (2)
A
- day only
- due regard prevailing met conditions
11
Q
What height need to climb to visually when doing visual departure?
A
- Route MSA; or
- specified upper limit or set heading point or altitude
12
Q
When no published departure and flying the other departure options as listed in AIP, what can pilot do for departure?
A
- Ensure aircraft is adequate to provide terrain clearance to reaching MSA
13
Q
Max speed in enroute holding pattern?
A
- 280kts
14
Q
Max hold speed 14000ft and below? (turb + non turb)
A
- 230kt (unless followed by initial segment of IAP and calls for higher)
170kt CAT A/B
Turb conditions -280 (170 Cat A+B)
15
Q
Max hold speed 14000-20000ft and below? (turb + non turb)
A
- 240
- Lesser 280/0.8 (turb)
16
Q
Max hold speed 20000-34000ft and below? (turb + non turb)
A
- 265
- Lesser 280/0.8 (turb)
17
Q
Max hold speed Above 34000ft and below? (turb + non turb)
A
- 0.83
- 0.83 (turb)
18
Q
What flexibility either side of a hold pattern entry?
A
- 5 deg
19
Q
Names of each sector for a hold
A
- 1 = Parallel
- 2 = Offset
- 3 = Direct
20
Q
What time outbound for hold entry? (2)
A
- 1min below 14k
- 1m30sec above 14k
21
Q
When will an expected approach time be given if an aircraft is instructed to hold at an initial approach fix?
A
- if delay will exceed 5min
22
Q
Holding pattern pattern AoB?
A
- 25DEG OR 3DEG PER SECOND, WHICHEVER REQUIRES LESSER BANK
23
Q
If within 10nm of aid or fix which is intended to conduct an IAP what can you descend to? (3)
A
higher of
- min holding altitude
- procedure commencement altitude
- MSA
24
Q
If outside controlled airspace what must comply with when descending IFR below MFA?
A
- IFR table of crusing levels.
25
What optimum descent gradient needs when descending below MFA?
- 5% 300tt/nm to the first distance or VORSEC step
26
What counts as a positive fix when descending below MFA prior to first distance or VORSEC step?
- unambiguous readout for at least 15sec or use of off track VOR or NDB provided intersect angle is 45 or greater
27
Does a STAR clearance include a clearance for the approach?
- No
28
Does a level requirement depicted on a STAR authorise a pilot to meet that requirement?
- No, ATC will assign descent to permit compliance with vertical navigation requirements or advise otherwise.
29
What derives the minimum initial approach altitude? (2)
- min procedure commencement altitude shown on instrument approach chart
- MSA for the route sector
30
What can be used to determine the MSA used for minimum initial approach altitude? (4)
- MSA for the route including distance steps
- VORSEC charts
- 25nm sector altitude
- TAA for GNSS
31
Can VFR aircraft flying an approach commence from a height lower than the minimum initial approach altitude?
- Yes
32
Do LNAV/VNAV approaches use MDA or DA?
- DA
33
Can you land an aircraft if the flight visibility is less than that prescribed in the applicable AIP?
- No
34
If within _____ deg you can go straight outbound when commencing an approach from the overhead?
- 30deg
35
Can be cleared for an approach with a descent restriction (due to separation with aerodrome vicinity traffic), provided what? (3)
- reported/known cloud base at least 1000ft above the restriction
- vis >= 8km
- reason for restriction is passed to pilot
36
When can get visual approach (4)
- request it
- maintain visual ref to terrain
- reporting ceiling not below initial approach level for aircraft
- pilot reports at initial approach level or any time during approach that conditions will permit and reasonable assurance that landing can be accomplished
37
What must pilots have in sight at night to request visual approach?
- runway lights
38
When will ATC advise of visual approach on ATIS? (incl CH)
- day only, 16km, ceiling at least 1000ft above min radar vectoring or applicable IAP commencement altitude
- CH 11/29 night 16km 5000ft
39
What need for visual approach uncontrolled aerodrome?
- maintain visual ref to terrain
- ceiling not below initial approach level for aircraft
- pilot has reasonable assurance at initial approach level or any time during approach that met conditions will permit visual approach and landing to be accomplished.
40
Do normal separation apply when IFR aircraft on visual approach?
- Yes
41
Aircraft category Vat speed ranges? (5)
- A = less than 91
- B = 91- less than 121
- C = 121- less than 141
- D = 141- less than 166
- E = 166- less than 211
42
Cat B Initial Appch/final/circling/MAP
- Initial = 120-180 (140 reversal)
- Final = 85-130
- Circling = 135
- MAP = 150
43
Cat C Initial Appch/final/circling/MAP
- Initial = 160-240
- Final = 115-160
- Circling = 180
- MAP = 240
44
Do not continue instrument approach at unattended aerodrome unless pilot sure of?
- integration with traffic circuit operating with visibilities down to 1500m
45
If traffic conflict with circuit traffic when conducting IAP unattended what must limit descent to?
- 1200ft above aerodrome elevation
46
If flying a non-DME IAP at unattended aerodrome when should you descend to MDA inbound?
- as soon as possible after base turn to help integrate with traffic as VFR aircraft may be operating up to cloud base
47
When flying an IAP at an uncontrolled aerodrome and have become visual and proceeding visual what rules then apply?
- visual flight rules
48
Remote QNH calc?
- 5ft for every 1nm past 5nm
49
Can remote QNH be used for Baro-VNAV/ or LNAV/VNAV?
- No
50
What things must be visible to descend below MDA/DA? (9) (all or)
- ALS
- threshold markings
- threshold lights
- REIL
- VASI
- touchdown zone or zone markings
- touchdown zone lights
- runway or runway markings
- runway lights
51
When must do MAP when circling?
- When any identifiable part of aerodrome not distinctly visible
52
If MAP commenced prior to MAP point what must pilot do?
- Fly to/over the MAP pt then follow MAP
53
If a MAP requires a minimum altitude before turning can ATC (in controlled airspace), direct aircraft to climb to a higher altitude on same track?
- yes
54
Min bank angle for MAP?
- 15deg
55
Can ATC ask aircraft to climb at max rate during MAP to ensure separation from traffic?
- Yes
56
What terrain clearance does MAP offer?
- 98ft at 2.5% (150ft/nm)
57
If NAVAID failure during IAP before visual reference when can you continue using a suitable alternative aid or procedure? (2)
- prevailing met conditions suitable for alternative approach
- in controlled airspace, position and intentions advised to ATC
58
When, in controlled airspace, can ATC terminate the missed approach and instruct an aircraft to fly a procedure other than the MAP? (2)
- when under radar control and is at or above min radar terrain contour level
- when aircraft has reached minimum missed approach holding altitude.
59
When can ATC protect the MAP by getting aircraft to circle?
- day or night
- weather above circling minima (for Cat of aircraft)
- not to Cat D
- Cat C must have 2000ft 8km
- WN by night, only to Cat A and B
60
When will circling not be used by ATC for a MAP?
- met conditions are such there may be doubt aircraft can do it
- pilot unfamiliar
- when pilot advises approach control on first contact they dont want to
61
If oceanic comm failure how long hold last assigned speed/level?
- 60min
62
How long hold radar vectors following comm failure?
- 2min
63
What will ATC aircraft will climb to in comm failure?
- flight planned or last level assigned and acknowledged by ATC
64
If given a level restriction how long hold it for before climbing to flight plan specified level in event comms failure?
- 5min
65
If on radar vectors on arrival with comm failure what do?
- hold vector for 2 min, if on initial or intermediate approach maintain last level and intercept final approach track. If outside initial/intermediate then climb to MSA and proceed to aid/fix
66
Can a second attempt at approach and landing at an airport be made with comms failure?
- yes within 30min of expected approach time or ETA
67
What does 'Cancel Speed Restriction" only refer to?
- Speed restrictions on a SID or STAR, not other published speed restrictions.
68
What hold entry must be used off an Arc?
- 1 or 3
