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Flashcards in General Operating and Flight Rules Deck (94):
1

PIC can disembark or refuse the carriage of? (2)

- person under influence of drug or alcohol where carriage is likely to endanger aircraft or its occupants
- a person on any part of cargo which in the opinion of the PIC is likely to endanger the aircraft or its occupants

2

How long must daily flight records be kept by an operator?

12 months

3

Who doesn't need to complete the full set of daily flight records?

Air operators of small aeroplanes or helicopters

4

Does the departure aerodrome need to be captured in a daily flight record?

Yes

5

What minimum number of passengers before a flight attendant is carried?

19

6

Flight attendant requirements for more than 19 pax for PART 91? (3)

More than 19- less than 51 = at least 1
More than 50 - Less than 101 = at least 2
More than 100 = at least two plus one for every 50 in addition to first 100

7

Flight attendant not required when? (4)

- parachute ops
- balloon
- DHC6-300/310
- only pax more than 19 are children under 4 yrs old but less than 24

8

Can't operate in simulated IFR unless? (3)

- aircraft has two pilot stations and one occupied by a safety pilot who is holder of current pilot licence
- safety pilot has
a) adequate forward vision to each die of aircraft; or
b) a competent observer to supplement the vision of the safety pilot
- aircraft has
a) fully functioning dual controls; or
b) pitch/roll/yaw/engine power can be operated from either pilot station

9

If not equipped with dual controls how may an aircraft be operated under simulated IF? (2)

- outside controlled airspace
- means of simulating IF can be rapidly removed by PIC

10

Before taking an aircraft for flight the PIC must ensure what? (3)

- aircraft in airworthy condition and in condition for safe flight after
a) documents inspected
b) aircraft inspected

11

Firing flight PIC must ensure?

Safe operation of aircraft and safety of occupants

12

What must the PIC record in a technical log after any pre flight inspection or on completion of flight?

- any defect identified by crew during inspections or during flight

13

Each crew member for take off and landing must be at ___________ with their ____________ unless __________?

- crew member station
- seat belt fastened
- their absence is necessary to perform their duties

14

Each crew member during take off and landing must have their ____________ fastened unless _________ or ____________?

- shoulder harness
- not fitted
- or unable to perform their duties with shoulder harness fastened

15

Passengers must wear seat restraints when? (5)

- takeoff and landing
- less than 1000ft AGL
- when PIC considers it necessary for safety
- aerobatics
- open cockpit

16

PIC may approve a passenger to unfasten shoulder harness or single diagonal belt when?

- during take off and landing and when less than 1000ft AGL if action necessary to perform essential function

17

Do seats need to be in takeoff or landing configuration for such times?

Yes

18

How can a child under 4 be restrained? (2)

- held by an adult and secured by safety belt attached to adults one
- occupies seat with child restraint system and is accompanied by parent/guardian or designated attendant to attend to safety of child during flight

19

General requirement (altitude and time) for crew and passenger oxygen for un-pressurized aircraft? (2) and when type of oxygen is needed? (2)

- Above 13000ft
- 10000ft to 13000ft for >30min
- Supplementary for each crew member and passenger
- Portable oxygen with regulator and attached mask for crew member requiring movement from their usual station

20

General requirement (altitude) for crew and passenger oxygen for pressurized aircraft? (2)

- Above 10000ft cabin altitude
- Supplementary for each crew member and passenger
- Portable oxygen with regulator and attached mask for crew member requiring movement from their usual station

21

Higher FL oxy requirement for pressurized aircraft?

- FL350-FL410 either one pilot wearing mask that supplies supplemental oxy at all time or automatically if cabin alt above 13000ft, OR two pilots each with access within 5 sec

22

Above what FL does one pilot always need to be on?

- FL410

23

After pressurisation failure passengers must be on oxy above _______ unless aircraft can descend below ______ ft within _____ min?

14000ft, 14000ft, 4 min

24

Above what FL does the an actual demonstration of the use of supplemental oxy need to be delivered?

- FL250

25

If life preservers must be carried under Part 91 must a demonstration on them be done?

- Yes

26

When may a briefing not be required?

- If the PIC deems that all passengers are familiar with the contents of the briefing

27

Where must passenger briefing cards be located?

- Convenient locations

28

Do pax briefing cards must contain information only pertinent to the type and model of aircraft?

- Yes

29

What operating limitations and emergency equipment must each pilot be familiar with before each flight? (5)

- AFM
- Placards, markings containing any limitation
- Aircraft emergency equipment
- Which crew member is assigned to emergency equipment
- Procedures to use emergency equipment

30

What aeronautical pubs must be carried?

- Appropriate aeronautical charts
- For IFR ops, every appropriate navigational en-route, terminal area, approach and instrument approach and departure chart

31

When can a left hand circuit not be flown?

- ATC authorised/instructed
- If published IFR procedure defines a right hand turn and takeoff/landing is being performed IAW that procedure

32

If published as right hand, when can a left hand circuit be flown?

- ATC authorised/instructed
- If published IFR procedure defines a right hand turn and takeoff/landing is being performed IAW that procedure

33

Do you have to comply with circuit direction at an aviation event?

no

34

When can an Ag aircraft make turns in any direction at an aerodrome? (3)

- No aerodrome control service
- 'A' ground signal next to runway
- No conflict with other aerodrome traffic

35

Standard overhead joining height?

- 1500ft above aerodrome elevation or 500ft above published circuit height

36

When should standard overhead join be done? (2)

- Unattended
- Unfamiliar or uncertain

37

Purpose of standard overhead join? (2)

- Establish runway in use
- Position of traffic to sequence safely

38

If overhead in a standard overhead join and cant establish runway in use what do next?

- Continue wings level to a point 2nm and turn left back to aerodrome

39

An aircraft that has right of way shall _________, but shall not relieve from responsibility of ________ .

- heading and speed
- taking avoidance action including TCAS that will best avert collision

40

If head on which way shall both turn?

- to the right

41

Overtaking aircraft is within _____ deg from behind and shall alter heading to the ______ .

- 70deg
- Right

42

If two aircraft converging who gives way? (except)

- Aircraft that has the converging aircraft on its right
- Except hierarchy of aircraft types (airhsip give way to gliders etc)

43

All aircraft in flight or on ground must give way to?

- any aircraft on final approach to land or is landing

44

When two heavier than air approaching to land who ha s right of way? (except)

- Lower altitude
- Except lower altitude can't use this rule to fly under and get ahead of someone to land first

45

Must not take off if there is an apparent _____ ?

Risk of collision with another aircraft

46

Taxiing right of way rules for any aircraft on ground, head on, and converging? (3)

- give way to landing, taking off, or about to take off
- stop, or alter course to right
- give way to aircraft on right

47

What aircraft lights are needed for night? (2)

- Aircraft position lights
- Anti col if required by subpart F

48

Aircraft being used for aircraft operations must not park or move an aircraft on a maneuvering area at night unless (3)

- aircraft clearly illuminated
- has lighted position lights
- is in an area that is marked by obstruction lights

49

Can anti-col be turned off at night?

- Yes, if in best interest of safety

50

No person shall enter or remain in any security area unless that person? (2)

- Wears an identity card on front of garment?
- Has in their possession another identity document for the time being authorised

51

Can name on identity card be deleted?

- Yes if Director approved and name should not be disclosed

52

Can someone use their identity card to enter an area when not needed for their duties?

No

53

When does security id not need showing? (4)

- overseas crew
- NZ Gov who remains incognito
- Escorted pax with boarding pass
- PIC of private aeroplane with valid pilot licence or being escorted by pilot

54

What flights is smoking prohibited?

- carrying pax for hire or reward on any internal flight

55

Difference between refueling Class3.1A, 3.1C and 3.1D?

- 3.1A - no embarking/disembarking + no engines running
3.1C & 3.1D - no embarking/disembarking

56

What PEDs are banned for all IFR?

- Any PED or cellphone designed to transmit electromagnetic energy

57

When are PEDs banned for specific IFR phases of flight?

- All PEDS (other than hearing aids etc), must not be operated during instrument approach or departure or critical phase of flight unless operator has determined that the PED will not cause interference with any system or equipment

58

Who can make a determination that a PED is OK for critical phases of flight?

- Either operator for air transport operations or PIC or operator for all other times

59

Generally, what are the rules re firearms? (3)

- No one can carry one on
- No one can cause one to be carried on
- No one can permit one to be carried on

60

Firearm may be carried if? (4)

- Stowed so inaccessible to everyone and disabled
- aircraft used solely for carriage of person(s) associated with firearm and operator permits and firearm disabled
- aircraft carrying livestock and operator considers necessary to immobilise livestock for safety
- aircraft being used for purpose of shooting or immobilising animals on ground and firearm not loaded until within area and only carrying persons on essential fucntion

61

Firearms can be discharged for immobilisng animals on the ground if? (2)

- No hazard to persons or property on the ground
- not discharged over congested area of city, town or settlement or assembly of persons

62

A firearm may be carried by police, law enforcement or military on a air transport or commercial transport operation carrying fare paying passengers if? (4)

- lawfully entitled to carry firearm
- carrying in course of their duties
- has been approved by operator and Director
- Complies with restrictions imposed by Director

63

Applications to Director for carriage of firearms on flights with fare paying passengers must be made with at least _____ working day?

- 1

64

Before commencement of air operation where a firearm will be carried the operator must inform PIC of what?

- Number of persons carrying firearm and their position in aircraft

65

All passenger carry-on baggage must be stowed where before take off and landing? (2)

- in a baggage locker
- under a passenger seat in such a way it cant slide forward under crash impact or hinder evacuation

66

Operator must not permit cargo to be carried unless? (3)

- carried on a seat/rack/bin/compartment
- properly secured with enough strength does not shift under normal anticipated flight conditions
- packed/covered to avoid pax injury

67

Operator must not permit cargo to exceed?

- Load limit for seats/berths or floor structures
- put in a position that restricts access or use of required emergency exit or use of aisle between crew and pax compartments

68

Operating near other aircraft restrictions? (3)

- So close as as to create collision hazard
- in formation flight except by prior arrangement with PIC of other aircraft
- other than parachuting op, in formation while carrying hire/reward

69

Restriction on dropping of articles from flight?

- No, unless all reasonable precautions to ensure dropping does not endanger persons or property

70

When can VFR go above 250Kts below 10K? (2)

- If min safe speed is more than 250kts and aircraft is operated at min safety speed
- aviation event

71

Min height VFR over built up area?

- 1000ft (600m horizontal radius)

72

Min height VFR over non-built up area?

- 500ft (150m horizontal radius)

73

At all times min height for VFR?

- height less than necessary to execute emergency landing in event of engine failure without hazards to persons or property on the surface

74

Can go lower than 500ft non-built up areas?

- Yes, if bona fide purpose is to fly lower, but without hazard to person/property, not lower than necessary, and remains outside 150m horizontal radius from everything.

75

Can EFATO or simulated engine failure let you go below 500ft?

- Yes EFATO
- Yes simulated engine failure below 500ft but only in designated low flying area

76

VFR restriction on operating in snow and ice conditions?

- No PIC shall take off under VFR if an aircraft has snow, ice, or frost adhering to wings, stabilisers, or control surfaces

77

IFR aircraft must not take off with ice where? (3)

- wings, stabilisers, or control surfaces (VFR)
- propellor, windscreen, powerplant installation, or ASI, altimeter, ROC, or flight attitude system
- fly into any known areas of icing unless aircraft is certified with ice protection equipment in type of known icing conditions

78

IFR can take off with ice adhering to if?

- if snow, ice, frost is IAW flight manual or manufacturer for such conditions

79

Can take off if known icing conditions will not be encountered based on weather reports and briefing information?

- Yes

80

No person may operate an aircraft to/from an aerodrome within NZ unless it meets what for noise and emissions standards? (2)

- For NZ registered aircraft Appendix C to Part 21
- For foreign aircraft ICAO Annex 16 Vol II

81

Max speed unless approved by Director?

- Mach 0.92

82

If operating in excess of 0.92 what must ensure prior to doing so?

- No sonic boom reaches surface of NZ

83

Can Police carry DAC without complying with Part 92?

- Yes, provided flight is for sole Police purpose

84

When is DAC exempt to Part 92 when carried for recreational purposes?

- unpressurised
- less than 5700kg
- domestic VFR flight
- Not listed as DAC in Technical Instructions as being forbidden
- Safety & Emergency procedures established
- Each DAC item identified
- PIC is informed
- Proper condition, segregated, stowed securely
- Only PAX carried are associated with the DAC

85

Can persons carry DAC in checked, carry on, or in person?

- No, unless permitted by technical instructions.

86

If a person offers non DAC for carriage by air what must they do? (2)

- Provide operator with signed document stating not DAC and accurately describes what it is

87

What must be provided to PIC re DAC?

- Written confirmation concerning those goods IAW the Technical Instructions

88

Where/how should DAC information for PIC be kept? (2)

- Readily available during flight
- Presented on a dedicated form

89

Does the operator need to provide the PIC information on DAC emergency response prior to flight?

- Yes

90

Do those involved with DAC duties need to have completed a DAC training programme?

Yes

91

Who can provide DAC training programme? (3)

- Either the Part 119 holder if authorised to also conduct DAC training,
- or an Part 145 training provider.
- Or an IATA DAC training programme certificate of accreditation

92

Can an overseas ground handling agent offload DAC? (3)

- yes, if they are being supervised by someone trained to our regs, trained to equivalent foreign state, or if trained by IATA approved/accredited

93

Offloading DAC in NZ by foreign pers?

- Yes, if approved/trained by their state

94

DAC recurrent training timeline requirement?

- 2 years