Airspace and Aerodromes Flashcards
(143 cards)
1
Q
Generally what altimeter must be set if in Auckland Oceanic (outside of Raro, Samoa and Norfolk QNH Zones?
A
- 1013.2
2
Q
When should non-QNH aerodromes within NZZO change between 1013.2 and appropriate aerodrome QNH value?
A
- Within 10nm and below 3000ft
3
Q
What altimeter setting in between 13000ft and FL150 in the NZZC?
A
- area QNH as advised by ATC
4
Q
Min FL when QNH below 980?
A
- FL160
5
Q
How set altimeter if departing an aerodrome with no QNH?
A
- Set aerodrome elevation on the altimeter and obtain appropriate setting as soon as possible and in any case before entering IMC
6
Q
Can you set on QNH from aerodrome elevation before entering IMC?
A
- No
7
Q
How many QNH zones in NZFIR?
A
-12
8
Q
Below what latitude do you need to use grid track, not mag track, to determine IFR crusing levels?
A
- 60deg South
9
Q
When can 14000ft non standard be issued by ATC?
A
- emergency or hazardous weather
10
Q
Outside controlled airspace when can operate in transition layer?
A
- if unable to operate at any other layer, established no conflict, given prior notification to ATS unit
11
Q
Lowest odd/even FL/Altitude available IFR in NZZO and NZZC?
A
- FL30/3000ft and FL40/4000ft
12
Q
Can you use oceanic cruising levels in NZZC?
A
- yes, if international flights leaving or transiting NZFIR
13
Q
What mode must transponder be on in mandatory airspace?
A
- A and C, or Mode S
14
Q
Who assigns Mode S code?
A
state of registry
15
Q
Do you need specific approval to operate in TM airspace without an operable one? Who from?
A
- Yes
- The ATC unit who has jurisdiction of that airspace
16
Q
How man aircraft need to have transponder on in formation?
A
Only 1
17
Q
How many times must ATC verify altitude from a transponder before they can use it for separation purposes?
A
- Once
18
Q
What SSR code to be set if IFR (including Oceanic) but not assigned a code by ATC yet?
A
- 2000
19
Q
What difference between reported altitude and coded altitude will ATC ask pilot to check altimeter setting? If in error what will ATC ask them to do?
A
- 200ft
- Turn off mode C
20
Q
If a transponder fails what will ATC let the aircraft do? (partial and complete failures)
A
- Partial = allow to continue with minimum restriction to final destination and thereafter to repair base
- Complete = some restrictions to destination. not allowed to continue until repaired. May get special approval to go to repair base (restricted to periods of low density and alternate routes).
21
Q
Is IFR separated from VFR in class D?
A
- No
22
Q
Is IFR separated from SVFR in class D?
A
- Yes
23
Q
Any speed limits IFR class D?
A
- Yes
24
Q
What must upper limit of a control zone be matched to?
A
- A VFR cruising level
25
What must control zone be as small as practical to accommodate?
- Protecting the flight paths of IFR arriving and departing flights
26
When may director designate a control zone? (2)
- determines an aerodrome control service or approach control service is required
- traffic density and pattern requires controlled airspace
27
How far out in direction of instrument approaches must a control zone go?
- At least 5nm
28
What must a CTRconsider with regard to aircraft when determining the lateral limits?
- The category of IFR aircraft
29
Should lateral limits of CTR use prominent geographical features in its design?
- Yes
30
Upper limit of a CTA?
- FL660
31
Lower limit of CTA must? (3)
- be at least 500ft below the flight paths of IFR flights that director determines to require an air traffic control service
- established at highest practical altitude
- not less than 700ft above the earth
32
When lower level of CTA is higher than 3000ft what must in coincide with?
- A VFR cruising level
33
IF one airspace is above another must the lower one be extended upwards to meet the bottom of the other one?
- Yes
34
When may director specify a CTA? (3)
- A terminal area where approach control service required at confluence of ATS routes
- Upper area if determines an area control service is required
- Oceanic, if an area control service is required
35
Purpose of VFR transit lane? (2)
- Separate VFR from departing/arriving IFR
| - Permit transiting VFR to operate without ATC clearance
36
Must VFR transit lane be clear of IFR airspace that encompasses IFR arrival/departure procedures?
- Yes
37
Must VFR transit lane have buffer zones for IFR arrival/departure procedures?
- Yes
38
What class airspace is VFR transit lane?
- G
39
When can VFR transit lane be active?
- Day only
40
What letter identifies a VFR transit lane?
- T
41
Do VFR need clearance to operate in GAA?
- No
42
When can GAA be activated? (3)
- Permanently during the day; or
- by approval of ATC unit; or
- by prior notification from an airspace user to the ATC unit responsible for the airspace
43
What class airspace is GAA?
- G
44
If the GAA is made active by the ATC unit can pilot still occupy it without approval?
- Need ATC approval and need to leave when asked
45
Do you need to follow VFR cruising levels in GAA?
- No
46
Should you make entry and exit reports and maintain listenout when using a GAA?
- Yes
47
What SSR code should be used for VFR using a GAA?
- 1400
48
'ATS Notification' GAAs may require ____ min delay to vacate IFR aircraft using that airspace.
- 10min
49
Purpose of visual reporting points? (2)
- facilitate ATS requirements for information regarding progress of aircraft, or
- facilitate safe conduct of flight by visual reference
50
Director must ensure visual reporting points are based on prominent geographical features and are identified by names or identifiers that? (3)
- recognisable
- not confused with other points in same area
- don't create confusion
51
When ATC goes off watch and a remote ATS unit is provided for communications, what level of service will they provide?
- FIS only
52
What must administering authority of a restricted area must manage? (3)
- Entry of aircraft
- Operation of aircraft within
- Exit of aircraft
53
Can director impose conditions under which aircraft may operate in restricted area?
- yes
54
If restricted area activated by NOTAM what min period must be given to activate? unless?
- 24hrs
| - Emergency
55
Pilot may not use restricted area unless? (3)
- Has approval of administering authority
- complies with promulgated conditions
- complies with and conditions imposed by administering authority
56
Are non-NZ registered aircraft subject to entry control into MOA?
- No, but should comply in interests of aviation safety
57
Letter identifying a MBZ?
- B
58
When must broadcast position and intentions in MBZ? (4)
- entry
- joining aerodrome traffic circuit
- prior to entering runway
- regular specified intervals
59
What must be done for extra safety measures in MBZ?
- landing lights or anti col used when fitted
60
Can NORDO use MBZ?
- Yes, only if another station such as ATS or another aircraft does required broadcasts and complies with lights/anti col if fitted
61
Do aircraft in formation need to make all the MBZ broadcasts?
- Only the lead aircraft
62
Volcanic zone letter?
- V
63
Must not operate in a VHZ when? (2)
- night
| - IMC
64
Can operate in VHZ by day VMC if after considering all of the following will not affect safety? (3)
- relevant met information contained in NOTAM
- SIGMET info
- other info provided for this purpose by part 174 organisation
65
ATC will not clear an aircraft to operate on any route or procedure that infringes a VHZ unless?
- specifically requested by pilot during daylight hours
66
Will ATC separate from an ash cloud as determined by a SIGMET or reported by pilots?
- No, responsibility of pilot to evaluate and adjust route accordingly
67
VHZ alert level radius from vent and upper limit?
```
1/3nm/###
2/8nm/FL150
3/16nm/FL330
4/27nm/FL480
5/50nm/FL660
```
68
Can a pilot operate in a danger area?
- Yes, if they determine that the activity associated with the danger will not affect the safety of the aircraft
69
Are CFZ's mandatory?
- No, advisory in nature
70
What/when should pilots transmit in CFZ?
- Position/Altitude/Intentions relevant to prominent reporting points or features at entry, or at other times for traffic safety
71
How are temporary hazards notified? (2)
Notam or SUP
72
Hi high can kites/kytoons fly away from an active movement area of an aerodrome without advice outside controlled airspace?
- 400ft
73
For RNP ops do you need to carry RNP ops manual?
- Yip
74
For RNP ops each crew member must have adequate knowledge and familiarity with? (3)
- the aircraft
- aircraft navigation system
- procedures to be used, including contingency procedures
75
Must PIC ensure for RNP ops that aircraft and nav systems are both approved and RNP performance can be met for planned route?
- Yes
76
Letters in flight plan for approved RNP and GNSS? (2)
- R & G
77
What must operator of an aircraft have at their principal base and available for inspection for RNP ops?
- the current RNP ops procedure manual
78
Each RNP procedure manual shall contain? (5)
- Name of operator
- registration/make/model of aircraft
- type/manufacturer/model of nav system
- maintenance program (test and inspection, and recording discontinued RNP operations because of malfunction)
- Procedures
79
Should RNP procedures include in flight drills that include cross checking to catch deviations before inadvertent deviation from ATC cleared routes?
- mitigation of large scale errors due to malfuncntion
| -
80
How many independent LRNS must be serviceable and accurate prior to entering RNP airspace? Unless? When must they be serviceable by? (2)
- two, unless authorised by ATC
| - 30 min prior to entry and upon entry
81
if within RNO airsapce or within 30min of entry what must do if aircraft cannot meet RNP or down to single LRNS?
- Notify ATC
82
Operators wishing to access 30/30 separation minima must annotate what in their flight plan? (10. Equipment, 10. Surveillance, and 18.)
- J, R, and Z
- D in surveillance
- NAV/RNP4
83
RNP 10 and RNP4 lateral separation?
- RNP10 = 50nm
| - RNP4 = 30nm
84
No one can use a place as an aerodrome unless that place is?
- Suitable for the purposes of taking off or landing of the aircraft concerned
85
Must you comply with any limitations and operational conditions on the use of a aerodrome notified by the operator?
- Yes
86
Use or runway/water channel for take off or landing at night must lights be activated if installed?
- yes
87
What must runway be clear of during take off or landing? Unless?
- persons, animals, vehicles, vessels, or other obstructions unless persons, vessels, or vehicles essential to the operation
88
No pilot may operate in aerodrome traffic circuit unless aircraft can be manouevred? (2)
- clear of obstructions
| - without conflicting aerodrome traffic circuit
89
Define movement area?
- part of aerdrome intended for take off and landing and surface movement of aircraft, includes maneuvering area, maintenance areas, and aprons.
90
'A' aerodrome signal?
- Ag ops (including training). May not be conforming to circuit direction. Unattended or FIS aerodrome only
91
White dashed arrow?
- Glider ops, in direction of take off, tow lines like on ground
92
White cross on runway extremities?
- Runway unfit for use
93
White crosses on maneuvering area?
- Ground on which they are displayed is unfit for use
94
Colour of mandatory signs? Need what before proceeding?
- White letter on red background
| - ATC clearance to proceed
95
Two types of information signs?
- Location (black background)
| - Direction (yellow background
96
Where are intersection take off signs located (Inset Takeoff position)? What do they display?
- Opposite an intermediate taxiway
| - Takeoff run available from that point
97
Is a displaced landing threshold also a displaced take off threshold?
- No
98
What height should aircraft fly across the threshold markings?
- 50ft AGL
99
What do the aiming point markers on a runway look like and what are they abeam?
- Two large rectangular stripes
| - Abeam PAPI to desired indicate touchdown location
100
What do fixed distance markers look like and what are they for?
- Two large rectangular blocks 300m from threshold each block made up of thin stripes
- Should touch down here if crossing threshold at 50ft
101
Touchdown zone markers are where and what for?
- on runways with instrument approaches and several pairs of rectangular blocks at 150m intervals from threshold to reference pilots their progress to the fixed distance markers
102
Which hold point position marking is closer to the runway, type A or type?
- A
103
How is highest elevation on aerodrome chart depicted?
- An arrow
104
Runway edge lighting (REDL) should be provided when? (3)
- Runway intended to be used at night
- A precision approach runway intended to be used by day or night
- For a runway intended for take off with an operating minima below RVR of 800m by day
105
How far should REDL be maximum apart?
- 60m (100m for non instrument runway)
106
When do REDL go yellow?
- 600m or one third of runway left (whichever is less)
107
3 types of light intensity?
- Low, medium, high
108
On precision approach runways what lighting system is provided and how many stages of intensity control?
- High
| - 5
109
Number of intensity settings at non-precision runways?
- 2
110
What are runway threshold lights?
- Green lights extending across the runway threshold
111
RENL (Runway end lighting) are what colour? At least how many?
- red
| - at least 6 of them
112
When should runway centreline lighting be used? (4)
- Cat II or II runway
- Cat 1 particularly when aircraft high speeds or where width between REDL >50m
- runway used for take offs below RVR 400m
- runway used for take offs >400RVR if aircraft high speeds or REDL >50m apart
113
How far apart Cat III RCLL?
- 7.5 or 15m
114
How far apart Cat II RCLL?
- 7.5, 15m, or 30m
115
Max off centreline RCLL can be?
- 0.6m
116
Colours of RCLL?
- white to 900m to run
- red and white 900-300m to run
- red <300m to run
117
If RCLL spaced 7.5m then how are the red/white alternated between 900-300m?
- in pairs
118
How far does touchdown zone lights extend into the runway?
- 900m
119
Colour of REIL and do they flash?
- Yes, 60-120 flashes per min
120
4 types of approach lighting systems?
- Low intensity ALS (1 red bar)
- Low intensity ALS (2 red bar)
- High intensity (Cat I)
- High intensity (Cat II or III)
121
ALS may be augmented by what (3)
- RLLS - runway lead-in lights
- CGL - Circle guidance
- REIL
122
What ALS should be at a domestic precision approach CAT I? International Cat I?
- Low intensity ALS (2 bar) (domestic)
| - High intensity (CAT 1) (International)
123
When are circle guidance lights used?
- When existing approach and runway light systems don't permit ident of runway or appch area, to a circling aircraft. Or terrain and obstacles restrict circuiting area.
124
Where should CGL lights start?
- Downwind
125
What colour CGL? Flashing?
- Amber
| - Can be
126
When runway lead in lighting be used? Max distance apart?
- to provide visual guidance along a specified approach path for avoiding hazards such as terrain or noise or for take off.
- 1600m
127
When should lead in lights extend to?
- Until ALS or runway lights in view
128
How long PAL on when activated?
- 20min
129
How activate PAL?
- 5 transmissions in 3 sec
130
How change PAL intensity?
- Same as activation but after 10 sec warm up hold down last transmission (will cycle through intensity), release at desired level
131
How keep PAL going?
- Resets the 20min every time a transmission is made
132
Any warning when PAL goes off?
- No
133
How many lights on VASIS?
- eight - 2 pairs of two each side
134
On glideslope for VASIS?
- Top pairs (each side) red/ bottom pairs (each side) white
135
How many lights for T-VASIS?
- 20
136
On G/S for T-VASIS?
- wing bar white, all else off
137
Below and above slope for T-VASIS?
- Below = wing bar white, and 1, 2, or 3 fly up lights white. Or when well below wing bars and fly up lights red
- Above - wing bars white and 1,2 or 3 fly down lights white .
138
What side of runway should PAPA be?
Left
139
On glide slope for PAPI which side should red lights be?
- runway side
140
Frequency of white flashes for an aerodrome beacon?
- 12-30 per minute
141
When should an aerodrome beacon be provided?
- for an aerodrome intended to be used at night unless deemed unnecessary
142
What colour aerodrome identification beacon? How identification transmitted? Min angle up?
- Green
- Morse code
- Up min 45deg
143
When use aerodrome identification beacon?
- At aerodrome intended for use at night and cannot be easily identified from the air by other visual means.
