Antibiotics Part 1 Flashcards
1
Q
Are B-lactams bactericidal or bacteriostatic
A
bactericidal
2
Q
what are B-lactams synergistic with
A
aminoglycosides
3
Q
what are the B-lactam drugs
A
penicillins
cephalosporins
carbapenems
4
Q
what are the groups of penicillins
A
benzyl
isoxazolyl
extended spectrum
anti-pseudomonal
5
Q
low or high Vd for penicillins
A
low Vd
6
Q
how are penicillins eliminated from the body
A
urine elimination (kidney)
7
Q
what are the 2 types of benzyl penicillins
A
procaine
Na/K
8
Q
true or false:
penicillins are time dependent
A
true
9
Q
which group of penicillins are narrow spectrum (gram + and anaerobic)
A
benzyl penicillins
10
Q
which benzyl penicillin is not safe for IV
A
procaine
11
Q
what are some adverse effects of penicillins
A
disrupt normal intestinal flora
acute anaphylactic
hypersensitive reactions
12
Q
what are the isoxazolyl penicillin drugs
A
cloxacillin
dicloxacillin
oxacillin
13
Q
which drug is used to treat bovine staphylococcal mastitis
A
cloxacillin
14
Q
what are Isoxazolyl penicillins used to treat
A
S. aureus
S. pseudointermedius
Streptococcus
15
Q
what are the extended-spectrum penicillins
A
ampicillin
amoxicillin
16
Q
what species should not be given extended spectrum penicillins
A
rodents / rabbits
17
Q
which penicillin group has the broadest spectrum
A
extended spectrum penicillins
18
Q
which drug is in the anti-pseudomonal penicillins
A
ticarcillin
19
Q
what is ticarcillin used to treat
A
P. aeruginosa
20
Q
which group of cephalosporins has the lowest Vd
A
group 1
21
Q
which group of cephalosporins has the highest Vd
A
group 6 & 7
22
Q
what drug is in group 1 cephalosporins
A
cephazolin
23
Q
true or false:
cephalosporins are concentration dependent
A
false
cephalosporins are time dependent
24
Q
how should group 1 cephalosporins be administered for the best bioavailability
A
IM or SC
25
what are group 1 and group 2 cephalosporins mostly used to treat
canine S. intermedius (skin & UTI)
bovine S. aureus & streptococcal mastitis
26
what group of cephalosporins has a similar spectrum of activity to ampicillin and amoxicillin
group 1
27
do cephalosporins have high or low Vd
low Vd
28
in what cephalosporin group does cephalexin belong
group 2
29
in what species should group 2 cephalosporins not be given orally
horses or ruminants
30
how are cephalosporins eliminated
urinary / kidney
31
what is cefoxitin used to treat
infections caused by first gen drugs
32
what drug belongs in the group 3 cephalosporins
cefoxitin
33
which groups of cephalosporins are used to treat bacterial infections due to first gen drugs
group 3 & 4
34
what are the group 4 cephalosporin drugs
ceftiofur
cefotaxime
35
which groups of cephalosporins are absorbed well orally
group 2 & 5
36
what drugs should be used to treat infections caused by cephalosporin-resistant enterobacteriae
cabapenems
37
what group of cephalosporins are mainly used to treat anaerobic infections
group 5
38
what drug is in group 5 cephalosporins
cefpodoxime
39
true or false:
cefpodoxime is used to treat anaerobic infections but is painful IM and has a long-half life in dogs
true
40
which groups of cephalosporins are used to treat P. aeruginosa infections
group 6
41
true or false:
cefovecin can be used to treat P. aeruginosa
true
42
what is the group 7 cephalosporin
cefquinome
43
what is the main use of beta-lactamases and beta-lactam inhibitors
paired with extended spectrum penicillins to enhance the spectrum of their efficacy
44
which beta-lactamase drug is well absorbed orally
clavulanic acid
45
what is clavulanic acid combined with
amoxicillin
46
true or false:
sulbactam is absorbed orally well
false
47
what does sulbactam have activity against
H. somni
A. pyogenes
E. coli
48
what is cephalosporin is used to treat bovine respiratory disease
sulbactam
49
what is ampicillin combined with
sulbactam
50
what group are the last resort antibiotics
carbapenems
51
which group of beta lactams are used to systemically bind and inactivate endotoxins
polymyxins
52
what is the spectrum of polymyxins
gram - only
aerobes
53
what are the adverse effects of polymyxin E & B
nephrotoxic
54
what is the best route of administration for polymyxin E
oral
55
true or false:
polymyxins are concentration dependent
true
56
true or false:
polymyxin E & B are both concentration dependent
true
57
how are polymyxins removed from the system
urine / kidney
58
what type of drug is vancomysin
glycopeptide
59
what is the use of vancomysin
last resort for staphylococcus and enterococccal infections
60
what is the common bacterial infection treated with vancomysin
C. difficile
61
what is the spectrum of glycopeptides
gram +
aerobes
62
true or false:
glycopeptides are only concentration dependent
false
they are co-dependent killers using both time and concentration
63
which group of antibiotics can either be bacteriocidal or bacteriostatic depending on concentration
lincosamides
64
what is the Vd of lincosamides
high Vd
65
what is the spectrum of lincomycin / clindamycin
gram +
anaerobic bacteria
mycoplasma
intracellular
66
which lincosamide is used to prevent and treat dysentery in swine
lincomycin
67
what can lincosamides be used to treat
staphylococcal infections caused by penicillin G
68
which group of antibiotics is extremely toxic to rabbits, guinea pigs and hamsters
lincosamides
69
true or false:
lincomycin is safe for use in horses
false
both lincosamides cause fatal diarrhea in horses and lincomycin should never be given to horses
70
which lincosamide is synergistic with metronidazole and often combined with aminoglycosides and fluoroquinolones
clindamycin
71
what can clindamycin especially be used for
treatment of anaerobic infections
72
what type of drug is tiamulin
pleuromutulin
73
what is the Vd of tiamulin
large
74
is tiamulin bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal
bacteriostatic
75
which types of drugs are bacteriocidal
penicillins
cephalosporins
polymyxins
glycopeptides
76
what should pleuromutulins not be combined with
ionophores
77
what is the main use of tiamulin
swine for anaerobic bacteria and mycoplasma
78
what are some adverse effects of tiamulin
horses = enterocolitis
IV in cattle = neurotoxicity and death
79
true or false:
combining tiamulin with penicillins can be helpful to enhance the efficacy of the drug
false
pleuromutulins antagonize bactericidal agents
80
where is tiamulin metabolized
liver
81
how is tiamulin eliminated from the body
bile and milk
82
true or false:
at high concentrations, bacteriostatic macrolides can act bacteriocidal
true
83
what are the macrolide drugs
tylosin
tilmicosin
erythromycin
tulathromycin
gamithromycin
84
what is the Vd of macrolides
large Vd
85
where are macrolides excreted and metabolized
bile
86
what is the spectrum of macrolides
gram +
gram - cocci
mycoplasma
87
what macrolide is used to prevent or treat peritonitis after intestinal spillage
erythromycin
88
which macrolide can be combined with rifampin to treat R. equi
erythromycin
89
what are some adverse effects of macrolides
thrombophlebitis
periphelbitis
fatal diarrhea is adult horses
90
which macrolide is toxic to the cardiovascular system in swine when given IM
tilmicosin
91
what drugs have antagonistic effects when combined with macrolides
other macrolides
lincosamides
chloramphenicol
92
where are macrolidic drugs most effective
intracellular accumulation in phagocytes
93
true or false:
macrolides cause disturbance of resident flora in herbivores
true
94
what are the advance generation macrolides
azithromycin
clarithromycin
95
why are the 'advanced' macrolides stronger
higher oral availability
larger Vd
96
true or false:
advanced generation macrolides will kill everything
true
97
what is the main use of clarithromycin
mycobacterium avium
98
what is the general use of advanced generation macrolides for azithromycin and clarithromycin
prevent / treat peritonitis after intestinal spillage
99
what drug can advanced generation macrolides be used to replace in cases of Rickettsia and Coxiella
tetracyclines
100
what can azithromycin or clarithromycin replace in a treatment of leptospirosis
ampicillin
amoxycillin
101
which advanced generation macrolide is fetotoxic and should not be given to pregnant animals
clarithromycin
