Chapter 3 Flashcards

1
Q

what is defined as a low molecular weight substance produced by a microorganism that at low concentrations inhibits or kills other microorganisms

A

antibiotic

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2
Q

what includes any substance of natural, semisynthetic, or synthetic origin that kills or inhibits the growth of a microorganism but causes little or no damage to the host

A

antimicrobial

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3
Q

true or false:
there are no specific guidelines for dose adjustments on antibiotics

A

true

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4
Q

what are the practical uses of antibiotics

A

-right antibiotic
-right patient
-right dose
-right duration of action
-right route of administration
-monitor the patient throughly

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5
Q

what should be one of the most important considerations when you are choosing an antibiotic

A

if its effective against the bacteria

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6
Q

what type of antibacterial agent only inhibits gram + or gram -

A

narrow-spectrum

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7
Q

what type of antibacterial agent inhibits both gram + and gram -

A

broad-spectrum

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8
Q

true or false:
a pathogen’s susceptibility should be a main point when deciding on the selection of an antibiotic

A

true

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9
Q

what are some differences to consider when setting MIC measurements for drugs

A
  1. concentrations are fixed over time in incubation
  2. growth medium may differ physiologically
  3. testing doesn’t include host factors
  4. growth inhibition is the end point
  5. no info on persistent effects
  6. virulence factors
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10
Q

when designing treatments, what is considered the most important factors governing the selection for clinical veterinary use

A

Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing (AST)

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11
Q

what may AST results not always provide

A

accurate prediction of clinical outcome

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12
Q

when is there the most concern for AST

A

no animal species and infection-specific veterinary clinical breakpoints are available

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13
Q

what are the 3 parameters to assess a clinical breakpoint

A
  1. epidemiological cut-off value (ECOFF)
  2. MIC to define a PK/PD cut off
  3. clinical cut-off value
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14
Q

what does the epidemiological cut-off value mean

A

highest MIC for bacteria free of detectable aquired resistance mechanisms

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15
Q

what data is combined to result in clinical breakpoints

A

MIC values
PK/PD indices
clinical outcome results

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16
Q

what type of antibiotic kills bacteria

A

bactericidal

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17
Q

what type of antibiotic inhibits bacterial growth without killing them

A

bacteriostatic

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18
Q

what is the lowest concentration of an antimicrobial agent required to prevent the growth of the pathogen

A

minimum inhibitory concentration

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19
Q

what is the lowest concentration of an antimicrobial agent required to kill the pathogen

A

minimum bactericidal concentration

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20
Q

what are the most important drivers of drug efficacy

A

optimal dosing
pharmacokinetics
tissue penetration

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21
Q

at concentrations equal to the MIC of a pathogen, which drug acts bacteriostatic rather than as bactericidal

A

fluoroquinolones

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22
Q

which drug, normally bacteriostatic against most gram-negative bacteria, is bactericidal against Haemophilus influenzae and strep.

A

chlorampheniol

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23
Q

what can vary a drug’s bactericidal activites

A

intracellular pH
oxygen content
intracellular enzymatic activity

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24
Q

which chemical groups of antibiotics are concentration dependent

A

fluoroquinolones
aminoglycosides
nitroimidazoles
polymixins

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25
which chemical groups of antibiotics are time-dependent
penicillins cephalosporines macrolides & triamilides lincosamides phenicols sulfonamides diaminopyrimidines
26
which chemical groups of antibiotics are co-dependent for killing needing duration of exposure and maintained drug concentration
tetracyclines ketolides glycopeptides
27
what are the 2 ways antimicrobial agents are often classified
time-dependent concentration-dependent
28
what can the combination of AUC and MIC values be used to predict
probability of bacterial eradication clinical success
29
what does T/MIC mean
increasing the concentration over the MIC curve will not increase the efficacy of a drug. This drug needs to have a longer time limit at a constant concentration
30
what does AUC/MIC or Cmax/MIC mean
these drugs will need increased drug concentrations above the MIC
31
what can control the achieved concentration
systemic availability
32
what is systemic availability variable by
dosage form route of administration ability of drug to gain access volume distribution
33
true or false: parenteral therapy should never be used in the treatment of severe infections
false it should always be used
34
when would it be most appropriate to use an oral therapy in dogs and cats
mild to moderate infections
35
what will enhance passage of a drug across barriers
inflammation
36
define a synergistic antibacterial combination
combined effects are significantly greater than the independent effects
37
define an antagonistic antibacterial combination
combined effects are significantly less than their independent effects
38
which type of antibiotic interferes with the final stage of peptidoglycan synthesis
beta-lactams
39
what do beta-lactams prevent
formation of bacterial cell wall (inhibit activity of PBPs)
40
what type of action do beta-lactam drugs have on bacteria
bactericidal
41
what causes a difference in susceptibility between gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria
differences in receptors sites (PBPs) relative amount of peptidoglycan present ability of drug to penetrate the outer cell membrane resistance to beta-lactamase enzymes
42
which group of penicillin has procaine as a derivative
benzyl penicillin
43
which group of penicillin has a derivative of cloxacillin, dicloxacillin & oxacillin
anti-staphylococcal isoxazolyl penicillins
44
which group of penicillins has a derivative of ampicillin & amoxicillin
extended - broad spectrum penicillins
45
which group of penicillins has a derivative of ticarcillin
antipseudomonal penicillins
46
which penicillin is the only one whose oral bioavailability is great enough to warrant oral administration
amoxicillin
47
where are penicillins predominantly ionised
plasma
48
how are penicillins eliminated from the body
almost entirely from the kidneys
49
true or false: since penicillin is eliminated through the renal system, glomerular filtration and tubular secretion need to be intact to maintain safe concentrations within the body
true
50
what can be used to increase penicillin resident time in the body
probenecid - inhibits tubular secretion
51
what are penicillins normally synergistic with
aminoglycosides - enhance the penetration of the aminoglycoside of the bacteria
52
what are the possible adverse effects of penicillins
acute anaphylaxis collapse mild hypersensitivity reactions
53
true or false: penicillins are not cross-sensitising or cross-reactive
false
54
what is a possible consequence when taking broad-spectrum penicillins
disturbance of the normal intestinal flora
55
what animals should not be given ampicillin due to their intestinal normal flora containing clostridial colitis
small rodents - rabbits, hamsters, gerbils ect.
56
which antibiotic is inherently more resistant to beta-lactamases than penicillin
cephalosporins
57
which groups of cephalosporin primarily only have gram-positive activity
group 1 group 2
58
which group of cephalosporins have gram-positive and gram-negative activity
group 3
59
which group of cephalosporin has decreased gram-positive but increase gram-negative activity
group 4 group 5 group 6
60
which group of cephalosporin has increased gram-positive and gram-negative activity
group 7
61
what are the 3 mechanisms of resistance to cephalosporins can create
PBP modification reduced permeability increased efflux enzymatic degradation by beta-lactamases
62
what antibiotic are cephalosporins synergistic with
aminoglycosides