ap lect final

Question 1

What is an example of the study of physiology? a) Learning all the bones in the body b) How bones in the skeleton function to support the body. c) Looking at the shape of bones d) Looking at bone cells under a microscope

Answer 1

B

Question 2

Which if the following is the correct order of body organization from smallest to largest? a) Tissue, Organ, Cell, Organism b) Organism, Organ, Tissue, Cell c) Tissue, Cell, Organ, Organ, System d) Cell, Tissue, Organ, Organ System

Answer 2

D

Question 3

What is an example of a positive feedback loop? a) During labor, the pressure of the baby’s head on the cervix leads to a cascade that increases uterine contractions until baby is born. b) When hot, the sweat glands produce sweat to cool the body. c) When cold, the muscles of the body shiver to raise the body temperature to normal. d) Only b and c

Answer 3

A

Question 4

What system produces body movements, maintains posture, and produces body heat? a) Skeletal system b) Integumentary system c) Muscular system d) Lymphatic system

Answer 4

C

Question 5

The transverse plane would divide the body into a) Left and Right sections b) Superior and Inferior sections c) Anterior and Posterior sections d) Diagonal section

Answer 5

B

Question 6

Which cavity encloses the lungs and mediastinum? a) Abdominopelvic cavity b) Cranial cavity c) Thoracic cavity d) Vertebral cavity

Answer 6

C

Question 7

If you have inflammation of the serous membrane in the lungs which designated area and fluid is affected? a) Peritoneum, Peritoneal Fluid b) Pericardium, Pericardial Fluid c)Pleura, Peritoneal Fluid,d) Pleura, Pleural Fluid

Answer 7

D

Question 8

The principle of conservation of energy states that a) Energy cannot neither be created, nor destroyed, ONLY changes form. b) Energy is the capacity to do work. c) Energy is stored in chemical bonds. d) Energy can be created or destroyed, NEVER changes form.

Answer 8

A

Question 9

A strong bond that utilizes equal sharing of electrons between atom is a ___________ bond. a) Non-polar covalent b) Polar covalent c) Ionic bond d) Non-polar ionic

Answer 9

A

Question 10

Which of the following is NOT part of an atom? a) protons b) electrons c) neutrons d) isotopes e) all the above

Answer 10

D

Question 11

A solution with which of the following pH values would be considered most acidic? a) 9 b) 5 c) 14 d) 2 e) 7

Answer 11

D

Question 12

Which of the following is NOT one of the four major groups of organic molecules? a) Carbohydrates b) Lipids c) Proteins d) Nucleotides

Answer 12

D

Question 13

A lipid containing all single bonds between carbon is considered to be. a) saturated b) unsaturated c) polysaturated d) phospholipids

Answer 13

A

Question 14

The fluid matrix inside the cell is called. 3 a) plasma membrane b) cytoplasm c) organelles d) ribosomes

Answer 14

B

Question 15

What is true of the plasma membrane? a) Acts a barrier to enclose and support cell. b) Determines what moves in and out of cell. c) Allows communication between cells. d) All of the above

Answer 15

D

Question 16

Voltage gated ion channels a) Open or close in repones to a molecule binding b) Are always open. c) Open or close to a change of charge across in plasma membrane d) Are never open.

Answer 16

C

Question 17

Voltage gated ion channels a) Open or close in repones to a molecule binding b) Are always open. c) Open or close to a change of charge across in plasma membrane d) Are never open.

Answer 17

c

Question 18

In a hypotonic solution the cell a) Does not shrink nor swell. b) Shrinks c) Swells d) Shrinks first, then swells

Answer 18

C

Question 19

Which of these is true during metaphase of cell mitosis? a) chromosomes separate to either pole of the cell. b) DNA replication is occurring. c) chromosomes are aligned at the equator of the cell. d) the cell is at rest.

Answer 19

C

Question 20

The process of transfer of information from DNA to RNA (mRNA) is known as ___________ a) translocation b) transcription c) transmutation d) translation

Answer 20

B

Question 21

The various types of epithelia are classified by. 4 a) the number or layers and shapes of the cells b) the layers and locations of the cells c)the number of layers and size of the size d)the shape and size of the cell

Answer 21

A

Question 22

If an epithelium has all cells touching the basement membrane, but not all cells reaching the free surface. What is the tissue? a) Stratified b) Transitional c) Pseudostratified d) Simple

Answer 22

C

Question 23

Which tissue is abundant in extracellular matrix? a) nervous tissue b) muscular tissue c)epithelial tissue d)connective tissue

Answer 23

D

Question 24

Which of the tissues has intercalated discs, striations, and one nucleus per cell? a) nervous tissue b) skeletal muscle c) cardiac muscle d)smooth muscle

Answer 24

C

Question 25

In which of the following would you find elastic connective tissue? a) tendons b) ligaments c)all of the above d)none of the above

Answer 25

D

Question 26

Which of these specialized cells of break down matrixes for remodeling? a) cytes b) clasts c) blasts d) enzymes

Answer 26

B

Question 27

What are the four primary tissue types? a) connective, epithelial, skin and blood b) epithelial, connective, muscle, and nervous c) glands, blood, skin, and muscle d) bone, skin, blood, and muscle

Answer 27

B

Question 28

Which correctly identifies the layers of the epidermis from deep to most superficial? 5 a) granulosum, basale, spinosum, lucidum, corneum b) basale, spinosum, granuolosum, lucidum, corneum c) corneum, lucidum, granulosum, spinosum, basale d) basale, granulosum, spinosum, corneum, lucidum

Answer 28

B

Question 29

Racial variation in skin color is determined by all the following except. a) the number or melanocytes b) type of melanin produced. c) size of melanosomes d) number or melanosomes e) hormones

Answer 29

A

Question 30

Which of the following is NOT part of the skin? a) Epidermis b) Basement membrane c) Subcutaneous/Hypodermis d) Dermis

Answer 30

C

Question 31

Which layer of the skin is NOT found in thin skin? a) Stratum Lucidum b) Stratum Corneum c) Stratum Basale d) Stratum granulosum

Answer 31

A

Question 32

Which part of the nail matrix is the whitish, crescent-shaped area at the base of the nail? a) nail root b) nail bed c) cuticle d) lunula

Answer 32

D

Question 33

Which sweat gland most is active at puberty? a) eccrine glands b) ceruminous glands c) apocrine glands d) mammary glands

Answer 33

C

Question 34

Which type of hair is only found on a fetus? a) Terminal hair b) Vellus c) Lanugo d) fine hair

Answer 34

C

Question 35

Which cells are responsible for bone formation? a) Osteoblasts b) Chondroblast c) osteocytes d) osteoclasts

Answer 35

A

Question 36

During the repair phase after an injury which bone is formed? a) woven b) lamellar c) osteon d) remodeled bone

Answer 36

A

Question 37

Osteocytes are located within the a) Perforating canals b) Lacunae c) Central canal d) canaliculi

Answer 37

B

Question 38

Which of the following statements regarding PTH (parathyroid hormone) is true? a) PTH causes decreased uptake of Ca2+ from the small intestine. b) PTH causes decreased vitamin D formation in the kidneys. c) PTH causes increased reabsorption of Ca2+ in the kidneys. d) PTH causes increased loss of Ca2+ from the kidneys. e) PTH causes increased Na+ reabsorption in the kidneys.

Answer 38

C

Question 39

What is the term for the shaft of the long bone? a) epiphysis b) diaphysis c) c)epiphyseal plate d) medullary cavity

Answer 39

B

Question 40

Which of the following represents the correct sequence of zones in the epiphyseal plate? a) resting, proliferation, maturation, calcification b) maturation, proliferation, resting, calcification c) calcification, maturation, proliferation, resting. d) calcification, reserved, proliferation, maturation.

Answer 40

A

Question 41

Fibrous joints are united by a) fibrous connective tissue b) hyaline or fibrocartilage c) synovial cavities

Answer 41

A

Question 42

When chewing food, your mandible will switch between which two motions. a) elevation and depression b) inversion and eversion c) pronation and supination d) protraction and retraction

Answer 42

A

Question 43

The shoulder joint is an example of which synovial joint. a) ball and socket b) saddle c) hinge d) plane e) ellipsoid

Answer 43

A

Question 44

Which of these is not a fibrous joint? a) syndesmoses b) gomphoses c) synchondroses d) sutures

Answer 44

C

Question 45

Which of these is the most mobile joint? a) Temporomandibular Joint b) Talocrural c) Glenohumeral Joint d) Coxal Joint

Answer 45

C

Question 46

Which of these affects range of motion? a) strength and location of ligaments and tendons b) bulk of surrounding tissue c)amount of fluid in ad around joint d)amount of pain in and around joint e) all of the above

Answer 46

E

Question 47

The ability for a muscle to produce a response to stimulus. a) excitability b) extensibility c) elasticity d) contractability

Answer 47

A

Question 48

Which of the following is in correct order from largest to smallest? a) fascicles, muscle, myofibril, muscle fiber b) muscle, fascicles, myofibril, muscle fiber 8 c) Muscle, fascicles, muscle fiber, myofibril d) Muscle, muscle fiber, fascicles, myofibril

Answer 48

C

Question 49

Which type of muscle lines the walls of hollow organs, blood vessels and skin? a) skeletal muscle b) cardiac muscle c)smooth muscle d)all of the above

Answer 49

C

Question 50

Which of the following is mismatched? a) Sarcomeres are arrangements of myofibrils b) Actin-thin myofilaments c) Myosin-thick myofilaments d) Tendons attach bone to bone.

Answer 50

D

Question 51

Repolarization occurs when ___________ flows ___________ of the cell. a) Sodium, INTO b) Potassium, INTO c) Sodium, OUT OF d) Potassium, OUT OF

Answer 51

B

Question 52

Which is the correct sequence for the events that occur during a muscle contraction. (1) Myosin cross-bridges bind to the actin (2) The free myosin head splits ATP (3) Calcium ion is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum (4) The myosin head pivots toward the center of the sarcomere (5) Calcium ion binds to troponin (6) The myosin head binds an ATP molecule and detaches from the actin a) 1, 3, 5, 4, 6, 2 b) 1, 4, 6, 2, 3, 5 c) 3, 5, 1, 2, 4, 6 d) 5, 1, 4, 6, 2, 3,

Answer 52

C

Question 53

A stimulus either causes an action potential or it doesn’t. This is called. a) a graded response b) a relative refectory response c)an absolute refractory response d)all-or non-response

Answer 53

d

Question 54

Which of these is NOT part of the peripheral nervous system? a) ganglia b) nerves c) brain 9 d) receptors

Answer 54

C

Question 55

Which of these is a glial cell of the CNS? a) satellite cells b) ependymal cells c) c)Schwann cells d) d)neurons

Answer 55

B

Question 56

There are ___________pairs of cranial nerves, and ___________ pairs of spinal nerves. a) 12, 24 b) 6,12 c) 31,12 d) 12, 31

Answer 56

d

Question 57

Which division of the PNS controls skeletal muscle and is voluntary? a) somatic nervous system b) autonomic nervous system c) sympathetic d) parasympathetic

Answer 57

a

Question 58

Transmission in myelinated axons is ___________ and are ___________matter. a) faster, grey b) slower, white c) faster, white slower, grey

Answer 58

c

Question 59

Arrange the events of synaptic transmission in correct sequence. (1) Na+ diffuses into the cell and causes a local potential. (2) Neurotransmitter binds with receptor on postsynaptic cleft. (3) Neurotransmitter diffuses across the synaptic cleft. (4) Membrane permeability Na+ on postsynaptic cell increases. (5) Action Potential causes release of Neurotransmitter a) 5, 3, 4, 1, 2 b) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1 c) 5, 2, 3, 1, 4 d) 5, 3, 2, 4, 1, e) 5, 2, 3, 4, 1

Answer 59

d

Question 60

Most metabolic and regulatory functions in a neuron happen where? a) axon b) dendrites c) c)nodes of Ranvier d) d)Schwann cells e) cell body or soma

Answer 60

e

Question 61

Low levels of can have dire consequences on the function neurons because of its role in membrane depolarization. a) Clb) Na + c) H+ d) K+

Answer 61

b

Question 62

Andrew is curling heavy weights and suddenly drops them. Which reflex forced this action to prevent tendon damage? a) withdrawal reflex b) Golgi tendon reflex c) muscle spindle reflex d) d)stretch reflex

Answer 62

b

Question 63

Which of the following components of the reflex arc sends information to the spinal cord? a) stimulus b) interneuron c) muscles d) sensory neuron

Answer 63

D

Question 64

The motor root of a spinal nerve is also referred to as_________ root. a) ventral b) dorsal c) c)superior d) d)lateral

Answer 64

A

Question 65

Which of these nerves is NOT a branch of the lumbosacral plexus? a) gluteal b) pudendal nerve c) genitofemoral nerve d) pectoral e) ilioinguinal nerve

Answer 65

D

Question 66

Which layer of the meninges is adherent to the brane and forms the filum terminale? a) epidural space b) arachnoid mater c) pia mater d) d)dura mater

Answer 66

C

Question 67

In the spinal cord, white matter is organized into. 11 a) horns and the gray matter into columns b) horns and the gray matter into roots c)columns and the gray matter into tracts d)columns and the gray matter into horns

Answer 67

D

Question 68

Consider the following five terms and determine which does not belong? a) cerebellum b) cardiac center c) pons d) medullar oblongata

Answer 68

B

Question 69

A small lesion in the brainstem which resulted in rapid heart rate, intense vasoconstriction, and elevated blood pressure would be in the a) pons b) medulla oblongata c) c)hypothalamus d) d)cerebrum

Answer 69

B

Question 70

A person with a lesion in the brain exhibited the following manifestations: normal tension in skeletal muscle, disturbed fine motor control, exhibited tremors when reaching for objects and imbalance. What part of the brain is most likely damaged? a) pons b) the cerebellum c) the frontal lobe or the cerebrum d) d) the prefrontal love of the cerebrum

Answer 70

B

Question 71

All the following cranial nerves govern the eye except a) Optic b) oculomotor c) vestibulocochlear d) d)trochlear e) abducens

Answer 71

C

Question 72

Which primary vesicle of the embryonic nervous system does not differentiate into more vesicles at the secondary stage? a) prosencephalon b) mesencephalon c) diencephalon d) rhombencephalon

Answer 72

B

Question 73

What region of the diencephalon coordinates homeostasis? 12 a) thalamus b) epithalamus c) hypothalamus d) subthalamus

Answer 73

C

Question 74

Fibers connecting areas of the cerebral cortex within the same hemisphere are _________ fibers. a) b projection b) commissural c) association

Answer 74

C

Question 75

Cerebrospinal fluid formed by tissue in the walls and roofs of the _________ a) subarachnoid space b) subdural space c) Dural sinuses d) ventricles of the brain

Answer 75

D

Question 76

Which of the following is an example of procedural memory? a) reciting a poem b) remembering your birthday c) meeting a new person d) typing on a keyboard

Answer 76

D

Question 77

Damage to Broca’s area would result in a) impaired speaking b) impaired understanding c) c)loss of balance d) d)loss of hearing

Answer 77

A

Question 78

Which of these combinations of general senses depends on mechanoreceptors? a) taste and smell b) pressure and temperature c) touch and temperature d)pressure and proprioception e) proprioception and temperature

Answer 78

D

Question 79

What is the name for the topographical representation of the sensory input to the somatosensory cortex? a) homunculus b) homo sapiens c) postcentral gyrus d) primary cortex

Answer 79

A

Question 80

What type of receptor cell is responsible for transducing pain stimuli? a) mechanoreceptor b) nociceptor c) osmoreceptor d) photoreceptor

Answer 80

B

Question 81

In boxing it is illegal to hit in the back of the head because it may cause damage to the visual cortex which is in the _________ lobe. a) parietal b) temporal c) occipital d) frontal e) insula

Answer 81

C

Question 82

Which of the following is an example of adaptation of sensory receptors? a) being always aware of our body parts b) continual monitoring touch signals c) ignoring the presence of clothes

Answer 82

C

Question 83

Which division of the ANS is responsible for rest and digest? a) somatic b) rest and digest are a division of the CNS. c) sympathetic d) parasympathetic

Answer 83

D

Question 84

Which of the following statements applies to the autonomic nervous system (ANS)? a)The ANS innervates skeletal muscle. b)A single neuron from the spinal cord carries action potentials to effector organs in the ANS. c)The receptor molecules of the ANS may be muscarinic, nicotinic, or adrenergic. d) The ANS controls unconscious movement of skeletal muscles. e) ANS functions are consciously controlled.

Answer 84

C

Question 85

Which of the following neurons is most likely to be adrenergic? a)Postganglionic somatic motor b)Preganglionic sympathetic c)Postganglionic parasympathetic d)Preganglionic parasympathetic e)Postganglionic sympathetic

Answer 85

E

Question 86

Sally has just heard a strange noise in her basement. Which of the following is an example of normal autonomic nervous system function during this type of situation?a)Sally's muscle tone increases as she becomes paralyzed with fear. b)Sally's heart rate decreases to allow her to hear the noise better. c)Sally's breathing becomes slower to allow for better gas exchange. d)Sally's heart rate increases preparing for possible activity.

Answer 86

D

Question 87

Which of the following represents a local reflex? a)Secretion of digestive enzymes under the control of the vagus nerve b)Motility of the digestive tract in response to stretch of the wall of the digestive tract. c)All the choices are correct. d)Parasympathetic stimulation causes the gallbladder to release bile

Answer 87

B

Question 88

Why would type of nerve cause a blood vessel to constrict? a) Sensory b) Afferent c) Autonomic d) Cranial

Answer 88

C

Question 89

Autonomic reflexes might be integrated in the a) medulla oblongata b) spinal cord c)hypothalamus d)all of the above

Answer 89

D

Question 90

What do all hormones have in common? a) they are made from amino acids. b) they are bound to transport molecules in the blood. c) they bind to and interact with a receptor or in the target cell. d) d)they are lipid soluble.

Answer 90

C

Question 91

Endocrine glands ________. a) secrete hormones that travel through a duct to the target organs. b) release neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft c) secrete chemical messengers that travel in the bloodstream. d) include sebaceous glands and sweat glands.

Answer 91

C

Question 92

Chemical signaling that affects neighboring cells is called ________. a) autocrine b) paracrine c) endocrine d) neuron

Answer 92

B

Question 93

The release of chemicals from an endocrine or exocrine gland is referred to as? 15 a) absorption b) diffusion c) filtration d) secretion

Answer 93

D

Question 94

Cortisol, a lipid-soluble hormone is released into the blood. Predict what cortisol might do. Cortisol will dissolve in the blood as free hormone. a) Cortisol needs fenestrated capillaries to move out of the blood stream. b) Cortisol will readily diffuse through capillary wall. c)Cortisol will be rapidly degraded by proteases in the bloodstream.

Answer 94

B

Question 95

Which pattern of hormone secretion, changes suddenly and irregularly in response to stress? a) chronic hormone secretion b) acute hormone secretion c) c)episodic hormone secretion d) long-term hormone secretion

Answer 95

B

Question 96

Identify the function for which the endocrine is NOT responsible for? a) regulating equilibrium and balance from the inner ear b) regulating metabolism c) controlling development and functions of the reproductive system d) regulating heart rate and blood pressure

Answer 96

A

Question 97

Synthesis of progesterone in the ovaries and testosterone in the testis is stimulated by? a) FSH (follicle stimulating hormone) b) LH (luteinizing hormone) c) MSH (melanocyte stimulating hormone) D) TSH (thyroid stimulating hormone)

Answer 97

B

Question 98

The hypothalamohypophysial portal system carries hormones from the a) anterior pituitary to the hypothalamus b) posterior pituitary to the hypothallus c) hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary d)hypothalamus to the posterior pituitary

Answer 98

C

Question 99

The endocrine glands that lay on top of the kidneys are a) parathyroid b) thyroid c) prostate 16 d) renal e) adrenal

Answer 99

E

Question 100

Which is NOT an action of PTH (parathyroid hormone) a) stimulate osteoclast activity resulting in the release of Ca2+ b) stimulate osteoclast activity resulting in the release of Ca2+ c)stimulates absorption of Ca2+ from the small intestine. d)decreases phosphate from bone.

Answer 100

D

Question 101

In addition to testosterone and estrogen, reproductive organs (testes and ovaries) also produced the hormone ________________blank, which decreases the production of FSH. a) inhibin b) thyroxine c) PTH d) relaxin

Answer 101

A