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Bacteriology Flashcards

1
Q

Belong to the Protista kingdom
Include some eukaryotes, prokaryotes, viruses, viroids, prions
Classified according to structure, chemical composition, and biosynthetic and genetic organization

A

Microorganisms

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2
Q

Organ of locomotion for prokaryotes

A

Flagella

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3
Q

Organ of locomotion for eukaryotes

A

Flagella and pseudopodia

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4
Q

Cell wall less bacteria

A

Mycoplasma
Ureaplasma

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5
Q

Fungal cell membrane

A

Ergosterol

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6
Q

Provides shape to bacteria

A

Cell wall

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7
Q

In bacteria, energy production happen in

A

Cell membrane

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8
Q

Not cells, not visible to light microscope

A

Viruses

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9
Q

Bacterial viruses

A

Bacteriophages or phages

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10
Q

Single-stranded, covalently closed, circular RNA molecules that exists as base-paired, rodlike structures
Cause plant diseases

A

Viroids

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11
Q

RNA of the hepatitis D virus is ____

A

Viroid-like

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12
Q

Abnormal proteins

A

Prions

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13
Q

Infectious particles associated with subacute progressive, degenerative diseases of the CNS (Creutzfeldt-Jacob Disease)

A

Prions

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14
Q

Alter conformations of a normal cellular protein that autocatalytically form more copies of itself.

A

Prions

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15
Q

Spiral Sjape

A

Spirochetes
Borrelia
Leptospira
Treponema

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16
Q

Straight rod or with single rigid curve

A

Vibrio

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17
Q

Rigid helical rod

A

Spirillium

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18
Q

Flesuous helical rod

A

Spirochete

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19
Q

Vary in size and shape

A

Pleomorphic
ex: Bacterioides, Mycoplasma, Ureaplasma

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20
Q

Example of antibiotic that affect cell wall biosynthesis and may alter a bacteria’s shape

A

Penicillin

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21
Q

Coffee-bean shaped diplococci

A

Neisseria

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22
Q

Lancet-shaped diplococci

A

S. pneumoniae

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23
Q

Palisades

A

Corynebacterium

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24
Q

Smallest pathogenic bacillus

A

Haemophilus

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25
Q

Largest pathogenic bacillus

A

Bacillus anthracis

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26
Q

Mucilaginous envelop that surrounds some bacteria (if present, considered as virulence factor)

A

Capsule

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27
Q

Structure surrounding a bacterial cell and is external to the cell wall

A

Polysaccharide

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28
Q

Bacteria without polysaccharide, instead possess poly-D-glutamic acid capsule

A

Bacillus anthracis

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29
Q

Property of capsule that may increase virulence by preventing phagocytosis

A

Immunoevasion

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30
Q

Basis of serotying by Quelling reaction: specific capsular swelling with type-specific antiserum

A

Antigenic

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31
Q

Encapsulated organisms

A

“Some Nasty Killers Have Some Capsule Protection”
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Neisseria meningitidis
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Haemophilus influenzae
Salmonella typhi
Cryptococcus neoformans
Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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32
Q

Special staining methods

A

Hiss stain
India ink stain

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33
Q

Loosely arranged extracellular material that surrounds bacterial cells

A

Slime layer

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34
Q

Found in biofilms

A

Slime layer

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35
Q

Used by some bacteria to adhere to surfaces like catheters (S. epidermidis)

A

Biofilm

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36
Q

Organized layer

A

Capsules

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37
Q

Also known as the peptidoglycan later or murein layer

A

Cell wall

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38
Q

Functions of _____
Protects bacteria against osmotic pressure
Gives shape to the bacteria
Confer the gram reaction of the bacteria
Usual target of anti-microbial drugs (penicillins, cephalosporins)

A

Cell wall

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39
Q

Thicker, teichoic acid

A

Gram-positive cell wall

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40
Q

Composed of a very thick protective peptidoglycan (murein) layer

A

Gram-positive cell wall

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41
Q

G+ cell wall consists of glycan chains of alternating ___ and ___

A

NAG and NAM

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42
Q

Negatively charged and contributes to the negativity of the cell wall

A

Teichoic acid

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43
Q

It may also bind and regulate the movement of cations into and out of the cell

A

Teichoic acid

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44
Q

Have an outer membrane

A

Gram (-) cell wall

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45
Q

Composed of a thin layer of peptidoglycan, No teichoic acid

A

Gram - negative cell wall

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46
Q

Between outer membrane and gram negative cell wall

A

Periplasma space

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47
Q

Has a gram positive reaction

A

Acid-fast cell wall

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48
Q

Concurs resistance to drying and chemicals

A

Acid-fast cell wall

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49
Q

Contain a waxy layer of phospholipids and fatty acids (hydroxymethoxy acid or mycolic acid) bound to the exterior of the cell wall

A

Acid-fast cell wall

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50
Q

Acid-fast organisms

A

“No MILC”
Nocardia
Mycobacterium
Isospora
Legionella micdadei
Cryptosporidium

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51
Q

Other clinically relevant organisms with cell wall containing mycolic acid

A

Nocardia
Rhodococcus
Gordonia
Tsukamurella
Corynebacterium

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52
Q

Bacteria without cell walls contain ___

A

Sterols

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53
Q

Examples of bacteria without cell wall

A

Mycoplasma, ureaplasma

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54
Q

Present only in gram-negative bacteria

A

outer membrane

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55
Q

Composed of proteins, phospholipids, and lipopolysaccharide

A

Outer membrane

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56
Q

Lipopolysaccharide is comprised of:

A

Lipid A
Core polysaccharide
O polysaccharide

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57
Q

Vital to evade the host defenses;
it contributes to the negative charge of the bacterial surface

A

Lipopolysaccharide

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58
Q

It comprises endotoxin

A

Lipopolysaccharide

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59
Q

Essential component of both Gram pos and gram neg bacteria

A

Cell membrane

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60
Q

Has affinity for basic dyes

A

Metachromatic Granules

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61
Q

Site of bacterial energy metabolism

A

Cell membrane

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62
Q

Special stains for metachromatic granules

A

Albert
Neisser
Ponder
Methylene Blue

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63
Q

Babes Ernst Granules

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae
“Corny mo, Babe”

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64
Q

Much granules

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

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65
Q

Bipolar granules

A

Yersinia pestis
“Safety pin appearance”

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66
Q

Function as a survival response to certain adverse nutritional conditions, such as depletion of a certain source

A

Endospore

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67
Q

Highly resistant to desiccation, heat, and various chemicals
The last structure to be destroyed

A

Endospores

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68
Q

Basis of QC in autoclaving

A

Endospores

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69
Q

Endospores are helpful in identifying some species of bacteria like

A

Bacillus and Clostridium

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70
Q

Terminal spore

A

Clostridium tetani

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71
Q

Subterminal spore

A

Clostridium botulinum

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72
Q

Central spore

A

Bacillus anthracis

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73
Q

Boxcar appearance

A

Bacillus anthracis

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74
Q

Possess a core that contains many cell components, a spore wall, a cortex, a coat, and an exosporium

A

Endospore

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75
Q

The core of endospore contains ____, which aids in heat resistance within the core

A

Calcium dipicolinate

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76
Q

Endospore stains

A

Schaeffer-Fulton stain (green)
Doemer’s stain
Wirtz-Conklin

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77
Q

True or False.
Endospore germinate under favorable nutritional conditions after an activation process that involves damage to the spore coat. They are not reproductive structures

A

True

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78
Q

Gives motility to bacteria. For locomotion

A

Flagella

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79
Q

No flagella

A

Atrichous

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80
Q

Single flagellum at each pole

A

Monotrichous

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81
Q

Examples of Monotrichous

A

Vibrio
Campylobacter
Helicobacter
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
NO Enterobacteriaceae are monotrichous

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82
Q

Single flagellum at each pole

A

Amphitrichous

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83
Q

Tuft of flagella at one or both poles

A

Lophotrichous

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84
Q

Flagella all over organism

A

Peritrichous

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85
Q

Examples of Peritrichous

A

Enterobacteriaceae, except SKY (Shigella, Klebsiella, Yersinia)

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86
Q

Most common flagella in pathogens

A

Peritrichous and monotrichous

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87
Q

Demonstrate motility at ____ hours growth

A

18

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88
Q

Often, motility can be best seen at ____

A

25 deg C (35-37 deg C may be inhhibitory)

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89
Q

Component of flagellar stains

A

Tannic acid

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90
Q

Examples of flagellar stains

A

Leifson
Fisher and Conn
Gray

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91
Q

Precipitates and coats flagella

A

Tannic acid

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92
Q

AKA axial filament
Found in spirochetes

A

Endoflagella

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93
Q

Tumbling motility

A

Listeria monocytogenes

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94
Q

Darting motility

A

Campylobacter

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95
Q

Gliding motility

A

Capnocytophaga

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96
Q

Swarming motility

A

Proteus

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97
Q

Hair-like extensions that extent into the environment

A

Pili/Fimbrae

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98
Q

Type of pili that serves as an attachment

A

Common pili

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99
Q

Pili for conjugation

A

Sex/conjugate pili
“bacterial sex”

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100
Q

Bacteria reproduce by asexual reproduction via

A

Binary fission

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101
Q

4 phases of the growth cycle

A

Lag phase
Logarithmnic/exponential phase
Stationary phase
Decline and death

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102
Q

Little or no multiplication but enzymes are very active. A period of adjustment and adaptation

A

Lag phase

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103
Q

Organisms grow at maximum rate (exponential rate).
Most sensitive to antimicrobials

A

Logarithmic phase

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104
Q

Plateau-growth ceases because nutrients are exhausted or toxic metabolic products have accumulated

A

Stationary phase.

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105
Q

Direct microscopic count may remain constant but viable count slowly decreases

A

Decline and death

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106
Q

3 mechanisms of bacterial gene transfer

A
  1. Transformation
  2. Conjugation
  3. Transduction
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107
Q

Direct uptake DNA from surrounding environment
-Allows evolution of DNA over time
-Introduce genes to bacteria for replication

A

Transformation

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108
Q

Transfer from one cell to another via pillus; requires physical contact of 2 organismsm
-DNA transferred via plasmids

A

Conjugation

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109
Q

Small DNA molecules within a cell

A

Plasmids

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110
Q

Transfer of DNA via a bacteriophage (virus that infects bacteria)

A

Transduction

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111
Q

Nuclear material enters bacteria
-Multiplies, lyses cells
-Releases progeny viruses

A

Lytic cycle

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112
Q

Nuclear material enters cell
-Incorporates in host DNA
-May later become excised then enter lytic phase
-Genes for some bacterial toxins are transferred to non-toxic strains via lysogeny

A

Lysogenic cycle

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113
Q

Phages that replicate only via the lytic cycle

A

Virulent

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114
Q

Phages that replicate using lytic cycle and lysogenic cycle

A

Temperate

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115
Q

“jumping genes”
DNA segments within bacterial DNA

A

Transposons

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116
Q

A mechanism of transfer of resistance to antibiotics; can even transfer antibiotic resistance genes between 2 different bacterial species

A

Transposition

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117
Q

Require preformed organic compounds for growth, includes most medical important bacteria

A

Heterotrophs/Organotrophs

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118
Q

Do not require preformed organic compounds for growth because they can synthesize them from inorganic compounds and carbon dioxide

A

Autotrophs/Lithotrophs

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119
Q

Use light as energy source

A

Phototrophs

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120
Q

Use redox potential generated by various chemical reactions

A

Chemotrophs

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121
Q

Grows in the presence of atmospheric (free) oxygen)

A

Aerobe

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122
Q

Cannot grow in the absence of free oxygen, which serves as final electron acceptor. Contain superoxide dismutase, which protects from the toxic oxygen

A

Obligate aerobe

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123
Q

Requires reduced amount of free oxygen (5% O2)

A

Microaerophile

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124
Q

Grows in the absence of atmospheric oxygen

A

Anaerobe

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125
Q

Cannot grow in the presence of atmospheric oxygen;
lack superoxide dismutase, catalase, and cytochrome-C oxidase (enzymes that destroy toxic products of oxygen metabolism)
Use nitrates, sulfates, and carbonates as final electron acceptor

A

Obligate anaerobes

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126
Q

Fundamentally an aerobe but can grow in the absence of atmospheric oxygen

A

Facultative anaerobe

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127
Q

Does not grow well, but survives in the presence of atmospheric oxygen

A

Aerotolerant

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128
Q

Obligate Aerobes

A

Mycobacterium
Corynebacterium
P. aeruginosa
Nocardia
Bacillus

“May Cash sa PNB”

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129
Q

Obligate Anaerobes

A

Actinomyces
Bacteroides
Clostridium
Fusobacterium
Eubacterium
Prevotella

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130
Q

Aerotolerant

A

Lactobacillus
Propionibacterium

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131
Q

Microaerophiles

A

Campylobacter
Helicobacter

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132
Q

Facultative anaerobe

A

Most pathogenic bacteria are facultative anaerobes

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133
Q

Growth of obligate aerobes in thioglycollate broth

A

growth at the top

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134
Q

Growth of facultative anaerobes and aerotolerant anaerobe in thioglycollate broth

A

growth all throughout

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135
Q

growth of obligate anaerobe in thioglycollate broth

A

growth at the bottom

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136
Q

Growth enhanced by the increased CO2 (5-10% CO2)

A

Capnophile

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137
Q

Capnophiles

A

Streptococcus
Campylobacter
Haemophilus
Helicobacter
Moraxella catarrhalis
Mycobacterium
Pathogenic Neisseria

“Sa Camp Here in Heaven, May Money Po!”

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138
Q

Grow below 10 deg C
Ex: L. monocytogenes , blood bank contaminants

A

Psychrophilic

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139
Q

Grow at 20 - 40 deg C (best at 30 - 37 deg C).
Most pathogens

A

Mesophilic

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140
Q

grow at 50 -55 deg C (basis of test for effective autoclaving

A

Thermophilic

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141
Q

Specimen is placed in the refrigerator
-inhibits growth of bacteria except L. monocytogenes and Y. enterocolitica

A

Cold enrichment technique

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142
Q

Lactobacillus grows in a special medium called __

A

Tomato juice agar

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143
Q

Vibrio species are alkalophiles and grows in ___

A

Alkaline Peptone Water: enrichment medium and
TCBS: differential medium

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144
Q

total absence of viable microorganisms as assessed by no growth on any medium

A

Sterility

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145
Q

kills bacteria

A

Bactericidal

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146
Q

inhibits growth of bacteria

A

Bacteriostatic

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147
Q

removal or killing or all microorganisms

A

sterilization

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148
Q

removal or killing of disease-causing microorganisms (inanimate objects)

A

Disinfection

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149
Q

any procedure that inhibits the growth and multiplication of microorganisms

A

Antisepsis

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150
Q

Method of sterilization and disinfection that coagulates protein

A

Moist heat

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151
Q

100 deg C for 15 - 30 minutes
-kills all vegetative organisms but not all spores or viruses

A

Boiling

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152
Q

Alternate heating (kills vegetative cells), incubation (spores germinate), heating

A

Fractionation

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153
Q

Flowing steam for 30 minutes on 3 successive days

A

Tyndallization

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154
Q

75 - 80 deg C for 2 hours on 3 successive days

A

Inspissation

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155
Q

Used to sterilize media containing milk or serum

A

Fractionation

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156
Q

Uses steam under pressure
121 deg C at 15 psi for 15 - 30 minutes

A

Autoclaving

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157
Q

Most effective method of sterilization

A

Autoclaving

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158
Q

Used to raise temperature in autoclaving

A

pressure

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159
Q

Kills organisms including viruses and spores;
Used whenever possible to sterilize liquid media, instruments, glassware

A

Autoclaving

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160
Q

Quality control in autoclaving

A

spores of Bacillus stearrothermophilus incubated at 56 deg C

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161
Q

recommended for milk and dairy products

A

Pasteurization

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162
Q

Low temperature holding
63 deg C for 30 minutes

A

Batch pasteurization

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163
Q

High temperature short time at 72 deg C for 15 seconds

A

Flash Pasteurization

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164
Q

Kills by oxidation

A

Dry heat

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165
Q

Temp and duration for oven using dry heat

A

160 - 180 deg C for 1 -2 hours

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166
Q

Quality control of dry heat

A

spores of Bacillus subtilis incubated at 35 - 37 deg C

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167
Q

To sterilize inoculating loop

A

Flame

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168
Q

Size of membrane filter that has 100% bacterial sterility

A

0.22 um

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169
Q

For urea broth and sugar fermentation broth

A

Filtration

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170
Q

UV light

A

Radiation

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171
Q

Cold sterilization
Used for materials that cannot be autoclaved

A

Ethylene oxide gas

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172
Q

Quality control for ethylene oxide gas

A

spores of Bacillus subtilis incubated at 35 - 37 deg C

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173
Q
A
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174
Q

Destroys vegetative forms on inanimate objects

A

Disinfectant

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175
Q

denature proteins; activity reduced by organic matter (cresol less affected)

A

Phenolics

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176
Q

Inactivate bacteria by binding with their hydrophobic and lipophilic groups, interacting with the cell membrane to alter metabolic properties and permeability

A

Quaternary ammoniums (quats)

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177
Q

oxidizes organic matter

A

Chlorine

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178
Q

safe for delicate lensed instruments; usually poor activity against Pseudomonas

A

2% aqueous glutaraldehyde

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179
Q

a dipheyl cationic analog that is useful for topical disinfectant

A

Chlorhexidine

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180
Q

5 types of disinfectants

A
  1. Quaternary ammoniums
  2. Phenolics
  3. Chlorine
  4. 2% aqueous glutaraldehyde
  5. Chlorhexidine
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181
Q

Phenol is used as a disinfectant standard that is expressed as a ___.
This compares the rate of the minimal sterilizing concentration of phenol to that of the test compound for a particular organism

A

phenol coefficient

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182
Q

The endpoint of phenol coefficient is the lowest concentration that kills test organisms in ___

A

10 minutes at 20 deg C

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183
Q

Test organisms for phenol coefficient

A

Salmonella typhi and Staphylococcus aures

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184
Q

agent used on living tissue

A

antiseptic

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185
Q

3 types of antiseptics

A
  1. Alcohol
  2. Tincture (alcoholic) iodine
  3. Iodophor
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186
Q

__ is necessary for protein denaturation

A

Water

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187
Q

___ is the major form of alcohol used in hospitals

A

Isopropyl alcohol (90-95%)

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188
Q

Tincture (alcoholic) iodine is composed of:

A

2% solution of aqueous alcohol containing potassium iodide

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189
Q

Iodophor is composed of:

A

Iodine + detergent (e.g. povidone-iodine)

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190
Q

Biologic indicators
1. Autoclave:
2. Ionizing radiation:
3. Dry heat oven:
4. Ethylene oxide:

A

Biologic indicators
1. Autoclave: Bacillus stearothermophilus
2. Ionizing radiation: Bacillus pumilis
3. Dry heat oven: Bacillus subtilis var niger
4. Ethylene oxide: Bacillus subtilis var globigii

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191
Q

Designed to protect the operator, the laboratory environment, and work materials from exposure to infectious aerosols and splashes that may be generated when manipulating materials containing infectious agents

A

Biological safety cabinets

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192
Q

Open front BSC. Has HEPA filter. Filtration happens once.
Provides minimal personnel protection. Does not protect work surface

A

Class I BSC

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193
Q

Laminar flow cabinets with variable sash opening. Filtration happens twice. Most commonly used in hospital micro labs. Provides protection for worker and work surface

A

Class II BSC

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194
Q

Completely enclosed. Negative pressure. has gloves. Provides maximum protection

A

Class III BSC

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195
Q

Biosafety level not known to cause disease in healthy adults

A

Level I

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196
Q

Biosafety level: common pathogens

A

Level 2

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197
Q

Biosafety level: causes serious lethal disease via inhalation. Effective treatment available

A

Level III

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198
Q

Biosafety level that causes life-threatening disease. No vaccine

A

Level IV

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199
Q

Found in the cell wall of S. aureus
-inhibits phagocytosis by binding Fc portion of IgG

A

Protein A

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200
Q

Enzymes that cleave IgA,
allows colonization of mucosal surfaces
-produced by S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, N. gonorrhoeae, N. meningitidis

“SHiNe”

A

IgA protease

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201
Q

Found as a surface molecule of group A streptococcus,
prevents phagocytosis

A

M protein

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202
Q

Only in gram neg bacteria
-lipopolysaccharide
-released when bacteria die
-heat resistant

A

Endotoxin

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203
Q

Like LPS but lacks O antigen
Endotoxin activity
Found on non-enteric gram negs (N. meningitidis is most important example)

A

Lipooligosaccharide

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204
Q

Sore throat with membrane, swollen nodes
-Inactivates elongation factor (EF-2), which is necessary for protein synthesis.

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

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205
Q

Causes many types of infection (skin infections, sepsis, pneumoniae)
-same mechanism as diphtheria toxin

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(Exotoxin)

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206
Q

Causes infectious diarrhea
-invasion of GI mucosal cells is still the main cause of diseases;
-nontoxigenic strain causes significant disease

A

Shigella
(Shiga toxin)

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207
Q

Strain of E. coli that produce “shiga-like” toxin;
Typically cause bloody diarrhea
-can also cause hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) when toxin reaches system circulation
-Classic serotype is E.coli O157:H7

A

Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC)

Shiga-like toxin

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208
Q

aka Traveller’s diarrhea
-causes watery diarrhea

A

Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC)

Heat labile toxin (LT)
Heat stable toxin (ST)

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209
Q

3 proteins of Anthrax

A

Protective antigen (PA)
Lethal factor (LF)
Edema factor (EF)

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210
Q

2 proteins of B. anthracis that causes edema toxin

A

Protein antigen
Edema factor

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211
Q

Causes “rice-water” diarrhea
that leads to dehydration, electrolyte losses, and shock

A

Vibrio cholerae
(Cholera toxin)

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212
Q

Causes whooping cough

A

Bordetella pertusis

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213
Q

Preferred specimen for the determination of Bordetella pertusis (whooping cough)

A

Nasopharyngeal swab

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214
Q

Works in spinal cord (Renshaw cells)
- results in spastic muscle paralysis

A

Clostridium tetani
(Tetanospasmin)

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215
Q

Works at neuromuscular junctions
-results in muscles floppy (Flaccid paralysis)
-In babies: Floppy Baby Syndrome ( contaminated honey)

A

Clostridium botulinum
(Botulinum toxin)

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216
Q
A
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217
Q

Causes Gas Gangrene
Phospholipase C enzyme

A

Clostridium perfringens
(Alpha toxin)

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218
Q

“Cytolysin” (lysis cells)
-Responsible for beta hemolysis
-Trigger production of anti-streptolysin O (ASO)
-Can be usefu lin suspected rheumatic heart disease or post strep glomerulonephritis

A

Streptococcus pyogenes (Streptolysin O)

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219
Q

Activate a MASSIVE number of T-cells (2-20% T cells)

A

Superantigens

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220
Q
A
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221
Q

2 examples of superantigens

A

TSST-1 (S. aureus)
Pyrogenic exotoxin A or C (S. pyogenes)

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222
Q

Reagents in Gram staining

A
  1. Primary stain - Crystal Violet
  2. Mordant - Gram’s Iodine
  3. Decolorizer - Alcohol-Acetone
  4. Secondary stain - Safranin

“VIAS”

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223
Q

Bacteria with thick cell walls containing teichoic acid retain the crystal violet-iodine complex dye after decolorization.

A

Gram Stain

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224
Q

Primary stain binds to mycolic acid in the cell walls of mycobacteria and is retained after the decolorizing step with acid-alcohol

A

Acid-Fast Stain

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225
Q

Reagents in AF Staining

A
  1. Primary Stain - Carbol fuchsin
  2. Mordant - Heat or phenol
  3. Decolorizer - Acid-alcohol
  4. Methylene Blue
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226
Q

Size of AFB smear

A

at least like a thumb size or
2 cm x 3cm

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227
Q

Fluorochrome dye that stains both gram positive and gram negative bacteria, living or dead.
-Binds to the nucleic acid of the cell and fluoresces as a bright orange when fluorescent microscope is used.

A

Acridine Orange

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228
Q

Fluorochrome that binds to chitin in fungal cell walls.
-Fluoresces as a bright apple-green or blue-white, allowing visualization of fungal structures with a fluorescent microscope

A

Calcoflour White

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229
Q

Traditionally has been used to stain C. diphtheriae for observation of metachromatic granules

A

Methylene Blue

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230
Q

Used to stain the cell walls of medically important fungi grown in slide culture

A

Lactophenol Cotton Blue

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231
Q

Negative stain used to visualize capsules surrounding certain yeasts, such as Cryptococcus spp

A

India Ink

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232
Q

Primary stain: malachite green (heated to steaming for about 5 minutes)
Counterstain: Safranin
Endospores appear green with pink-appearing or red-appearing bacterial cells

A

Endospore stain

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233
Q

Fluorescein-labeled antibodies made from antisera produced by injecting animals with whole organisms or complex antigen mixtures
- Resultant polyclonal antibodies may react with multiple antigens on the organism that was injected and may also cross-react with antigens or other microorganisms or possibly with human cells in the specimen

A

Immunofluorescent antibody (IF) staining

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234
Q

IF staining is useful in confirming the presence of specific organisms such as

A

Bordetella pertusis or Legionella pneumophila

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235
Q

Percentage of agar in semi-solid media

A

0.5 - 1%

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236
Q

Percentage of agar in liquefiable solid media

A

2-3%

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237
Q

Tissue culture system from African green monkey

A

Vero cell

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238
Q

Tissue culture system from mouse cell line

A

Mccoy cell

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239
Q

Tissue culture system from Lung carcinoma

A

A549 cell

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240
Q

Tissue culture system from Cervical carcinoma

A

Hela cell

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241
Q

Tissue culture system from laryngeal carcinoma

A

Hep-2 cell

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242
Q

Supports the growth of non-fastidious organism
-Nutrient agar or broth; Trypticase soy agar or broth

A

Simple or General Purpose

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243
Q

Select the growth of particular organism and prevents other organism thru inhibitors

A

Selective

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244
Q

Selective medium for Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

Lowenstein Jensen

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245
Q

Selective medium for Gram positive microorganism

A

Phenylethyl alcohol

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246
Q

Selective media for Neisseria gonorrhea

A

Thayer Martin, Martin Lewis, New York City

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247
Q

Culture media that contains nutrient supplements

A

Enriched

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248
Q

Enriched media that contains 5% defibrinated Sheep blood (Horse/rabbit)

A

Blood agar plate

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249
Q

Enriched medium for Haemophilus

A

Chocolate agar plate

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250
Q

Preparation of Chocolate agar plate

A

-Add blood while base medium is still hot to lyse the RBCs
-Release X and V factors

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251
Q

X factor

A

Hemin

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252
Q

V Factor

A

NAD

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253
Q

Can enhance the growth of microorganism

A

Enrichment

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254
Q

Enrichment medium for Vibrio

A

Alkaline Peptone Water

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255
Q

Enrichment media for Salmonella and Shigella

A

Selenite and Tetrathionate

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256
Q

Allow certain types of organisms to grow and differentiate, and inhibit the growth of other organisms

A

Selective-Differential

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257
Q

Selective-Differential medium for S. aureus and S. epidermidis/saprophyticus

A

Mannitol Salt Agar

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258
Q

Selective-Differential medium for Vibrio spp

A

Thiosulfate Citrate Bile Salt

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259
Q

Provides distinct colonial appearance of microorganisms to know their identification

A

Differential

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260
Q

Differential media that contains 3 sugars (lac, gluc, suc)

A

Triple Sugar Iron

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261
Q

Standard medium for specimens

A

Blood agar (usually made with 5% sheep blood)

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262
Q

Hemolysis with green zone around colony. May be narrow or wide. Partial lysis of RBCs

A

Alpha hemolysis

263
Q

Complete lysis of RBCs. Clear zone around colony.

A

Beta hemolysis

264
Q

No lysis of RBCs. No zone of hemolysis

A

Gamma

265
Q

Examples of organisms that are alpha hemolytic

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae
Viridians streptococci
Some enterococci

266
Q

Examples of organisms that are beta hemolytic

A

Group A strep
Group B strep
Listeria monocytogenes

267
Q

Examples of organisms that are gamma hemolytic

A

Some enterococci

268
Q

___ is readily identified in the laboratory by its characteristic “double zone” hemolysis also known as target hemolysis

A

Clostridium perfringens

269
Q

Small area of intact RBCs around colony surrounded by a wider zone of complete hemolysis

A

Alpha-prime or wide zone hemolysis

270
Q

Enriched medium that will grow most nonfastidious bacteria

A

Sheep blood agar

271
Q

What is added to the blood agar medium to allow differentiation of hemolysis

A

Tryptic soy agar with 5% sheep blood

272
Q

Enriched medium for Haemophilus and Neisseria. Supplies X and V factors

A

Chocolate agar

273
Q

Selective medium for gram-positive microorganisms

A

Columbia colistin nalidixic agar (CNA)

*CN suppress most GN

274
Q

Selective medium for gram-positive cocci and anaerobic gram-negative rods

A

Phenylethyl alcohol agar (PEA)

*inhibits enteric gram-negative rods.

275
Q

Selective medium for S. pyogenes and S. agalactiae

A

Streptococcal selective agar (SSA)

*contains trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

276
Q

Selective differential medium for isolation of enteric gram-negative rods

A

Eosin methylene blue (EMB)

*EM inhibit gram positives
*Lactose fermenters are green-black or purple
*Nonlactose fermenters are colorless

277
Q

In EMB, E. coli produces ___

A

Green metallic sheen

278
Q

Selective, differential medium for isolation of enteric, gram-negative rods

A

MacConkey Agar (MAC)

*Bile salts and crystal violet inhibit most gram positives
*Lactose fermenters are pink
*Non-lactose fermenters are colorless

279
Q

Selective, differential medium for E. coli O157:H7

A

MacConkey sorbitol agar (SMAC)

*E. coli O157:H7 does not ferment sorbitol. colonies are colorless

280
Q

Selective, differential medium for isolation of enteric pathogens from stool

A

Hektoen enteric agar (HE)

*Bile salts, bromthymolblue, acid fuschin inhibit normal GI flora
*Non pathogens are orange to salmon pink
*Nonlactose fermenters are green to blue green
*H2S positive colonies have black precipitate

281
Q

Selective, differential medium for isolation of Salmonella and Shigella in stool

A

Xylose lysine deoxycholate (XLD)

*Deoxycholate inhibits gram neg rods and gram pos

282
Q

Four types of colonies in XLD

A

-Yellow (E. coli)
-Yellow with black centers (Some Proteus spp)
-Colorless or red colonies (Shigella)
-Red colonies with black centers (Salmonella)

283
Q

Selective medium for Salmonella and Shigella

A

Salmonella-Shigella agar (SS)

*Brilliant green and bile salts inhibit coliforms
*Salmonella and Shigella do not ferment lactose - colonies are colorless
*Salmonella produces H2S

284
Q

Selective enrichment medium for isolation of Salmonella and Shigella

A

Gram-negative broth (GN)

*Deoxycholate and citrate salts retard growth of gram-positives

285
Q

Enrichment broth used for recover of Salmonella from stool

A

Selenite broth

*Subculture onto selective differential agar after 6-8 hours of incubation

286
Q

Enrichment broth for recovery of Salmonella from stool

A

Tetrathionate broth

*Bile salts and sodium thiosulfate inhibit gram positives and Enterobactericeae.

287
Q

Selective enrichment medium for isolation of Campylobacter from stool

A

Campylobacter blood agar (Campy BAP)

*Incubate pates in increased CO2 at 42 deg C

288
Q

selective enrichment medium for recovery of Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Neisseria meningitidis from specimens with normal flora

A

Modified Thayer Martin (TM)

289
Q

Antibiotics in Modified Thayer Martin (TM)

A

VCNT

Vancomycin
Colistin
Nystatin
Trimethoprim (inhibits swarming of Proteus)

290
Q

Thayer Martin antibiotics

A

VCN

291
Q

Selective enrichment medium for recovery of N. gonorrhoeae and N. meningitidis from specimens with normal flora

A

Martin Lewis

292
Q

Antibiotics is Martin-Lewis

A

VCAT

*Anisomycin - antifungal

293
Q

Selective enrichment medium for isolation of N. gonorrhoeae and N. meniningitidis from specimens with normal flora

A

New York City medium (NYC)

294
Q

Antibiotics used in NYC medium

A

VCAbT

*Amphotericin B: Antifungal

295
Q

Antibiotics to inhibit GN and GP bacteria and yeast

A

GC-LECT

296
Q

For transportation and growth of N. gonorrhoeae

A

JEMBEC plates

297
Q

Selective differential medium for isolation and identification of Bacteroidesfragilis

A

Bacteriodes bile-esculin agar (BBE)

298
Q

Enrichment medium for isolation of fastidious anaerobes

A

Blood agar, anaerobic, CDC

299
Q

Selective medium for Clostridium difficile

A

Cycloserine cefoxitin fructose egg yolk agar (CCFA)

300
Q

For isolation of anaerobes, especially pathogenic Clostridium

A

Cooked meat medium

301
Q

For determination of lecithinase and lipase production by clostridia and fusobacteria

A

Egg-yolk agar (EYA)

302
Q

Selective medium for Bacteroides and Prevotella

A

Laked kanamycin-vancomycin blood agar (LKV)

303
Q

Inhibits enteric gram-negative rods and swarming by some clostridia

A

Phenylethyl alcohol agar (PEA)

304
Q

All-purpose medium that supports the growth of most aerobes and anaerobes. Can be used as a back up broth to detect organisms present in small numbers or anaerobes

A

Thioglycollate broth (THIO)

305
Q

In thioglycollate broth, what acts as a reducing agent?

A

Thioglycolate

*Aerobes grow at top, strict anaerobes at bottom, facultative anaerobes throughout.

306
Q

Storage of thioglycollate broth

A

Store at room temperature and boil and cool prior to use

307
Q

Differential medium for isolation of Corynebacterium diphtheriae

A

Cystine-tellurite blood agar

308
Q

Enrichment medium for recovery and identification of C. diphtheriae
Also promotes development of characteristic granules

A

Loeffler medium

309
Q

Selective differential medium for C. diphtheriae

A

Tindale agar

310
Q

Selective medium for isolation of Salmonella

A

Bismuth sulfite agar

311
Q

Selective medium for Yersinia enterocolitica, Aeromonas, and Plesiomonas shigelloides

A

Cefsulodin-Irgasan-Novobiocin agar (CIN)

312
Q

___ ferments manitol and appears red “bull’s eye” colonies surrounded by colorless halo in CIN agar

A

Y. enterocolitica

313
Q

Enrichment medium for recovery of Vibrio and Aeromonas from stool

A

Alkaline Peptone Water

314
Q

Selective medium for Vibrios

A

TCBS

315
Q

Used to speciate Haemophilus

A

Rabbit Blood Agar

316
Q

Selective enrichment medium for isolation of Bordetella pertusis
*Cough plate
*Colonies resemble mercury droplets

A

Bordet-Gengou

317
Q

Selective for B. pertusis

A

Regan Lowe

318
Q

Enrichment medium for isolation of Legionella

A

Buffered charcoal yeast extract agar (BCYE)

319
Q

Nonselective enrichment medium for isolation of Garnerella vaginalis

A

Vaginalis agar (V agar)

320
Q

Semi-selective medium for G. vaginalis

A

Human blood Tween agar (HBT)

321
Q

Selective enrichment medium used to culture mycobacteria

*Colonies are rough and buff

A

Lowenstein-Jensen

322
Q

Selective enrichment medium used to culture mycobacteria
* Isoniazid-resistant strains grow better

A

Middlebrook 7H10 and 7H11

323
Q

Enrichment medium for isolation of Leptospira from blood, CSF, and urine

A

Fletcher medium

324
Q

Catalase-Positive organisms

A

Nocardia
Pseudomonas
Listeria
Aspergillus
Candida
E. coli
Staphylococci
Serrati
B. cepacia
H. pylori

“Cats Need PLACESS to Belch their Hairballs”

325
Q

Slide test is a screening test. Detects bound coagulase (clumping factor)
If negative, tube test should be performed. Detects free coagulase

A

Coagulase test

326
Q

Agglutination of latex beads coated with fibrinogen and antibodies to protein A (protein in cell wall of S. aureus)

A

Slide agglutination tests for S. aureus

327
Q

test used for S. saprophyticus vs other CONS

A

Novobiocin

“NO SRES”

328
Q

Detect DNase activity in aerobic bacteria

A

DNase test

329
Q

Selective and differential for Staphylococcus species

A

Mannitol Salt agar (7.5% salt)

330
Q

Identify group A and group B beta hemolytic streptococci

A

Bacitracin- SXT Susceptibility

331
Q

Bacitracin and SXT results of
Group A strep:
Group B strep:
Not Group A /Group B:

A

Group A strep: S - R
Group B strep: R - R
Not Group A /Group B: R - S

“B-BRAS”

332
Q

Differentiate Enterococcus (+) spp from non Enterococcus spp (-)

Group A step are also +

(+): pink to cherry-red color after the addition of the color developer

A

PYRase test

333
Q

Identify group B streptococcus
Group B strep produces extracellular protein.
Characteristic “arrowhead” hemolytic pattern results when S. agalactiae is streaked perpendicularly to beta hemolytic S. aureus

A

CAMP

334
Q

Identify Group B streptococcus
Alternative to CAMP

(+): purple color after adding ninhydrin reagent

A

Hippurae hydrolysis

335
Q

Lancefield grouping of streptococci and enterococci (based on the antigenic nature of cell wall carbohydrates)

A

Slide agglutination tests

336
Q

Differentiate S. pneumonia (S) from other alpha hemolytic streptococci (R)

A

Optochin

“OVRPS”

337
Q

Optochin is also known as P disk. It contains:

A

Ethyl hydrocuprein hydrochloride

338
Q

Identification of S. pneumoniae (+)
Bile salts cause lysis of some organisms
(+): clearing of broth or disappearance of colony

A

Bile solubility

339
Q

Differentiate enterococcus (+) species from non-Enterococcus species (-)
Group A strep are also (+)

(+): Group D Enterococcus

“DE sa Pyr”

A

PYRase Test (PYR Test)

340
Q

Distinguish Group D Streptococcus and Enterococcus from other Lancefield groups
Group D strep can grow in 40% bile and hydrolyze esculin to form esculetin.
Esculetin reacts with ferric citrate to form a brown-black precipitate

A

Bile-Esculin Agar

341
Q

Differentiate group D streptococci from enterococci

A

6.5% Salt Broth (Salt Tolerance)

342
Q

Differentiate carbohydrates in CTA tubes are oxidized into organic acids that change phenol red into a yellow color
*Differentiate Neisseria species

A

Cystine Trypticase Agar (CTA) Sugars

343
Q

Sugar in N. gonorrhoeae
N. meningitidis
N. lactamica
N. sicca
N. elongata
M. catarrhalis

A

Glucose
Gluc, Maltose
Gluc, Maltose, Lac
Gluc, Maltose, Sucrose
(no sugar)
(no sugar)

344
Q

Good test to differentiate Enterobacteriacea from nonfermeters.
Cytochrome oxidase, in the presence of atmospheric oxygen to form a colored compound, indophenol
(+): Maroon-violet color within 30 seconds

A

Cytochrome oxidase

345
Q

Aids in identifying members of Enterobacteriaceae (mostly +)
-If organism reduced nitrates, red color develops

A

Nitrate reduction

346
Q

Differentiate Enterobacteriaceae members
All Enterobacteriaceae ferments glucose
-With phenol red indicator, change from red to yellow is positive result

A

Carbohydrate Fermentation

347
Q

Test for slow lactose fermentation
Helpful in differentiating Citrobacter (+) from most Salmonella (-)
-Changed to orthonitrophenol by beta-galactosidase

A

ONPG

348
Q

Good test to differentiate Salmonella (+) from Shigella (-)
-H2S reacts with iron salt in medium to form black ferrous sulfide

A

H2S production

349
Q

Differentiate Enterobacteriaceae members
-Sugar fermentation produces acid, changes color of pH indicator

A

Triple Sugar Iron (TSI) agar

350
Q

Examples of microorganisms with K/A TSIA result

A

Salmonela, Shigella, P. mirabilis, Citrobacter

351
Q

Examples of microorganisms with A/A TSIA result

A

E. coli
Klebsiella
Enterobacte
“EKE”
P. vulgaris, Citrobacter

352
Q

Examples of microorganisms with K/K TSIA result

A

P. aeruginosa
Never enterobacteriaceae

353
Q

Distinguish enterobacteriaceae.
Tryphtophan inthe medium is oxidized by certain bacteria which produce tryptophanase.
Indole reacts with p-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde to form a red product

A

Indole test

354
Q

Indole positive organisms

A

E. coli
P. vulgaris
K. oxytoca

355
Q

Differentiate lactose fermenting enterobacteriaceae using 40% KOH

A

Methyl Red- Voges Proskauer

356
Q

MR positive microoragnism

A

E. coli

357
Q

VP positive organisms

A

Klebsiella
Enterobacter
Serratia
Hafnia

“Si VP namigay ng KESH”

358
Q

Identification of lactose-dermenting enterobacteriaceae
Converts into ammonia, which is then converted to ammonium hydroxide.
the rise in pH causes a change in the color of the bromthymol blue indicator

A

Citrate

359
Q

Distinguish enterobacteriaceae. Causes color change of phenol red from light orange at pH 6.8 to magenta pink at pH 8.1

A

Urease

360
Q

Urease positive microorganisms

A

Proteus
Cryptococcus
H. pylori
Ureaplasma
Nocardia
Klebsiella
S. epidermidis
S. saprophyticus

“Pee CHUNKSS”

361
Q

Distinguish enterobacteriaceae wherein phenylaline deaminase deaminates phenylalanine to phenyl pyruvic acid, which reacts with ferric chloride to produce green color

A

Phenylalanine deaminase

362
Q

Microorganisms positive for PD

A

Proteus
Providencia
Morganella

PD-PPMo-Green

363
Q

IF an organisms has enzyme to decarboxylate amino acid
Distinguish enterobacteriaceae

A

Decarboxylase reactions

364
Q

Medium used contains a small amount of agar.

A

Motility

365
Q

2 organisms that are the only nonmotile Enterobacteriaceae

A

Shigella and Klebsiella

366
Q

This test is used to determine the ability of an organism to use acetamide as the sole source of carbon

A

Acetamide Utilization Test

367
Q

Organism positive for Acetamide Utilization test

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

368
Q

This test is used to determine if an organism can use acetate as the sole source of carbon

A

Acetate Utilization Test

369
Q

Positive microorganism for acetate utilization test

A

E. coli

370
Q

The only indole positive Enterobacteriaceae

A

K. oxytoca

371
Q

Lactose negative Enterobacteriaceae

A

Shigella
Edwardsiella
Salmonella
Citrobacter
Serratia
Proteus
Morganella
Providencia
Yersinia

372
Q

H2S positive Enterobacteriaceae

A

Proteus
Edwardsiella
Citrobacter
Salmonella

“PECS”

373
Q

VP Positive Enterobacteriaceae

A

Klebsiella
Enterobacter
Serratia
Hafnia

“Hafnia”

374
Q

PD Positive Enterobacteriaceae

A

Proteus
Providencia
Morganella
Klebsiella (slow)

375
Q

Urease positive Enterobacteriaceae

A

Pee CHUNKSS

376
Q

Nonmotile at 35 deg C Enterobacteriaceae

A

Shigella
Klebsiella
Yersinia (motile at 22 deg C)

377
Q

Enterobacteriaceae Lactose Fermenters

A

Escherichia
Klebsiella
Enterobacter

EKE

378
Q

Enterobacteriaceae that are Late Lactose Fermenters

A

Citrobacter
Salmonella arizona
Shigella sonnei
Serratia
Hafnia
Yersinia

379
Q

Enterobacteriaceae that are non-lactose fermenters

A

Proteus
Providencia
Morganella
Erwinia
Salmonella
Shigella
Edwardsiella

“PPMo SESE”

380
Q

There is an inverse linear relationship between the diameter of the zone of inhibited growth around the antibiotic disk and the logarithm of the minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC) of the antibiotic

A

Kirby-Bauer Disk Diffusion Test

381
Q

Kirby-Bauer Disk Diffusion uses ___ agar

A

Mueller-Hinton agar

382
Q

size of the MHA plate

A

150 x 15 mm plate

383
Q

pH of the MHA

A

7.2 - 7.4

384
Q

MHA depth

A

4 mm (some sources 4-6 mm)

385
Q

Density of the inoculum should be adjusted to ___ standard

A

0.5 McFarland standard (equivalent to 1.5 x 108 CFU/mL

386
Q

Composition of 0.5 McFarland standard

A

0.5 ml of 1.175% BaCl2 and 99.5 ml of 1% H2SO4

387
Q

Only overnight colonies less than ___ hours in Kirby-Bauer Disk Diffusion test should be tested

A

24 hours

388
Q

IN the AST, let the inoculum dry at least ___ minutes but not more than ___ minutes

A

5 minutes; 30 minutes

389
Q

Maximum number of disks per 150 mm plate

A

12 disks
(8 disks in outer ring, 4 disks in center)

390
Q

Apply antibiotic disks, tap down firmly, and wait ___ at room temperature to allow diffusion in to the medium

A

3-5 minutes (not more than 15 minutes)

391
Q

2 antibiotics that are best indicators of poor storage , as they are the first to deteriorate

A

Penicillin and methicillin

392
Q

Incubate AST plate at __

A

35 deg C for 16 to 18 hours

393
Q

Used to measure zone of inhibition with the unaided eye to the nearest mm using ___

A

Ruler, caliper or template

394
Q

Test QC strains of E. coli, S. aureus, P. aeruginosa, E. faecalis for 20 - 30 consecutive days.
If results are acceptable, frequency can reduced to ___

A

Weekly

395
Q

3 types of beta lactamase direct test

A

Acidometric
Iodometric
Chromogenic

396
Q

Chromogenic test that consists of a paper disk impregnated with a chromogenic cephalosporin. If the organism is producing beta lactamase, hydrolysis of the chromogenic cephalosporin will occur and the disk color will change from yellow to red, usually within a minute

A

Beta lactamase testing

397
Q

Standard inoculum added to serial dilutions of antibiotics and incubated.
The least amount of antibiotic (highest dilution) that prevents visible growth

A

Minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC)

398
Q

Concentration of antibiotic that results in 99.9% decreased in CFU/mL

A

Minimal bactericidal concentration (MBC)

399
Q

Serial dilutions of patient’s peak and trough specimens inoculated with standardized amount of patient’s pathogen and incubated overnight

A

Serum bactericidal test (Schlicter test)

400
Q

Test with oxacillin disk instead of penicllin. more sensitive in detecting resistance

A

Screen fro penicillin susceptibility in S. pneumoniae

401
Q

Oxacillin used as class representative for pencillinase-resistance penicillins. Organisms resistant to it is resistant to all.

A

Tests fro oxacillin- (methicillin)- resistant - S. aureus

402
Q

For detection of vancomycin-resistant enterococci

A

Vancomycin screen

403
Q

Plastic strip containing antibiotic concentration gradient placed on inoculum lawn on MH plate and incubated overnight.
Useful for testing fastidious organisms such as S. pneumoniae, other strep, H. influenae and anaerobes

A

E test

404
Q

TO detect inducible clindamycin resistance in MRSA isolates that are resistant to erythromycin and susceptible to clindamycin on initial testing.

A

D test

405
Q

Aerobic Gram positive cocci

A

Micrococcus
Enterococcus
Streptococcus
Staphylococcus

“MESS”

406
Q

Anaerobic gram positive cocci

A

Peptococcus
Peptostreptococcus
Sarcina

“PPS”

407
Q

Aerobic Gram positive bacilli

A

Bacillus
Corynebacterium
Erysipelothrix
Lactobacillus
Listeria
Mycobacterium
Nocardia

“BCELLMN”

408
Q

Anaerobic Gram positive bacilli

A

Actinomyces
Clostridium
Cutibacterium (Propionibacterium_

“ACC”

409
Q

Aerobic gram negative cocci

A

Moraxella catarrhalis
Neisseria

410
Q

Anaerobic gram negative cocci

A

Veillonella

411
Q

Anaerobic gram negative bacilli

A

Bacteriodes
Fusobacterium

412
Q

Pleomorphic

A

Mycoplasma, Ureaplasma
Anaplasma
Chlamydia
Erhlicia
Rickettsiae

413
Q

Spirochetes

A

Borrelia
Leptospira
Treponema

“BoLET”

414
Q

Separates Staphylococcus (and Micrococcus) from Streptococcus

A

Catalase test

415
Q

Why are colonies from blood agar not used in catalase test?

A

Blood has catalase and will give a false positive result
-Use tryptic soy agar instead

416
Q

-Gram positive spherical cells, usually arranged in grapelike clusters
-Non-motile and non-spore forming
-Grow on many types of media and are active metabolically
-Catalase positive
-Fermentative (produce acid in glucose anaerobically)
-Microdase negative
-Resistant to bacitracin
-Suspectible to furazolidone and lysostaphin

A

Staphylococcus

417
Q

Opportunistic pathogen. Infects prosthetic devices

A

S. epidermidis

418
Q

2nd most common cause of UTI in young sexually active females
“Honeymooner’s cystitis”
Nitrite negative on urine dipsticks

A

S. saprophyticus

419
Q

Often contaminant in blood culture

A

S. epidermidis

420
Q

Caused by ingestion of enterotoxin, a preformed toxin.
Classically associated with mayonnaise in potato or egg salad

A

Staphylococcal Food Poisoning

421
Q

microorganism that causes toxic shock syndrome using TSST-1. Most common cases are in menstruating women, especially those who are using tampons

A

S. aureus

422
Q

Newborn disease caused by S. aureus exfoliative tocxin (Exfoliatin)

A

Scalded skin syndrome

423
Q

Superficial cutaneous infection characterized by crusty (honey-crusted) lesions and vesicles surrounded by a red boarder.
Bullous type - caused by S. aureus or S. pyogenes

A

Impetigo

424
Q

Causes lobar pneumonia;
Classically occurs following influenza (“post-infectious”)

A

Pneumonia

425
Q

Rapid onset of symptoms in patients with NO pre-existing valve disease (unlike subacute bacterial endocarditis)

A

Acute bacterial endocarditis

426
Q

Common cause of osteomyelitis

A

S. aureus

427
Q

Formerly called enterotoxin F

A

Toxic shock syndrome toxin - 1 (TSST-1)

428
Q

Converts hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen

A

Catalase

429
Q

Spreading factor

A

Hyaluronidase

430
Q

Fibrinolysin

A

Staphylokinase

431
Q

-May be seen in pairs or chains
-Non pigmented colony
-Facultative anaerobes
-Hemolytic or non-hemolytic

A

Streptococcus

432
Q

Oxygen stable, non antigenic

A

Streptolysin O

433
Q

Oxygen labile, antigenic

A

Streptolysin O

434
Q

causes pharyngitis, cellulitis, impetigo (“Honey-crusted” lesions), erysipelas

A

Pyogenic

435
Q

15 - 30% pharyngitis are due to ___

A

S. pyogenes

436
Q

Scarlet fever, toxic shock-like syndrome, necrotixing fascitis

A

Toxigenic Strep

437
Q

Rash following pharyngitis
-skin reaction to erythrogenic toxin
-“sandpaper” skin
-strawberry tongue

A

Scarlet fever

438
Q

“Flesh eating disease”
-Infection of deep tissues
-streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxin

A

Necrotizing fasciitis

439
Q

Follows group A strep pharyngitis infection
-anti strep antibodies cross react with tissue antigens
-Type II autoimmune reaction

A

Rheumatic fever

440
Q

Nephritic syndrome 2-3 weeks after GAS infection

A

Glomerulonephritis

441
Q

Indicate recent S. pyogenes infection

A

ASO titer or anti-DNAse B antibodies

442
Q

Test susceptibility for scarlet fever
(+) redness or erythema of test site

A

Dick’s test

443
Q

Diagnostic test for current scarlet fever
(+) blanching phenomenon (rash fades at site of injection of anti-erythrogenic toxxin)

A

Schultz- Charlton Reaction

444
Q

-Colonizes vagina
-causes pneumonia, meningitidis, sepsis, mainly in babies
-most are resistant to bacitracin
-Bile esculin (-)
-PYR (-)
-confirm by precipitin (Lancefield) FA tests or Coagglutination tests
-CAMP (+)
-Hippurate hydrolysis (+)

A

Group B Beta hemolytic streptococci

445
Q

Major pathogen of the newborn
-screen pregnant women 35 - 37 weeks of gestation with rectal and vaginal swabs
-patients with positive cultures receive intrapartum penicillin prophylaxis

A

Group B Beta hemolytic streptococci

446
Q

Lancet-shaped encapsulated diplococci
Considered part of normal flora of the URT of preschool children
Produces IgA protease

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

447
Q

Principal virulence factor of S. pneumoniae

A

Antiphagocytic capsular polysaccharide

448
Q

Lobar pneumonia - associated with “rusty” sputum

A

S. pneumoniae

449
Q

Most common caus of bacterial pneumonia in elderly as well as in patients with underlying disease

A

S. pneumoniae

450
Q

Most common cause of bacterial meningitis in adults

A

S. pneumoniae

451
Q

On culture, appear as alpha-hemolytic, mucoid colonies with flattened or depressed centers

A

S. pneumoniae

452
Q

Oropharyngeal commensal; opportunistic pathogens of low virulence.
-subacute bacterial endocarditis at damaged heart valves
-dental caries

A

Viridians streptococci

453
Q

Normal colonic flora

A

E. faecalis and E. faecium

454
Q

Causes UTI (associated with catheters), biliary tract infections and subacute endocarditis (following GI/GU procedures)

A

Enterococcus

455
Q

Important cause of nosocomial infection

A

Vancomycin-resistant enterococci (VRE)

456
Q

Relatively resistant to cell wall agents (penicillin, ampicillin, vancomycin)
-PYR (+)
-Variable hemolysis

A

Enterococcus

457
Q

Normal colonic bacteria
-Rarely can cause bacteremia and subacute endocarditis
-Strongly associated with colon cancer

A

Streptococcus bovis (Streptococcus gallolyticus)

458
Q

-Oval gram-positive cocci in chains
-Usually beta hemolytic on SBA
-Bacitracin (S)
-SXT (R)
- PYR (+)

A

Group A streptococci (GAS)

459
Q

-Oval gram positive cocci in chains
-Narrow zone of diffuse beta hemolysis
- SXT and Bacitracin (R)
-Sodium hippurate (+)
-CAMP (+)

A

Group B Streptococci (GBS)

460
Q

-Oval, gram positive cocci in chains
-Usually non hemolytic
-Hydrolyzes esculin

A

Group D streptococci, nonenterococci

461
Q

-Oval, PC in pairs and chains
-Usually alpha or nonhemolytic
-Hydrolyzes esculin
-Grows in 6.5% NaCl broth
-PYR positive

A

Enterococcus

462
Q

-Football-shaped (lancet-shaped) GPC. Usually in pairs. May be single or in short chains. Frequently encapsulated.
-Bile solubility (+)
-Optochin (S)

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

463
Q

-GPC
-Usually alpha hemolytic
-Optochin (R)
-Bile solubility (-)

A

Viridans streptococci

464
Q

-GC in pairs, chains
-Butterscotch or caramel odor on SBA
-Usually Lancefield group F
-PYR (-)
-VP (+)
-require 10% CO2
-Grow better anaerobically

A

Microaerophilic

465
Q

Aerobic, gram-positive spore-forming rods;
-catalase (+)
Most (but not all) are motile

A

Bacillus

466
Q

The only true pathogenic Bacillus
-domesticated animals are the main host
-Causes anthrax

A

B. anthracis

467
Q

Most common type of anthrax
-characteristic black painless eschar (ulcer) at the site of inoculation with surrounding edema;
can lead to sepsis

A

Cutaneous anthrax

468
Q

Antiphagocytic virulence factor of B. anthracis

A

Poly-d-glutamic acid capsule

469
Q

EF + PA
Responsible for cell and tissue edema

A

Edema toxin

470
Q

LF + PA
Cause of death in infected animals and humans

A

Lethal toxin

471
Q

-Non motile, nonhemolytic on SBA at 24 hours
-Encapsulated (from px)
-Spore-forming cells stain with bamboo pole arrangement
-Rounds up with media in penicillin (“Strings of pearls test”)
-“Medusa Head” colonies on blood agar
-“Boxcar” appearance (central spores)

A

B. anthracis

472
Q

could cause food poisoning

A

B. cereus

473
Q

Associated with fried rice, milk and pasta
Caused by ingestion of preformed emetic toxin

A

Emetic type of B. cereus

474
Q

Associated with meat dishes and sauces, ingested spores develop into vegetative cells that secrete enterotoxins

A

Diarrheal type of B. cereus

475
Q

Diphteria bacillus/ Kleb Loeffler’s bacillus

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

476
Q

An acute, contagious disease characterized by the production of a systemic toxin and a false membrane lining on the throat (pseudomembranous)

A

Diphteria

477
Q

-Non-motile
-Nitrate reduction (+)
-Urease (-)
-Catalase (+)
-Glucose and maltose fermented
-Sucrose not fermented

A

C. diphtheriae

478
Q

Carried by beta-prophage
-“Lysogenic” phage –> incorporates DNA into bacteria

A

Diphtheria exotoxin

479
Q

C. diphtheriae has a direct smear with ___

A

Loffler’s methylene blue
(culture on Loeffler serum or Pai coagulated egg medium)

480
Q

Arranged in palisades (“picket fence”) or “Chinese letters” (snapping)
-Metachromatic granules (Babes-Ernest granules)

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

481
Q

Special culture media required for C. diphtheriae

A

Loeffler’s or Tinsdale (Tellurite plate)

482
Q

Media to enhance pleomorphisms and granule production of C. diphtheriae

A
  1. Loeffler serum agar (+) poached egg colonies
  2. Pai coagulated egg medium
483
Q

Skin test for C. diphtheria susceptibility

A

Schick’s test

484
Q

In vitro virulence test for toxin production of C. diphtheriae
-Soak a paper strip in diphtheria antitoxin (100U/mL)
-Produce thin lines of precipitate

A

Elek method

485
Q

The paper strip in Elek method is soaked in ____

A

Diphtheria antitoxin (100U/ml)

486
Q

In Elek method (C. diphteriae), what is produced by the toxin and antitoxin at 45 degrees angle

A

Thin lines of precipitate

487
Q

Nonlipophilic coryneform bacteria

A

C. pseudodiphtheriticum (Hoffman’s bacillus)

488
Q

Normal flora of the human nasopharynx

A

C. pseudodiphtheriticum

489
Q

C. pseudodiphtheriticum characteristics

A

Nitrate (+), and urea hydrolysis (+)

490
Q

Can cause disease similar to clinical diphtheria;
carriage in domestic pets

A

C. ulcerans

491
Q

Corynebacterium spp that rarely cause diseases in humans

A

C. pseudotuberculosis

492
Q

Other Corynebacterium spp isolated from clinical material

A

C. xerosis
C. striatum
C. minutissimum
C. amycolatum

493
Q

Growth is enhanced by lipids

A

Lipophilic coryneform bacteria

494
Q

Common cause of diphtheroid prosthestic heart valve endocarditis;
multiple antibiotic resistance allows survival in hospital setting

A

C. jeikeium

495
Q

Slowly growing species that multiply resistant to antibiotics
Urease (+)
UTI in immunocompromised patients
Produces alkaline urine and crystal formation

A

C. urealyticum

496
Q

Gram (+) or gram variable coccobacillus (resembling Haemophilus), or diphteroid-like rods

A

Listeria monocytogenes

497
Q

Facultative intracellular
Catalase positive
Tumbling motility on hanging drop technique
Hippurate hydrolysis positive
Esculin (+); Salicin (+)
CAMP (+)
Grows from 0.5 to 45 deg C. Cold enrichment may be used

A

Listeria monocytogenes

498
Q

CAMP (+)
Hemolysis looks like shovel

A

L. monocytogenes

499
Q

Used to detect beta hemolysis of L. monocytogenes

A

Sheep blood agar

500
Q

L. monocytogenes produces blue-green colonies in this medium

A

Tryptose agar

501
Q

Media that uses sheep blood for L. monocytogenes

A

McBride Listeria medium

502
Q

What shall you use for contaminated specimens, which inhibits gram negative organisms

A

Phenylethylalcohol agar

503
Q

Storage for Suspect cultures and tissues

A

Hold at 4 deg C up to 6 months
Subculture weekly for 1 month, and monthly thereafter

504
Q

Characteristic motility of L. monocytogenes

A

Umbrella-shaped pattern

505
Q

Virulence test for L. monocytogenes
Culture instilled in rabbit eye causes purulent conjuctivitis

A

Anton test

506
Q

Difference of Listeria from Corynebacteria

A

Nonmotile, Salicin (-)

507
Q

L. monocytogenes causes ___ diseases

A
  1. Gastroenteritis
  2. Meningitis
  3. Infection in pregnancy
  4. Granulomatosis infantiseptica
508
Q

Severe in utero infection from Listeria
Disseminated abscessess and or granulomas

A

Granulomatosis Infantiseptica

509
Q
  1. Slender, pleomorphic gram pos rods that form filaments;
  2. May be alpha hemolytic on blood agar;
  3. Decolorizes easily on gram stain thus may appear as gram negative
  4. Catalase, oxidase, indole (-)
    p
  5. H2S positive
A

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

510
Q

Disease caused by E. rhusiopathiae (aka “seal finger” and “whale finger”)
painful, pruritic, well circumscribed inflammatory skin lesion with a raised violaceous edge and central clearing

A

Erysipeloid

511
Q

Characteristic pattern of E. rhusiopathiae in motility medium

A

Test tube brush pattern

512
Q

Obligate aerobes
Slender, nonspore forming, acid-fast, gram positive rods (do not gram stain well)
with waxy cell wall containing mycolic acid

A

Mycobacterium

513
Q

Stains for mycobacterium

A
  1. acid fast
  2. Auramine-rhodamine fluorescent stain (Truant)
514
Q

Kinds of digestant for Mycobacterium

A
  1. NAC (N-acetyl-L-cysteine-NaOH) - preffered
  2. 2-4% NaOH
515
Q

Culture media for Mycobacterium are incubated in what percent CO2

A

5-10%

516
Q

Culture media for Mycobacterium that renders green color and is opaque

A

Lowenstein-Jensen (LJ)

517
Q

Culture media that is good for niacin test

A

Lowenstein-Jensen media

518
Q

Clear agar for Mycobacteria
Can see colony early
Good for antimicrobial susceptibility test

A

Middlebrook 7H10 or 7H11 agar

519
Q

Both L-J and Middlebroom media contain ___
which enhances human strain of M. tuberculosis

A

Glycerol

520
Q

Identification of mycobacteria is based on ___

A

pigment production, growth rate, and biochemical reactions

521
Q

Best test for M. tuberculosis

A

Niacin test

522
Q

M. tuberculosis is positive in 10 - 20 days using this test.
Runyon groups II and III are positive in 5 days
Hydrolysis releases oleic acid, which turns neutral red (indicator) from amber to pink

A

Enzymatic hydrolysis of Tween 80 (polyethylene derivative of sorbitan mono-oleate)

523
Q

M. tuberculosis (+)
M. bovis (-)
M. kansasi (+ control)

A

Nitrate redution

524
Q

Almost all mycobacteria are

A

catalase positive

525
Q

Incubation of mycobacteria

A

69 deg C for 30 mins

526
Q

After incubation of mycobacteria, M. tuberculosis and M. bovis are catalase ____

A

negative

527
Q

The loss or reduction of catalase activity pf M. tuberculosis and M. bovis indicates resistance to

A

Isoniazid (INH)

528
Q

What medium is used in which the growth of M. fortuitum complex is positive

A

MacConkey medium

529
Q

Colonial morphology: Rough, wrinkled, dry, elevated, buff-colored (cauliflower-like) at 35 - 37 deg C

A

M. tuberculosis

530
Q

How many weeks does M. tuberculosis grow

A

2-3 weeks

531
Q

Niacin (+) yellow color
Tween 80 hydrolyzed in 10 - 20 days (pink color)
Nitrate (+)
Catalase ata 68 deg C (-)
No growth on MacConkey medium
Arylsulfatase (-)

A

M. tuberculosis

532
Q

M. tuberculosis is easily killed by

A

Moist heat
Boiling for 10 mins
Pasteurization
Steam under pressure (autoclave)

533
Q

Associated with skin lesions in tropical and subtropical areas (Buruli ulcers in Africa)

A

M. ulcerans

534
Q

Requires several weeks of incubation at 32 deg C

A

M. ulcerans (6-9 weeks)

535
Q

Niacin (-)
Nitrate reduction (-)
Tween 80 (-)

A

M. ulcerans

536
Q

Photochromogens

A

M. marinum
M. asiaticum
M. simiae
M. kansasii

537
Q

Scotochromogens

A

M. scrofulaceum
M. szulgai
M. gordonae (“tap water scrotochromogen”)
M. flavescens

538
Q

Non-photochromogens

A

M. avium-intracellulare
M. malmoense
M. haemophilum
M. terrae-trivale
M. xenopi

539
Q

Rapid growers

A

M. phlei
M. smegmatis
M. fortuitum-chelonae complex

540
Q

Most common non-TB mycobacterial infection

A

Mycobacterium avium complex

541
Q

Very rare cause of pulmonary disease in non-HIV
Causes disseminated disease in HIV/AIDS with low CD4 count (<50)

A

M. avium complex

542
Q

Hansen’s Bacillus

A

Mycobacterium leprae

543
Q

obligate intracellular organism; reservoir is armadillos

A

M. leprae

544
Q

Causes Hansen’s disease (leprosy)

A

M. leprae

545
Q

Macrophages containing acid-fast bacilli

A

Lepra cells

546
Q

Milder form of leprosy;
strong cell-mediated TH1 response contains infections;
patches of hypopigmented skin with loss of sensation over affected area;
(+) granuloma

A

Tuberculoid leprosy

547
Q

Severe disease;
depressed cell-mediated immunity;
diffuse skin lesions with often deformed, thickened skin ;
(-) granuloma

A

Lepromatous leprosy

548
Q

Skin test for leprosy using a sterile extract from lepromatous nodules

A

Lepromin test

549
Q

Early or Fernandez reaction

A

24 - 48 hours

550
Q

Late or Mitsuda reaction

A

3 - 4 weeks

551
Q

Thin, branching and beaded modified acid fast positive rods

A

Nocardia

552
Q

Obligate Aerobe
Partially acid-fast
delicate mycelium
Fragmenting into bacillary forms
Catalase (+) and Urease (+)

A

Nocardia

553
Q

Inhalation of Nocardia causes ___, which presents as a subacute to chronic pulmonary infection that may disseminate to other organs, usually the brain or skin, not transmitted from person to person

A

Nocardosis

554
Q

Tissue picture:
Gram (+), not stained with H&E or with special fungus stains
Partially acid fast with Kinyoun stain

A

Nocardia

555
Q

Gram neg
coffee bean shaped diplococci with adjacent sides flattened;
non-motile
Fastidious
Aerobic and capnophilic
Optimal growth in a moist environment
oxidase and catalase (+)

A

Neisseria

556
Q

Oxidase and catalase (-) neisseria

A

N. elongata

557
Q

-Never considered as normal flora
-Transmitted via sexual contact; infected mother to newborn during delivery
-GND, intracellular and or extracellular within polymorphonuclear neutrophils

A

N. gonorrhoeae

558
Q

Principal virulence factor of N. gonorrhoeae

A

Pili

559
Q

Function in adhesion of gonococci within colonies and in attachement of gonococci to host cell receptors

A

Opa proteins

560
Q

Prophylaxis for Gonococcal ophthalmia neonatorum

A

1% silver nitrate solution (Crede’s method),
tetracyclin or erythromycin ointment

561
Q

Neisseria spp that colonizes nasopharynx of healthy people

A

N. meningitidis

562
Q

Outer membrane of N. meningitidis consists of ____ and ___ that play major roles in organism virulence

A

proteins and LPS

563
Q

More severe pathology of N. meningitidis

A

Fulminant meningococcemia

564
Q

Most common complication of meningococcemia

A

Meningitis

565
Q

DIC and circulatory collapse (N. meningitidis)

A

Waterhouse-Friedrichsen Syndrome

566
Q

Prone to recurrent Neisseria meningitidis infection (usu meningitis)

A

Patients with C5 - C9 deficiency

567
Q

Rarely causes disease
Important because it grows in selective media for gonococci and meningococci from clinical specimens;
-can be cultured from the nasop

A

N. lactamica

568
Q

Sometimes resembles N. gonorrhoeae because of its morphology and positive hydroxyprolyl aminopeptidase reaction

A

N. cinera

569
Q

Gonococci and meningococci should be incubated in cultures in ____

A

5-10% CO2 and 50-70% humidity

570
Q

Encourages growth of broth Haemophilus and Neisseria

A

Chocolate agar

571
Q

enriched chocolate agar with vancomycin, colistin, nystatin (VCN) inhibitor

A

Thayer-Martin medium

572
Q

Antibiotic that inhibits G+ organisms

A

Vancomycin

573
Q

antibiotic that inhibits gram-neg rods

A

Colistin

574
Q

Antibiotic that inhibits yeasts

A

Nystatin

575
Q

Culture media for gonococci and meningococci that includes trimethoprim lactate to discourage spreading of Proteus

A

Modified Thayer-Martin (MTM agar)

576
Q

Culture media for gonococci and meningococci that contains anisomycin instead of nystatin

A

Martin-Lewis Agar

577
Q

ulture media for gonococci and meningococci that contains amphotericin B instead of nystatin

A

New York City Agar

578
Q

Reagent of oxidase

A

1% tetramethyl-p-phenylenediamine dihydrochloride

579
Q

___ in chrome loop can give a false positive reaction

A

Iron

580
Q

4 Genera that are oxidase positive

A

Neisseria
Aeromonas
Moraxella
Pseudomonas

581
Q

Percent concentration of H2O2 of Superoxol test

A

20 - 30%

582
Q

IF the culture is still positive after patient is treated with penicillin, test isolate for ___ (neisseria)

A

Beta lactamase

583
Q

Some strains of neisseria are resistant to penicillin because they produce penicillinase are called ____

A

Penicillinase Producing N. gonorrhoeae (PPNG)

584
Q

Test used for direct detection of N. gonorrhoeae in genitourinary specimens (preferred tests for these specimens)

A

Nucleic Acid Amplification Tests (NAAT)

585
Q

Member of the normal microbiota in 40 - 50% of healthy school children

A

Moraxella catarrhalis

586
Q

-Encapsulated and with pili that serve as adhesins
-can be differentiated from Neisseria by its lack of carbohydrate fermentation and by its production of DNase
-produces butyrate esterase, which forms the basis of rapid fluorometeric tests for identification

A

Moraxella catarrhalis

587
Q

Most strains of this microorganism from clinically significant infections produce ___ but are still usually susceptible to cephalosporins, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole and beta-lactamase inhibitor combinaations

A

Beta-lactamase

588
Q

-Gram negative rods that are either motile with peritrichous flagella or non-motile
-Facultative anaerobes that grow well on artificial media
-Catalase (+)
-Oxidase (-)
-Reduce nitrate to nitrite
-Fermenters (produce acid in presence or absence of oxygen)
-All are glucose fermenters with or without gas production

A

Enterobacteriaceae

589
Q

Contains lactose permease and beta galactosidase

A

Lactose fermenters

590
Q

Contains beta galactosidase only

A

Late lactose fermenters

591
Q

Contains no lactose permease and beta galactosidase

A

Non-lactose fermenters

592
Q

Somatic antigen. found in the cell wall
-have lipopolysaccharide, heat stable
-used for serological grouping of Salmonella and Shigella

A

O antigen

593
Q

-Flagellar antigens
-Located in the flagella
-Heat labile, proteins
-Used to serotype Salmonella

A

H antigen

594
Q

-Capsular antigen
-Polysaccharide, heat labile, may mask O antigen
-Removed by heating
-Role in preventing phagocytosis
-Increasing virulence
-Vi antigen is K antigen produced by S. typhi

A

K antigen

595
Q

Colon bacillus

A

Escherichia coli

596
Q

EMB Green metallic sheen

A

E. coli

597
Q

IMVC: ++–

A

E. coli

598
Q

Diseases caused by E. coli

A

Diarrhea
UTI
Neonata meningitis
Gram neg sepsis

“DUNG”

599
Q

Organisms that causes neonatal meningitis

A

Group B strep
E. coli
L. monocytogenes

600
Q

Also known as Shiga toxin - producing STEC or verotxin-producing (VTEC)

A

Enterohemorrhagic (EHEC)

601
Q

-causes diarrhea, hemorrhagic colitis, HUS
-undercooked meat, raw milk, apple cider

A

EHEC

602
Q

Most common isolate of group and pathogen most often isolated from bloody stools

A

E. coli O157:H7

603
Q

Culture media for EHEC

A

SMAC

604
Q

-Traveler’s diarrhea (aka Montezuma’s revenge, Turista)
-diarrhea in infants
-transmitted by contaminated food or water

A

ETEC

605
Q

-Bloody diarrhea, dysentery-like
-usually in young children in areas of poor sanitation
-causes invasiveness

A

EIEC

606
Q

-diarrhea in infants (p=pediatric)
-major pathogen in infants in developing countries
-transmitted in formula and food contaminated with fecal material
-adherence - attachment
-watery diarrhea with mucus

A

EPEC

607
Q

-Diarrhea in developing countries
-Chronic diarrhea in HIV-infected patients
-Nosocomial and community acquired
-most labs can’t detect

A

EAEC

608
Q

Complicates 10% EHEC cases; usually occurs 5-7 days after diarrhea
TRIAD:
1. Hemolytic anemia
2. Acute renal failure
3. Thrombocytopenia

A

HUS

609
Q

-Intestinal flora
-Have large polysaccharide capsules; nonmotile
-colonies are usually mucoid in appearance
-lysine decarboxylase (+) and citrate (+)
-causes infection among patients with impaired host defenses (alcoholics, diabetics, with comorbidites)

A

Klebsiella

610
Q

Common ventilator-associated pneumonia and is also associated with alcoholism (pneumococcus is still more common) and aspiration
-Lobar pneumonia with a high incidence of abscesses and thick, bloody (dark red or “currant jelly”) sputum

A

Klebsiella pneumonia

611
Q

Only indole positive Klebsiella

A

K. oxytoca

612
Q

2 most common Enterobacter spp

A

E. aerogenes, E. cloacae

613
Q

-Motile, almost the same IMVIC reaction as Klebsiella
-citrate and ornithine decarboxyolase (+)
- cause opportunistic and nosocomial infections
-resistant to many antibiotics
-extended-spectrum beta-lactamases
-resistance to most beta-lactams; penicillins, cephalosphorins, aztreonam

A

Enterobacter

614
Q

-Flagellated and motile
-Encapsulated
-Produce H2S

A

Salmonella

615
Q

In ____, Salmonella osteomyelitis is a serious and recurring problem

A

sickle cell patients

616
Q

Typhoid enteric fever is caused mainly by ___

A

S. typhi

617
Q

Disease and causative agent of a characteristic “rose spots” rash that may appear on the trunk of the patient in the second to third weeks.
-classically presents with pulse-temperature dissociation
-after recovery, 3% of px become carriers; the organism may be retained in the gallbladder and biliary passages

A

Enteric fever caused by S. typi or S. paratyphi

618
Q

-nonmotile, fragile organism; closely relate to E. coli
-causative agent of shigellosis

A

Shigella

619
Q

Most communicable of bacterial diarrhea (<200 bacilli needed to infect a person)

A

Shigellosis

620
Q

Produces swarming on agar
Burnt chocolate odor on culture

A

Proteus

621
Q

Most common proteus spp.
Indole (+)
TSI: K/A

A

P. mirabilis

622
Q

-Indole (+)
-TSI: A/A because of sucrose fermentation

A

P. vulgaris

623
Q

Struvite kidney stones then to urinary tract obstruction

A

Proteus

624
Q

Mainly nosocomial infections
UTI
Wound infections

A

Morganella morganii

625
Q

Slow lactose fermenters

A

Citrobacter, Serratia marcescens

626
Q

Can be found in normal GI flora
Gram negative sepsis (with other GN bugs)

A

Citrobacter

627
Q
A
628
Q

Found in domesticated animals

A

Yersinia enterocolitica

629
Q

Mimic Crohn’s disease or appendicitis

A

Yersinia enterocolitica

630
Q

Cause of bubonic plague “black death”

A

Yersinia pestis

631
Q

Humans get bubonic plague from rat flea bites of ____

A

Xenopsylla cheopis

632
Q

Chief reservoir are reptiles and freshwater fish

A

Edwardsiella tarda

633
Q

Causes UTI and diarrhea

A

Providencia

634
Q

Only oxidase positive enterobacteriaceae

A

Plesiomonas shigelloides

635
Q

Pleomorphic gram negative rods in singles, pairs, short chains, or long filaments
Grows on SBA and CHOC, most grow on MAC

A

Plesiomonas shigelloides

636
Q

Most common nonfermenter

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

637
Q

Gram neg, motile rods with single polar flagella

A

P. aeruginosa

638
Q

beta hemolytic, obligate aerobe that grows readily on many types of culture media, sometimes producing a sweet or grape-like or corn taco-like odor

A

P. aeruginosa

639
Q

Nonfluorescing bluish pigment; often produced by P. aeruginosa

A

Pyocyanin

640
Q

Fluorescent yellow pigment

A

Fluorescein

641
Q

Fluorescent green pigment

A

Pyoverdin

642
Q

Dark red pigment

A

Pyorubin

643
Q

Pyomelanin

A

Black pigment

644
Q

Oxidizes glucose, citrate (+), oxidase (+), catalase (+)

A

P. aeruginosa

645
Q

gives rise to blue-green pus

A

P. aeruginosa

646
Q

Meningitis when introduced by lumbar puncture or during neurosurgical procedure

A

P. aeruginosa

647
Q

Chronic pneumonia in cystic fibrosis patients

A

P. aeruginosa

648
Q

An exopolysaccharide is responsible for the mucoid colonies seen in cultures from cytic fibrosis patients with chronic pneumonia

A

Alginate (P. aeruginosa)

649
Q

“Swimmer’s ear”
invasive, malignant otitis externa in patients with diabetes

A

Mild otitis externa (P. aeruginosa)

650
Q

Causes eye infection after surgery or surgical procedures

A

P. aeruginosa

651
Q

P. aeruginosa Causes fatal sepsis in infants or debilitated persons; hemorrhagic necrosis of the skin in which the lesions are called

A

ecthyma gangrenosum

652
Q

P. aeruginosa causes ___, associated with poorly chlorinated hot tubs and swimming pools

A

folliculitis

653
Q

P. aeruginosa causes ___ in IV drug users

A

Osteomyelitis

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