Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Reviewers > Blood banking > Flashcards

Blood banking Flashcards

1
Q

Study of transmission of inherited characteristics

A

Genetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Genes expressed in equal frequency in males and females

A

Autosomal genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Genes carried on X chromosomes

A

Sex-linked genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A segment of DNA arranged along the chromosome at a specific locus

A

Gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Genes in a locus that differs in their nucleotide sequence

A

Alleles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

2 or more possible alleles at a locus

A

Polymorphic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

2 or more different genes that may occupy a specific locus on a chromosome

A

Allelic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Opposite form of a gene

A

Antithetical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Genes occur in pairs; one gene is passed from parent to the offspring

A

Medelian Genetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Genes occurs in pairs; one gene is passed from parent to the offspring

A

Mendelian Genetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Two members of a single gene pair is passed from one generation to the next in separate genes

A

Law of Independent Segregation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Traits inherited from different chromosomes expressed separately and discretely

A

Law of Independent Assortment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The inheritance of a blood group antigens can be predicted using a ___

A

Punnett square

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Inherits identical alleles at the same gene locus from both parents

A

Homozygous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Inherits different alleles at the same gene locus from each parent

A

Heterozygous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Concentration of antigens

A

Dosage effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Genes inherited on the same chromosome

A

Cis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Genes are inherited on separate chromosomes

A

Trans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Genes that are close together on a chromosome and inherited as one unit

A

Linkage genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Set of genes inherited via one of the two parental gametes

A

Haplotypes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Genes that do not produce a detectable trait

A

Amorphs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

ABO ISBT

A

001

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

MNS ISBT

A

002

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

P ISBT

A

003

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Rh ISBT

A

004

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Lutheran ISBT

A

005

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Kell ISBT

A

006

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Lewis ISBT

A

007

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Duffy ISBT

A

008

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Kidd ISBT

A

009

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Diego ISBT

A

010

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Testing of genetic markers that are inherited to determine the presence or absence of a biological relationship

A

Relationship (Parentage) testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

RBC antigens

A

ABO
Rh
MNSs
Kell
Duffy
Kidd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Used when bands between the child and the alleged father do not match

A

Mismatch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Minimum of ___ mismatches is required before an opinion of nonpaternity

A

Two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Likelihood of paternity or probability of paternity

A

W value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

W value must be ____ to suggest paternity

A

At least 95%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Occurs when a marker is detected in the child and is absent in the mother and the alleged father or when the alleged father’s phenotype demonstrates two markers and the child has neither of them

A

Direct or primary exclusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Occurs when a single marker is detected in the child and a different single marker is detected in the alleged father

A

Indirect or secondary exclusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Factors affecting agglutination

A

Temperature
Incubation time
pH
Ionic strength
Zeta potential
Zone of equivalence
Centrifugation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Optimum antigen-antibody ratio

A

40:1 = 2 drops of serum + 1 drop of 5% RCE
133:1 = 4 drops of serum + 1 drop of 3% RCS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

An agglutination pattern in which numerous small clumps if cells exist amid a sea of free cells

A

Mixed field (mf)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Serologic testing of autoantibodies

A

Autocontrol
DAT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Serologic testing for alloantibodies

A

O cell control
Antibody screen
Crossmatch
DAT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

2 diseases under alloimmune hemolytic anemia

A

HTR
HDFN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

3 types of immune hemolytic anemia

A

Alloimmune HA
Autoimmune HA
Drug induced immune HA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Antibodies that can cause HTR and HDFN

A

IgG (warm reactive antibody)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Blood group with IgM antibody that can cause HTR, HDFN

A

ABO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Discovered the ABO blood group

A

Karl Landsteiner (1901)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Book (discovery of blood groups and their association with transfusion reaction

A

Specificity of Serologic Reactions (Karl Landsteiner) in 1917

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Discovered blood type AB

A

Alfredo Descatello and Adriano Sturlie

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

3 genes that code for A, B, O are located on ___

A

Chrimosome 9q

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

ABO antigens are developed in utero at ___ of gestation; full expression occurs between ____

A

5-6 weeks;
2-4 years of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Linkage of type 1

A

Beta-1,3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Linkage of type 2

A

Beta-1,4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Origin of type 1 oligosaccharide chains

A

Plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Origin of type 2 oligosaccharide

A

Seen on erythrocytic precursors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Controlling genes of type 1 oligosaccharide

A

H
A
B
Se
Lewis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Controlling genes of type 2 oligosaccharide

A

H
A
B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Composition of precursor substance RBC membrane

A

Glucose -D-Galactose-N-acteylglucodamine-D-glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Number of H antigen subtypes

A

4
H1, H2, H3, H4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Amount of H antigen (most to fewest)

A

O > A2 > B > A2B > A1 > A1B

Oh! Eto! Bhe! Eto Bhe! Ewan! Ewan Bhe!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

RBC antigens are only synthesized on ___ precursor chains

A

Type 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Enzyme in ABH antigens on red cells

A

a-2-L-fucosyltransferase by H gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Substances secreted by A, B and H soluble substances

A

Glycoprotein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Secreted substances in A,B,H soluble substances are synthesized on ___ precursor chain

A

Type 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Secretor (SeSe, Sese) is seen in ___ of random population

A

78%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Non secretor (sese) is seen in ___ of random population

A

22%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Naturally occurring antibody; production initiated at birth; predominantly IgM

A

ABO antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Detectable titers of ABO antibodies _____
Peaks at ____

A

3-6 months
5-10 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Principle of ABO typing technique

A

Hemagglutination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Using known sources of reagent antisera (anti+A, anti-B) to detect antigens on an individual’s red cells

A

Forward grouping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Checks the reaction of anti-A and anti-B reagents
Detects weak subgroups of A and B

A

Anti A, B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Principle for the test for determination of secretor status

A

Hemagglutination inhibition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Color of Anti-A reagent

A

Blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Color of anti-B reagent

A

Yellow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Chemical preservatives of reagents

A

Sodium azide (0.1%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Proteins present in plants that bind specifically to carbohydrate determinants and agglutinate erthrocytes through their cell surface oligosaccharide determinants

A

Lectins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Peanut extract

A

Arachis hypogaea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Soybean extract

A

Glycine soja

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Using reagent cells with known A1 and B antigens testing the serum of the patient for ABO group antibodies

A

Reverse grouping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Human source; 4-5% RCS

A

Reagent A1 cells and B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

hh genotype
No H antigens formed
Same phenotype as blood group O
Anti-A, anti-B, anti-A,B, and anti-H present in the serum

A

Bombay phenotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Discovered by von Dungern/Dungren and Hirszfield in 1911

A

ABO subgroups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

population frequency of people with A1 phenotype

A

80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

population frequency of people with A2 phenotype

A

20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

1-8% of A2 and 25% of A2B can form ___

A

Anti-A1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Mixed field agglutination with anti-A and or anti-A,B

A

A3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Weak agglutination with anti-A,B only

A

Ax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

< or = red cells show very weak mf agglutination

A

Aend

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

No agglutination with anti-A and anti-A,B;
secretors demonstrate quantities of A substance in saliva

A

Am

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

No agglutination with anti-A and anti-A,B;
secretors contain small amount of A substance in saliva

A

Ay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

No agglutination with anti-A and anti-A,B;
secretors contain only H substance and no A substance in saliva

A

Ael

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Mixed field agglutination with anti-B and or anti-A,B

A

B3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

agglutination with anti-A,B (wk/0 with anti-B)

A

Bx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

no agglutination with with anti-B and anti-A,B;
secretors demonstrate quantities of B substance in saliva

A

Bm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

No agglutination with anti-B and anti-A,B;
secretors contain only H substance and no B substance in saliva

A

Bel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

weakly reacting or missing antibodies

A

Group I discrepancies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

weakly reacting or missing antigens

A

Group II discrepancies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Occurs when bacterial enzymes modify immunodominant blood sugar A sugar (N-acetyl-D-galactosamine) into D-galactosamine which cross reacts with anti-B antisera

A

Acquired B phenomenon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

resolution of acquired B phenomenon

A

Use monoclonal anti-B clone;
Treat RBCs using acetic anhydride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Resolution of Group I and II discrepancies

A

Use 2-5% RBCs;
Incubate sample and reagent at room temperature (20-24 deg C) for 15 - 30 mins –> if negative –> incubate at refrigerator temperature (4 deg C)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

protein or plasma abnormalities resulting to rouleaux formation

A

Group III discrepancies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Resolution of Group III discrepancies

A

Wash RBCs with saline several times (6-8 washings)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

refers to agglutination of altered RBCs by a large proportion of ABO-compatible adult human sera

A

Polyagglutination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

passive adsorption of bacterial products: T, Th, Tk, Tx, Acquired B, VA

A

Microbially associated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

mutation of hematopoietic tissue: Tn

A

Non-microbially associated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Confirmation of polyagglutination:
if RBCs show
1) agglutination with ___ and
2) No agglutination with ___

A

most adult sera;
cord sera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

patient’s RBCs are agglutinated by ALL including OWN serum

A

Panagglutination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

refers to inheritance of both AB genes form one parent carried on one chromosome and an O gene inherited from the other parent

A

Cis-AB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Resolution of group IV discrepancies due to cold antibodies

A

RBC: wash with saline at 37 deg C or use 0.01 M Dithiothreitol (DTT)
Serum: Warm at 37 deg C then read results at 37 deg C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Discovered the Rh blood group

A

Karl Landsteiner ans Alex Wiener

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Primary cause of hemolytic disease of the fetus and the newborn (HDFN) and significant cause of HTR

A

Rh Blood group system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Based on the theory that 3 closely linked sets of alleles produced antigens in the system, each gene was responsible for producing a product or antigen on the red cell surface

A

Fisher Race

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Postulated that the gene responsible for defining Rh actually produced an agglutinogen that contained a series of blood factors, in which each factor is an antigen recognized by an antibody

A

Wiener

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

number is assigned to each antigen of the Rh system in order of its discovery

A

Rosenfield

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Codes for the presence or absence of D

A

RHD gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Codes for the expression of the CcEE genes

A

RHCE gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

codes for Rh-associated glycoprotein

A

RHAG gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Most common phenotype in Whites

A

R1r (31%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Most common phenotype in Blacks

A

R0r (23%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Rh phenotypes in Whites

A

R1 > r > R2 > R0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Rh phenotypes in Blacks

A

R0 > r > R1 > R2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Rh phenotypes in Asians

A

R1 > R2 > r > R0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Rh phenotypes with the MOST to LEAST amount of D antigen

A

D– > R2R2 > R1R1 > R1r or Ror > R1r’ or Ror’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Immunogenicity of Common Rh antigens

A

D > c > E > C > e

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Amino acid differences on Cc

A

103rd position C= Serine; c=proline

128
Q

Amino acid differences on Ee

A

226th position E=proline; e=alanine

129
Q

most immunogenic of the Rh antigens

A

D antigen

130
Q

occurs when D is weakly expressed; more common in Blacks

A

Weak D (Du)

131
Q

Inheritance of genes that code for D antigens that are expressed and appear to be complete but few in number; weak expression of the cDe haplotype

A

Genetic cause

132
Q

The Rh antigen on the red cell is normal, but the steric arrangement of the C antigen in relationship to the D antigen appears to interfere with the expression of the D antigen

A

Position effect or C in Trans

133
Q

D antigen expression is weakened when one or more parts of the D antigen are missing

A

Partial D or D mosaic

134
Q

Phenotype occcurring in individuals whose red blood cells possess an extremely low number of D antigen sites that most reagent anti-D are unable to detect

A

Del

135
Q

Weak D must be detected by ____

A

IAT

136
Q

Rh phenotype with the greatest number of D antigen sites on teh cells

A

D– or D–/D–

137
Q

D– forms ____ if exposed to normal cells

A

Anti-Rh17 (anti-Hro)

138
Q

No Rh antigens

A

Rh null phenotype

139
Q

GOLDEN BLOOD

A

Rh null phenotype

140
Q

mutation of RHAG gene (RHD and RHCE normal)

A

Regulator

141
Q

Mutation in each of the RHCE genes and deletion of the RHD gene (RHAG gene is normal)

A

Amorphic

142
Q

Rh null phenotype forms ___

A

anti-Rh 29 (total Rh)

143
Q

Most Rh antibodies are IgG, produced through pregnancy and incompatible transfusions

A

Rh antibody

144
Q

optimal reaction temperature of Rh antibody

A

37 deg C

145
Q

Reagent used in Rh slide typing

A

anti-D antiserum

146
Q

temperature of Rh view box

A

45 - 50 deg C

147
Q

Used for differentiating Rh(D)-negative (absence of D antigen) from weak D

A

Rh tube test

148
Q

Method used in Rh tube test

A

Indirect Antiglobulin Test (IAT)

149
Q

Parts of D mosaic

A

Rh:13, Rh:14, Rh:15, Rh:16

150
Q

Present in most D+ cells and all C+ cells

A

G

151
Q

Codes for the production of fucosyltransferase enzyme

A

Lewis gene

152
Q

RBC acquire the Lewis phenotype by ___ Lewis substances from the plasma, rather than being membrane-bound antigens

A

adsorbing

153
Q

Not a true blood group antigen

A

Lewis antigen

154
Q

differ from all other blood groups in that it is soluble and found in plasma and saliva

A

Lewis antigens

155
Q

Lewis antigen found in secretions are ___

A

glycoproteins

156
Q

Lewis antigen found in plasma are ___

A

Glycolipids

157
Q

Leb antigen is the receptor for __

A

Helicobacter pylori

158
Q

Determines the secretor status

A

Se gene

159
Q

Converts the precursor material to Lea substance

A

Lewis positive gene (Le)

160
Q

Cannot convert the precursor material to Lea substance

A

Lewis negative gene (le)

161
Q

lele individual will not produce any antigen: ____

A

Le (a-b-)

162
Q

A person with atleast one Le gene and sese genes will be ___

A

LeLe/Lele and sese Le(a+b-)

163
Q

A person who inherits at least one Le gene and at least one Se gene will be ____

A

Leb positive

164
Q

Lewis antibodies are __ in nature

A

IgM

165
Q

Useful in helping to confirm the presence of a Lewis antibody or eliminate the reactions to identify other antibodies mixed in the serum

A

Neutralization

166
Q

MN antigens are found on

A

glycophorin A

167
Q

MN antigens differ in their amino acid residues at positions___

A

1 and 5

168
Q

M has serine at position 1 and ___ at position 5

A

glycine

169
Q

N has leucine at position 1 and ____ at position 5

A

glutamate

170
Q

Ss antigens are located on ___

A

glycophorin B

171
Q

amino acid at position ___ is critical to Ss antigen expression

A

29

172
Q

S antigen has ___ amino acid

A

methionine

173
Q

s antigen has ___ amino acid

A

threonine

174
Q

located near the membrane and is always present when S or s is inherited

A

U antigen

175
Q

naturally occurring cold reactive saline agglutinins

A

Anti-M

176
Q

Anti-M reacts best at pH ___

A

6.5

177
Q

Seen in renal patients, who are dialyzed on equipment sterilized with formaldehyde

A

Anti-N

178
Q

Implicated in severe hemolytic transfusion reaction with hemoglobinuria and HDFN

A

Anti-S and anti-s

179
Q

serve as receptors for complement, bacteria, and viruses.

A

MNS antigens

180
Q

may serve as the receptor by which certain pyelonephritogenic strains of E. coli gain entry to the urinary tract

A

GPA^M

181
Q

appear s to use alternative receptors, including GPA and GPB for cell invasion

A

Plasmodium falciparum

182
Q

antigens comprising the P blood group system

A

P
P1
Pk
Luke
PX2
NOR

183
Q

___ has also been associated with metastasis in renal cell carcinoma

A

Luke

184
Q

Individuals who lack P1 are termed

A

P2

185
Q

individuals who lack P1, Pk and P antigens are termed

A

p or Pnull

186
Q

receptor of human parvovirus B19

A

P

187
Q

receptos for P-fimbriated uropathogenic E. coli

A

P system antigens

188
Q

receptor for Shiga toxins, which cause Shigella dysentery and E. coli-associated hemolytic uremic syndrome

A

Pk antigen

189
Q

provides some protection against HIV infection or peripheral blood mononuclear cells

A

Pk

190
Q

antigen found in fetall red cells as early as 12 weeks, but it weakens with gestational age

A

P1 antigen

191
Q

antigen that deteriorates rapidly on storage

A

P1 antigen

192
Q

antigen found in plasma and droppings of pigeons and turtledoves, as well as in the egg white of turtledoves

A

P1-lke antigen

193
Q

has been identified in hydatid cyst fluid, extracts of Lumbricoides terestris (common earthworm) and Ascaris suum

A

P1 substance

194
Q

common, naturally occurring IgM antibody in the sera of P2 individuals

A

Anti-P1

195
Q

Strong anti-P1 was observed in individuals infected with ___

A

Echinococcus granulosus (hydatid cyst)

196
Q

associated with fascioliasis, Clonorchis sinensis and Opisthorchis viverrini infections

A

Anti-P1

197
Q

Originally called Anti-Tja

A

Anti-PP1Pk

198
Q

Associated with spontaneous abortions in early pregnancy

A

Anti-PP1Pk

199
Q

antibody rarely seen in the blood bank, but is very significant in transfusion because it is hemolytic with a wide thermal range of reactivity

A

Alloanti-P

200
Q

specificity is found as an IgG autoantibody in patients with Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria

A

Autoanti-P

201
Q

rare autoimmune disorder characterized by hemolysis and hematuria associated with exposure to cold

A

PCH

202
Q

Binds RBCs at cold temperature –> hemolyzes RBCs at warm temperature (IgG autoab)

A

Biphasic

203
Q

Biphasic antibody

A

Anti-P

204
Q

Anti-P is demonstrated by the ___

A

Donath-Landsteiner Test

205
Q

reported in the serum of P1 individuals with biliary cirrhosis and autoimmune hemolytic anemia

A

Anti-Pk

206
Q

a public antigen

A

“I”

207
Q

found in cord red blood cells

A

i

208
Q

individuals who do not change their i status after birth

A

Rare i Adult or I negative phenotype

209
Q

High titers of this antibody is seen during and following infections with M. pneumoniae, in elderly with autoimmune hemolytic anemia and patients with cancer of the reticuloendothelial system (RES)

A

Anti-I

210
Q

L. monocytogenes organism from a patient with cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia has been reported to absorb anti-I and stimulate its production in rabbits

A

Autoanti-I

211
Q

potent examples associated with anti-i

A

Disease of the RES
Alcoholic cirrhosis
Myelogenous leukemia

212
Q

2nd most immunogenic blood group

A

Kell blood group system

213
Q

expression very weak on McLeod phenotype cells

A

Kell antigens

214
Q

antigen easily destroyed by sulfhydryl reagents

A

K antigen

215
Q

very common antigen. has a frequency of 99.9%

A

k antigen

216
Q

precursor substance of Kell antigens and present on the WBC and RBC of most individuals

A

Kx substance

217
Q

If Kx is lacking from red cells, the cells have an abnormal shape (___)

A

acanthocyte

218
Q

Individuals who lack the Kx substance in their RBCs

A

McLeod phenotype

219
Q

Clinical manifestations of McLeod phenotype

A

abnormal RBC morphology
compensated hemolytic anemia
neurological and muscular abnormalities

220
Q

absence of Kx from WBC has been described in individuals with ___

A

Chronic granulomatous disease

221
Q

implicated in severe HTR and associated with severe HDFN

A

anti-K

222
Q

first human gene to be assigned to a specific chromosome

A

Duffy gene

223
Q

member of the superfamily of chemokine receptors and is known as the atypical chemokine receptor 1 (ACKR1)

A

Duffy glycoprotein

224
Q

the amino acid at position __ on the Duffy glycoprotein defines the Fya and Fyb polymorphism, wherein Fya has glycine whereas Fyb has aspartic acid

A

42

225
Q

receptors for P. vivax and P. knowlesi

A

Fya and Fyb antigens

226
Q

antibody that can bind complement

A

Anti-Fya

227
Q

Duffy phenotype common in Asians

A

Fy (a + b - )

228
Q

Duffy phenotype most common in Whites

A

Fy (a + b +)

229
Q

Duffy phenotype most common in American Blacks

A

Fy (a - b -)

230
Q

Duffy phenotype most common in Chinese

A

Fy (a + b - )

231
Q

blood group system used to distinguished different races)

A

Duffy

232
Q

Kidd antigens are located on

A

RBC urea transporter

233
Q

common allele in Polynesians filipinos, and Chinese

A

Jk (a - b- )

234
Q

common cause of hemolytic transfusions, especially of the delayed-type, although intravascular hemolysis has been noted in severe reactions coated red cells more often are removed extravascularly in the liver

A

Kidd antibodies

235
Q

has a characteristic mixed-field pattern of agglutination

A

Anti-Lua

236
Q

only individuals with the recessive type Lu(a-b-) can make ___

A

anti-Lu3

237
Q

has served as a useful tool in anthropologic studies of Mongolian ancestry

A

Dia antigen

238
Q

Dia and Dib antigens are located on the ___ ,

A

anion exchange molecule (AE-1) (protein band 3)

239
Q

3 defects of AE-1

A
  1. Hereditary spherocytosis
  2. Congenital acanthocytosis
  3. Southeast Asian ovalocytosis
240
Q

___ antigens were first classified as an independent blood group system and later on as a collection

A

Wright

241
Q

2 types of anti-Wra

A

Naturally occurring IgM
Immune-stimulated IgG

242
Q

location of Yt antigens

A

RBC acetylcholinesterase

243
Q

Gene that codes for the Xg allele is locate on the ___

A

short arm of X chromosome

244
Q

Xga antigen is carried by a protein with cell adhesion properties that have been demonstrated to have homology with the ___ molecule

A

CD99

245
Q

Scianna antigens are located on ___

A

erythroid membrane-associated protein (ERMAP)

246
Q

Scianna antigen: IgG (red cell stimulated; react in IAT; has been linked to causing mild transfusion reactions

A

Anti-Sc3

247
Q

The rare null phenotype, Sc-1, -2, -3 has been observed in the __

A

Marshall islands and New Guinea

248
Q

Dombrock antigens are carried on ____

A

Mono-ADP-Ribosyltransferase 4

249
Q

Colton antigens are carried on an integral membrane protein, ____

A

Aquaporin 1 (AQP1)

250
Q

CO antigens have been located on the transport protein known as ____, which forms the primary erythrocyte water channel and is responsible for water permeability

A

Channel-forming integral protein (CHIP)

251
Q

expressed in the tissues of the proximal and descending tubules and the collecting ducts of the kidney and are believed to account for 80% of the reabsorption of water

A

CHIP and CO antigens

252
Q

Landsteiner-Wiener antigens are carried by ____

A

intracellular adhesion molecule 4 (ICAM4)

253
Q

Anti-LW agglutinates Rh(+) and Rh (-) except ___

A

Rh null

254
Q

antibody that has no reaction with DTT-treated RBCs; anti-D reacts with DTT-treated RBCs

A

Anti-LW

255
Q

___ antigens were associated with the HLA system

A

Chido/Rogers

256
Q

alleles for Rg and Ch have been located on two closely linked genes known as ___

A

C4A and C4B on chromosome 6

257
Q

Formerly, the anti-Ch/Rg antibodies were collectively grouped as ____, along with other antibodies sharing common serologic properties

A

High-titer, low avidity (HTLA)

258
Q

The clinically insignificant anti-Ch and anti-Rg react weakly, often to moderate or high-titer endpoints in the antiglobulin test, and may be tentatively identified by ___

A

plasma inhibition methods

259
Q

GE antigens are inherited on chromosome 2 and are expressed on ___

A

Glycophorins C (GPC) and / or GPD (band 4.1)

260
Q

Gerbich phenotype (Ge:-2, -3, 4) are found in

A

Papua New Guinea
Europeans
Africans
Native Americans
Japanese
Polynesians

261
Q

Yus phenotype (Ge:-2, 3, 4) are found in __-

A

Mexicans, Israelis

262
Q

Leach phenotype (Ge:-2, -3, -4) are found in:

A

Gerbich null within Papua New Guinea

263
Q

phenotype present with a change in electrolyte morphology in the form of elliptocytosis

A

Leach phenotype

264
Q

Cromer antigens are carried by __

A

Decay accelerating factor (DAF)

265
Q

__ antigens are distributed in body fluids and on RBCs, WBCs, platelets, and placental tissue

A

Cromer

266
Q

Alleles for the KN blood group have been located on chromosome 1, with the antigens residing on ___

A

complement receptor one (CR1)

267
Q

antigen present on RBCs of 4% Indians, 11% of Iranians, 12% of Arabs

A

Ina

268
Q

antigen present in 96% of Indians and Whites

A

Inb

269
Q

__ antigens are carried on the hematopoietic isoform of the __ marker, which is known for its immune adhesion properties

A

CD44

270
Q

The OK antigens are carried on ____, a member of the immunoglobulin superfamily that mainly functions as receptors and adhesion molecules

A

CD 147 (basigin)

271
Q

The only antigen in Raph blood group system

A

MER2

272
Q

MER2 is located on ____, a tetraspanin, which appears to be essential for the assembly of basement membrane in the kidney and skin

A

CD151

273
Q

JMH protein is glycophosphatidylinositol (GPI)-linked glycoprotein ___

A

CD108

274
Q

GIL antigen is found on the ___, a member of the major intrinsic protein family of water channels

A

glycerol transporter aquaporin 3 (AQP3)

275
Q

2 antigens under RHAG

A

Duclos and Ola

276
Q

Bga corresponds with

A

HLA-B7

277
Q

Bgb corresponds with

A

HLA-B17

278
Q

Bgc corresponds with

A

HLA-A28

279
Q

Blood group HLA marker

A

Benneth Goodspeed

280
Q

When serum is tested, ___ is characteristically causes __-

A

in vitro hemolysis

281
Q

antibody found only in Blacks

A

Anti-Ata

282
Q

antibody found more commonly in Japanese

A

Anti-Jra

283
Q

___ antigen is a high prevalence carbohydrate antigen; its soluble form is Tamm-Horsfall glycoprotein in urine

A

Sda antigen

284
Q

___ has characteristic shiny and mf refractile agglutinates under the microscope and is inhibited with urine

A

Anti-Sda

285
Q

Antigens occurring in 99.9% of population

A

High-Incidence Antigen Unrelated to Principal Blood Group Systems

286
Q

High incidence antigens predominantly found in Blacks

A

At (a-), Cr(a-), Jo (a-)

287
Q

antigens with an incidence of less than 1%

A

Low-incidence antigens

288
Q

Blood group collection includes ____

A

Cost, Ii, Er, Globoside, Unnames, MN CHO

289
Q

901 series

A

Emm, AnWj, Sda, PEL, ABTI, MAM

290
Q

receptor for Haemophilus influenzae

A

AnWj

291
Q

antibodies to high-frequency antigens that are generally clinically benign

A

High-TIter, Low-Avidity (HTLA) antibodies

292
Q

method for detection of HTLA

A

Titration inhibition

293
Q

Clinically significant antibodies

A

ABO
Rh
Kell
Kidd
Duffy
SsU
Lub

294
Q

Antibodies that are usually clinically insignificant

A

I
Lewis
M
N
P1
Lua

295
Q

Naturally occurring antibodies

A

ABO
Lewis
P1
MN
Lua

296
Q

Warm antibodies

A

Rh
Kell
Duffy
Kidd

297
Q

Cold antibodies

A

M
N
P1

298
Q

antibodies that usually only react in AHG

A

Kell
Duffy
Kidd

299
Q

antibody that can react in any phase of testing

A

Lewis

300
Q

Detection of these antibodies are enhanced by enzyme treatment of test cells

A

Rh
Lewis
Kidd
P1
I
ABO

301
Q

Antibodies not detected with enzyme treatment of test cells

A

M
N
Duffy
Xg

302
Q

Antibodies enhanced by acidification

A

M

303
Q

Antibodies that show dosage

A

Rh (other than D)
MNSs
Duffy
Kidd
Lutheran

304
Q

antibodies that bind complement

A

Kidd
I
Lewis
anti-Fya

305
Q

antibodies that cause in vitro hemolysis

A

ABO
Lewis
Kidd
Vel
Some P1

306
Q

antibodies that are labile in vivo and in vitro

A

Kidd

307
Q

antibodies that are common cause of anamnestic response (Delayed HTR)

A

Kidd

308
Q

antibody associated with PCH

A

Anti-P

309
Q

antibody associated with CAD and PAP

A

Anti-I

310
Q

antibody associated with Infectious mononucleosis

A

Anti-i

311
Q

HLA antibodies are produced through

A

Multiple pregnancies
Multiple transfusions

312
Q

2 granulocyte antigens

A

Human Neutrophil Antigen (HNA) and Human Granulocyte Antigens (HGA-3a to 3e)

313
Q

3 clinical significance of granulocyte antigens

A

Neonatal alloimmune neutropenia
Autoimmune neutropenia
Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI)

314
Q

Clinical significance of platelet antigens

A

Neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia
Post transfusion purpura

315
Q

Human Platelet Antigen

A

HPA-1 and HPA-4 = GpIIIa
HPA-2 = GpIb
HPA-3 = GpII
HPA-5 = GpIa

316
Q
A

Reviewers (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions