Clinical Microscopy Flashcards
(268 cards)
1
Q
Potentially harmful microorganism
A
Biological hazards
2
Q
Transmission of microorganisms
A
Chain of infection
3
Q
Essential in preventing the spread of infection
A
Chain of infection
4
Q
Chain of infection requires a continuous link between:
A
- Source
- Mode (means) of transmission
- Susceptible host
5
Q
6 components of the chain of infection
“IREMES”
A
- Infectious agent
- Reservoir
- Exit portal
- Mode of transmission
- Entry portal
- Susceptible host
6
Q
3 routes of infection
A
- Inhalation
- Ingestion
- Direct inoculation or skin contact
7
Q
Personal Protective Equipment
A
- Gloves
- Fluid-resistant gowns
- Eye and face shields
- Countertop shields
8
Q
______ is the primary method of infection transmission
A
Hand contact
9
Q
The best way to break the chain of infection
A
Handwashing
10
Q
When hands are visibly soiled, wash hands with ___
A
soap and water
11
Q
When hands are not visibly soiled, apply ___
A
alcohol based hand-rub (sanitizer)
12
Q
Handwashing procedure
1. Wash hands with ___
2. Apply antimicrobial soap.
3. Rub to form a lather, create _____, and loosen debris
4. Thoroughly clean between fingers, and up to the wrist for at least ____
5. Rinse hands in a ____ position
6. Dry with a paper towel
7. Turn off faucets with a clean paper towel to prevent recontamination .
A
- warm water
- friction
- 15 (or 20) seconds
- Downward
13
Q
Handwashing song
A
Happy Birthday 2x
14
Q
All biological wastes, except urine, must be placed in appropriate containers labeled with the_____ symbol
A
Biohazard
15
Q
The accepted BIOHAZARD label is _____
A
Fluorescent orange
16
Q
Discard urine by pouring it into a _____
Avoid splashing, and then flush with water
A
laboratory sink
17
Q
Empty urine containers can be discarded as ____
A
nonbiologically hazardous waste
18
Q
Disinfection of the sink using a ________ should be performed ______
A
1:5 or 1:10 dilution of sodium hypochlorite; daily
19
Q
Disinfection eliminates many or all pathogenic microorganisms, except _____
A
bacterial spores
20
Q
A 1:10 dilution of sodium hypochlorite is prepared by adding _______
effective for 1 month; used for disinfecting countertops and spills
A
1 part of sodium hypochlorite to 9 parts of water
21
Q
The basic outline of the biohazard symbol is a plain trefoil, which is _____ equally like in a triple Venn diagram with the overlapping parts erased. The diameter of the overlapping part is equal to half the radius of the three circles.
A
three circles overlapping each other
22
Q
Sharp objects are disposed of in ___
A
puncture resistant containers
23
Q
Color of puncture-resistant containers
A
red
24
Q
Type of hazard where procedures using radioisotopes are performed
A
Radioactive hazards
25
True or false.
The best method of radioactive waste disposal is to store the used radioactive material in a locked, marked room until the background count is down to 10 half-lives for radioiodine,
True
26
Best first aid for chemical spills
Flush the are with amounts of water for at least 15 minutes then seek medical attention
27
For alkali or acid burns in the eye, wash out eye thoroughly with ____ for ____
running water for 15 minutes.
28
DO not neutralize chemicals that come in contact with the skin.
Acid spills on floors can be neutralized and the soaked up with wet rages or spill pillows
Both statements are True
29
Proper handling of chemicals "AW!"
Acid to water
30
What will happen when water is added to acid
explosion
31
The National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) Hazardous Materials Classification uses numbers from ____ to classify hazard severity, with 4 representing extremely hazardous.
0 to 4
32
Yellow Quadrant
Reactivity or Stability Hazard
"SUVSM"
0 = Stable
1 = Unstable if heated
2 = Violent chemical change
3 = Shock and heat may deteriorate/detonate
4 = May deteriorate/detonate
33
White Quadrant
Specific Hazard
OXY = Oxidizer
ACID = Acid
ALK = Alkali
COR = Corrosive
W = Use no water
Radiation
34
Blue Quadrant
Health Hazard
"NSHED"
0 = Normal material
1 = Slightly hazardous
2 = Hazardous
3 = Extreme danger
4 = Deadly
35
Red Quadrant
Flammability hazard
0 = Will not burn
1 = Above 200 deg F
2 = Below 200 deg F
3 = Below 100 deg F
4 = Below 73 deg F
36
Degree of Hazards (Hazard Index)
"No SMS Ex's"
0 = No/Minimal hazard
1 = Slight Hazard
2 = Moderate hazard
3 = Serious hazard
4 = Extreme / Severe Hazard
37
All electrical equipment is grounded in a ____ to avoid electric shock
3-pronged plug
38
If electrical shock occurs, never touch the person or the equipment involved. T/F
T
39
Flammable chemicals should be stored in safety cabinets and ____ away from heat sources
explosion-proof refrigerators
40
laboratory fire drills are held
Annually
41
When fire is discovered, RACE
Rescue anyone in immediate danger
Activate the institutional fire alarm system
Close all doors to potentially affected areas
attempt to Extinguish the fire, if possible; exit the area
42
To operate the fire extinguisher, PASS
Pull the pin
Aim at the base of the fire
Squeeze handles
Sweep nozzle side to side
43
Fire type and fire extinguisher for ordinary combustibles: paper, cloth, rubbish, plastic, wood
Fire Type A
Extinguisher: Water, dry chemical, loaded steam
44
Fire type and fire extinguisher for flammable liquids: alcohol, ether, grease, gasoline, paints, oil
Fire Type B
Extinguisher: Dry chemical, carbon dioxide, halon foam
45
Fire type and fire extinguisher for electrical equipment and motor switches
Fire Type C
Extinguisher: Dry chemical, carbon dioxide, halon - best
46
Fire type and fire extinguisher for flammable metals: mercury, magnesium, sodium, lithium
Fire Type D
Extinguisher: Metal X, sand; dry powder; fought by firefighters only
47
Fire type and fire extinguisher for detonation (Arsenal fire)
E for Explosives
Fire Type E
Extinguisher: Allowed to burn out and nearby materials protected
48
Fire Type and fire extinguisher for cooking media: grease, oils, fats
Fire Type K
Extinguisher: Liquid designed to prevent splashing and cool the fire
49
Key Notes:
Water (A)
Dry chemicals (ABC)
Carbon dioxide (BC)
Halon (BC)
Dry chemical extinguishers (ABC) are the most common all-purpose extinguishers
Class D and E fires should be handled only by trained personnel
50
General precautions - Physical hazards
1. Avoid running in rooms and hallways
2. Watch for wet floors
3. Bend knees when lifting heavy objects
4. Keep long hair pulled back
5. Avoid dangling jewelry
6. maintain clean, organized work area
7. Wear closed-toe shoes
51
Miscellaneous Hazard Information
1. Ergonomic work hazards are work-related and include strain due to repeated positions
2. Cryogenic hazards are hazards due to extremely low temperatures
3. Mechanical hazards include centrifuges, refrigerators, autoclaves, homogenizers, and glasswares
4. Centrifuge accidents or improper removal of rubber stopper from test tubes may produce aerosols
52
Weighs approximately 150 g and measures 12.5 cm x 6 cm x 2.5 cm (length, width, depth)
Kidney
53
How long is the ureter?
25 cm
54
Site when approximately 150 ml urine accumulates; a nerve reflex is initiated
Bladder
55
4 cm long in women and 24 cm long in men`
Urethra
56
About every ______, small amounts of urine are emptied into the bladder from the ureters
10-15 seconds
57
___ is actually a fluid biopsy of the kidney
Urine
58
Basic structural and functional unit of the kidney
Nephron
59
How many nephrons are there in each kidney?
1 to 1.5 Million nephrons
60
2 Types pf nephron
Cortical and Juxtamedullary Nephrons
61
Consists of glomerulus and renal tubules
Nephrons
62
Order of Urine formation
1. Glomerulus
2. PCT
3. LH
4. DCT
5. CD
6. Calyx
7. Renal Pelvis --> Ureter --> Bladder --> Urethra
63
Renal Blood Flow:
The kidneys receive ___ of the total cardiac input
25%
64
Total Renal Blood FLow
1,200 mL/min
65
Total Renal Plasma Flow
600 - 700 mL/min
66
Order of renal blood flow
1. Renal artery (blood in)
2. Afferent arteriole
3. Glomerulus
4. Efferent arteriole
5. Peritubular capillaries
6. Vasa recta
7. Renal vein (blood out)
67
In the order of renal blood flow, where is reabsorption and secretion takes place
Peritubular capillaries
68
What part of the renal blood flow does the countercurrent mechanism takes place
Vasa recta
69
The working portion of the kidney
Glomerulus
70
Coil of approx. 8 capillary lobes (capillary tuft) located within the Bowman's capsule
Glomerulus
71
Attached to the glomerular basement membrane are the ____
Podocytes (epithelial cells)
72
Glomerulus resembles a _____
Sieve
73
Glomerulus serves as a non-selective filter of plasma substances with a MW of _____
< 70,000 Da
74
Approximately ______ of the filtered plasma volume is actually excreted as urine
1%
75
3 parts of the glomerular filtration barrier
1. Capillary endothelium
2. Trilayer basement membrane
3. Filtration diaphragm
76
GFM with large open pores
Capillary endothelium
77
GFM: lamina rara, lamina densa, lamina rara externa
Trilayer basement membrane
78
Found between the podocytes of Bowman's space
Filtration diaphragm
79
SG of Glomerular filtrate
1.010
80
Substances that are filtered out in the glomerulus
"SWAGU"
Salt
Water
Amino acids
Glucose
Urea
81
pH of albumin
<4.9
82
Why is albumin not excreted in the urine?
It is not filtered by the glomerulus (has a shield of negativity because they repel each other (albumin is negatively charged, tho it is only 69kda)
83
First function to be affected in renal disease
Tubular reabsorption
84
When the plasma concentration of a substance that is normally completely reabsorbed reaches an abnormally high level, the filtrate concentration exceed the ______ of the tubules, and the substance begins appearing in the urine
Maximal reabsorptive capacity (Tm)
85
_____ is the plasma concentration at which active transport stops
Renal threshold
86
Renal threshold for glucose
160 - 180 mg/dL
87
Alter urine concentration
PCT, LH, DCT, CD
88
Major site (65%) of reabsorption of plasma substances
PCT
89
Renal concentration begins in the _______
Descending and ascending LH
90
Solute concentration is highest in the _____
LH (renal medulla)
91
_____ is a selective urine concentration process in the ascending and descending loops of Henle
Countercurrent mechanism
92
The ____ is highly impermeable to water
Ascending LH
93
"DAM" collects water, so does the
Descending LH
94
"ASIN" - ding loop reabsorbs
ASIN (salt), but NOT water
95
Substances that are reabsorbed via active transport
Glucose, amino acids, salts
Sodium
Chloride
96
Substance Location
Glucose, amino acids, salts
Sodium
Chloride
GAS - PCT
Sodium - PCT and DCT
Chloride - Ascending LH
97
Substances that are reabsorbed via passive transport
Water
Urea
Sodium
98
Substance and their location
Water
Urea
Sodium
Water - PCT, descending LH, CD
Urea - PCT, ascending LH
Sodium - Ascending LH
99
The movement of substance across cell membranes into the bloodstream by electrochemical energy
Active transport
100
The movement of molecules across a membrane by diffusion because of a physical gradient
Passive transport
101
Regulates water reabsorption in the DCT and CD
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH/ Vasopressin)
102
Regulates sodium reabsorption in the DCT
Aldosterone
103
Increased body hydration = Decreased ADH = ____ Urine volume
Increased
104
Decreased body hydration = Increased ADH = ____ Urine volume
Decreased
105
Diabetes insipidus = ____ Deficiency
"DI = Daming Ihi"
ADH
106
SIADH = ___ Excess
ADH
107
T or F
Effects of Angiotensin II
Release of Aldosterone and ADH (Increase water and sodium reabsorption
Vasoconstriction (Increased blood pressure)
Corrects renal blood flow
T
108
T or F
The juxtaglomerular apparatus consists of the JG cells (which produce renin) in the afferent arteriole, and the macula densa (which detects decrease in BP) of the DCT
T
109
Action of RAAS:
Dilates the ___ and constricts the ___
afferent arteriole; efferent arteriole
110
Action of RAAS:
Stimulates __ reabsorption in the PCT
Sodium
111
Action of RAAS:
Triggers the adrenal cortex to release ____ to cause sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion in the DCT and CD
aldosterone
112
Action of RAAS:
Triggers release of ____ by the hypothalamus to stimulate water reabsorption in the CD
anti-diuretic hormone
113
One of the functions of tubular secretion is the regulation of the ____ in the body through secretion of hydrogen ions (in the form of NH4 and H2PO4)
Acid-base balance
114
Blood pH
7.4
115
Another function of the tubular secretion is the elimination of waste products not filtered by the glomerulus.
T or F
T
116
Major site for removal of nonfiltered substances
Proximal convoluted tubule
117
It is in the PCT where H ions are secreted in exchange for Na ions, which are reabsorbed with HcO3 into the plasma.
T or F
T
118
Failure to produce an acid urine due to inability to secrete hydrogen ions
Renal Tubular Acidosis
119
Acidic blood pH
Alkaline urine
Renal Tubular Acidosis
120
An example of test for glomerular filtration is the clearance tests
T
121
used to evaluate glomerular filtration
Clearance tests
122
Measure the rate at which the kidneys are able to remove a filterable substance from the blood
Glomerular Filtration Test
123
Examples of glomerular filtration tests
1. Urea
2. Creatinine
3. Inulin
4. Beta microglobulin
5. Radioisotopes
6. Cystatin C
124
Obsolete clearance test
Urea clearance test
125
Most common clearance test
Creatinine
126
Gold standard or reference method clearance test
Inulin (MW: 5,200 Da)
127
Better marker for renal tubular function than of GFR
Beta2-microglobulin (MW 11,800 Da)
128
Alternative for creatinine clearance
Cystatin C (MW: 13, 359 Da)
129
Formula of creatinine clearance
(UV / P) x (1.73 m2/ A)
U = Urine creatinine (mg/dL)
P = Plasma creatinine
V = Urine volume
A = Body Surface area
130
Reference ranges for creatinine clearance
Males = 107 - 139 mL/min
Females = 87 - 107 mL/min
131
Measure of the completeness of a 24-hour urine collection
Creatinine clearance
132
What is the greatest source of error in any clearance procedure utilizing urine?
The use of improperly timed urine specimens
133
Around ___ of creatinine is secreted by the renal tubules
7 - 10%
134
Detect and monitor kidney disease (recent studies)
Estimated GFR
135
Estimated GFR formula developed by Cockgroft and Gault
Ccr = [(140 - age) (body weight in kg) / 72 x serum creatinine in mg/dl] x 0.85 (if female)
136
What are the variables included in the estimated GFR formula by Cockgroft and Gault
Age
Body wt in kg
Sex
"ABS"
137
Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) System Formula
See notes for reference
138
What are the variable included in the MDRD system formula?
Ethnicitiy
BUN
Serum albumin
"EBS"
139
MDRD- IDMS (Isotope Dilution Mass Spectrometry) Traceable formula
See notes for reference
140
Formula for GFR recommended by the National Kidney Disease Education Program (NKDEP)
MDRD- IDMS (Isotope Dilution Mass Spectrometry) Traceable formula
141
Tests for Tubular Reabsorption
Concentration Tests
- Obsolete tests (Fishberg, Mosenthal test)
- Recently used tests (Specific gravity, Osmolality)
OFM
RSO
142
Used to evaluate tubular reabsorption
Concentration test
143
A tubular reabsorption test wherein the patient is deprived of fluid for up to 24 hours
Fishberg test
144
Urine SG after 12-hr restricted fluid diet is about ___ or more (Fishberg test)
1.022 or more
145
Urine SG after 24-hr restricted fluid diet is about ___ or more (Fishberg test)
1.026 or more
146
A tubular reabsorption test wherein the patient maintains normal diet and fluid intake.
Mosenthal test
147
Compares day and night urine in terms of volume and SG
Mosenthal test
148
Tubular reabsorption test influenced by the number and density of particles in a solution
Specific Gravity
149
Influenced by the number of particles in a solution (Tubular reabsorption test)
More preferred than SG determination
More precise than osmolarity because it does not vary with temperature
Osmolality
150
Osmolality include the methods of
Freezing point osmometry and Vapor pressure osmometry
151
NV for urine osmolality
1-3x (275 to 900 mOsm/kg) than of serum (275 to 300 mOsm/kg)
152
Tests for tubular secretion and renal blood flow
P-aminohippuric acid (PAH) test
Phenolsulfonphthalein (PSP) test
Other measurements used (urine pH, titratable acidity, urinary ammonia)
153
Most commonly used (reference method) test for tubular secretion and renal blood flow
P-aminohippuric acid (PAH) test
154
First illustrated medical book printed.
Fasciculus Medicinae
155
During the Middle Ages, disease was thought to result from the imbalance of ____, reflected by one of the urine colors
Humours
156
4 temperaments/ humours
Sanguineous (blood)
Choleric (yellow bile)
Phlegmatic (phlegm)
Melancholic (black bile)
157
The ____ of urine was used by the Babylonians and Egyptians to detect diabetes
Taste test
158
Hindu physicians noticed that ____ attracted ants
honey urine
159
Uroscopy; first documented the importance of sputum examination
Hippocrates
160
Albuminuria by boiling urine
Frederik Dekkers
161
Wrote a book about "pisse prophets" (charlatans)
Thomas Bryant
162
Examination of urine sediment
Thomas Addis
163
Introduced urinalysis as part of doctor's routine patient examination
Richard Bright
164
Urochrome (history)
Ludwig Thudichum
165
CSF (history)
Domenico Cotugno
166
Phenylketonuria (history)
Ivan Folling
167
Alkaptonuria (history)
Archibald Garrod
168
Orthostatic or cyclic proteinuria
Frederick William Pavy
169
Cystine calculi (history)
William Wollaston
170
Benedict's reagent (history)
Stanley Benedict
171
Urine composition
95 - 97% water
3 - 5% solids (60 grams = Total Solids in 24 hours)
172
Total solids
35 grams organic
25 grams inorganic
173
Urine component - Total solids (organic component)
Urea (major)
Creatinine (2nd)
Hippurate
Uric acid
CHO
Pigments
fatty acids
mucins
enzymes
hormones
174
Urine component - total solids (inorganic components
Chloride (major) > sodium > potassium
Sodium chloride (principal salt)
sulfate
phosphate
ammonium
magnesium
calcium
175
Urine specimen for routine and qualitative urinalysis
Ideal for cytology studies (ONLY IF with prior hydration and exercise 5 mins before collection!)
Random/ Occasional / Single
176
Ideal specimen for routine urinalysis and pregnancy testing (hCG)
Often preferred for cytology studies / cytodiagnostic urine testing
First morning
177
Most concentrated and most acidic urine specimen - allows well preservation of cells and casts
First morning
178
Urine specimen for the evaluation of orthostatic proteinuria
First morning
179
Patient voids before going to bed, and immediately on rising from sleep collects urine specimen
First morning
180
2nd voided urine after a period of fasting
Second morning/Fasting
181
Urine specimen for glucose determination
Second morning/Fasting
182
Urine specimen for diabetic screening or monitoring
Preferred for testing glucose
2-hr post-prandial
183
Optimal with blood samples in glucose tolerance test
Glucose tolerance
184
At least 2 voided collection
Series of blood and urine samples are collected at a specific time intervals to compare concentration of a substance in urine with its concentration in the blood
Used in the diagnosis of diabetes
Fractional specimen
185
For routine screening and bacterial culture
Midstream clean catch
186
Patient should thoroughly cleanse his glans penis or her urethral meatus before collection
Midstream clean catch
187
May be urethral or ureteral urine specimen
For bacterial culture
Catheterized
188
Abdominal wall is punctured, and urine is directly aspirated from the bladder
Bladder urine for anaerobic bacterial culture and urine cytology
Suprapubic
189
Use of soft, clear plastic bag with adhesive
Sterile specimen obtained by catheterization or suprapubic aspiration
Urine collected from diaper is NOT recommended for testing
Pediatric specimen
190
Urine specimen for prostatic infection
1. First portion of voided urine
2. Middle portion of voided urine
3. Urine after prostatic massage
Three-glass technique
191
tube number that serves as the control for bladder and kidney infection for the three-glass technique
2
192
Prostatitis (infected prostate) how many WBC and bacteria are seen
Number of WBC and bacteria in the 3rd specimen is 10x greater than that of the 1st
193
T or F
If control is positive for WBC and bacteria, the results from the 3rd specimen are considered invalid
T
194
Four glass method of urine collection method which consists of bacterial cultures of the initial voided urine (VB1), midstream urine (VB2), expressed prostatic secretions (EPS), and a post-prostatic massage urine specimen (VB3)
Stamey-Meares Test for Prostatitis
195
In the Stamey-Meares test for prostatitis, urethral infection or inflammation is tested for by the ___
initial voided urine
196
In the Stamey-Meares test for prostatitis, urinary bladder infection is tested for by the ___
Midstream urine
197
The ______ are cultured and examined for white blood cells in the Stamey-Mears prostatitis test
Prostatic secretions
198
Having more than ____ WBCs per high power field is considered abnormal in the Stamey-Mears test
10 to 20
199
4 types of timed urine specimen
1. 24-hour
2. 12-hour
3. 4-hour
4. Afternoon (2-4PM)
200
In the 24-hour urine, at the start time, the patient empties bladder into toilet, then all subsequent urine is collected.
At end time, patient empties bladder into collection container
Requires preservative - it depends on the test performed
24-hour
201
Type of urine specimen for Addis Count
12-hour
202
Type of urine specimen for nitrite determination
Urine remains in bladder for at least 4 hours before voiding
4-hour
203
Type of urine specimen for urobilinogen determination
Afternoon (2-4pm)
204
Process providing documentation of proper sample ID from the time of collection to the receipt of laboratory results
Chain of Custody
205
Required urine volume for drug specimen collection
30 - 45 ml
206
Container capacity for drug specimen collection
60 ml
207
Temperature for drug specimen. Checked within 4 minutes; if out of range, record temperature and contact supervisor immediately
32.5 deg C - 37.7 deg C
208
Added to the toilet water reservoir to prevent specimen adulteration
Blueing agent (dye)
209
pH of a possibly adulterated urine specimen for drug testing
>9
210
Specific gravity of a possibly adulterated urine specimen for drug testing
SG <1.005
211
Urine containers should have a wide base, and has an opening of at least ___. The wide base prevents spillage, and a _____ opening is an adequate target for urine collection.
4 cm
212
24-hr urine containers should hold up to ___ and may be colored to protect light sensitive analytes.
3L
213
Addition of urine before the start of 24-hour collection period causes ____ results
False increased
214
Failure to include urine at the end of 24-hour collection period causes ___ results
False decreased
215
When both routine UA and culture are requested, the ____ should be performed first
culture
216
Following collection, urine specimens should be delivered to the laboratory promptly and tested within ____.; ideally within ___
2 hours; 30 minutes
217
Physical, chemical, and microscopic characteristics of a urine specimen begin to change ___
As soon as possible
218
Changes in unpreserved urine (increased)
pH
Bacteria
Odor
Nitrite
"pBaON"
219
Darkened / modified in unpreserved urine
Color
220
Decreased in unpreserved urine
Clarity
Glucose
Ketones
Bilirubin
Urobilinogen
RBC/WBC/Cast
Trichomonas
Proteins
221
Urea --Urease---> Ammonia ; loss of CO2
pH
222
Increased due to multiplication in unpreserved urine
Bacteria, Nitrite
223
Urea --Urease---> Ammonia
Odor
224
Oxidation or reduction of metabolites happen leading to darkened or modified changes in unpreserved urine
Color
225
Bacterial multiplication; precipitation of amorphous material --> decreased
Clarity
226
Decreases due to glycolysis
glucose
227
Volatilization and bacterial metabolism --> decreased
Ketones
228
Light exposure/photo oxidation to biliverdin
Bilirubin (CB)
229
Disintegrate in dilute alkaline urine
RBC, WBC, Casts
230
Loss of motility; death; possible misidentification as WBCs
Trichomonas
231
Least affected parameter in unpreserved urine
Protein
232
What are the ideal characteristics of a urine specimen
Bactericidal, inhibit urease, preserve elements, no interference
233
Urine preservative
Adv: Does not interfere with chemical tests
Disadvantage: Raises SG by hydrometer; Precipitates amorphous phosphates and urates
Refrigeration
234
Preservative of choice for routine UA and urine culture (up to 24 hours0
Prevents bacterial growth for 24 hours
Refrigeration
235
Urine preservative
Preserves glucose and sediments well
Disadvantage: Interferes with acid precipitation test for protein
Thymol
236
Preserves protein and formed elements well
Does not interfere with routine analyses other than pH
Disadvantage: May precipitate crystals when used in large amounts
Boric acid
237
Keeps pH about 6.0
Bacteriostatic at 18 g/L;
For culture transport, C&S
Interfere with drug and hormone analyses
Boric acid
238
Excellent sediment preservative
Disadvantage: Reducing agent;
interferes with chemical tests for glucose, blood, leukocytes & copper reduction
Formalin (Formaldehyde)
239
Preservative that does not interfere with routine tests
-Floats on urine surface and clings to pipettes and testing materials
-Best all round preservative
Toluene
240
Preservative that prevents glycolysis
-Good preservative for drug analysis
-May use sodium benzoate instead of fluoride for reagent strip testing
Sodium fluoride
241
Preservative that does not interfere with routine tests
-Causes an odor change
-use 1 drop/ounce of specimen
Phenol
242
Preservative that is convenient when refrigeration not possible
-May contain one of more of the preservatives including sodium fluoride
Commercial preservative tablets
243
Preservative that contains collection cup, C & S preservative tube or UA tube
Urine Collection Kits
244
Preservative wherein the sample is stable at room temperature for 48 hours; preserves bacteria
-Preservative is boric acid and may not be used for UA
Gray C & S tube
245
Preservative that is stable for 72 hours at room temperature
-Instrument compatible
-Bilirubin and urobilinogen may be decreased if specimen is exposed to light and left at RT
-Preservative is sodium propionate
Cherry red/Yellow top tube
246
Preservative that preserves cellular elements
-Used for cytology studies (50 mL urine)
Saccamano fixative
(50% ethanol + 2% carbowax)
247
Normal urine (24 hours) volume
600 to 2000 mL
248
Average volume of urine (24 hours)
1200 to 1500 mL
249
Night urine output
< 400 mL
250
Urine day:night ratio
2-3:1
251
Container capacity (UA)
50 mL
252
required volume of urine for routine UA
10 to 15 mL (ave: 12 mL)
253
Polyuria
> 2000 mL/24 hours
254
Causes of polyuria
Increased fluid intake
Diuretics, nervousness
Diabetes mellitus
Diabetes insipidus
255
Oliguria
< 500 mL/24 hrs
< 400 mL/day
256
Causes of oliguria
Dehydration
Renal diseases
Renal calculi or tumor
257
Anuria
< 100 ml/ 24 hours
258
Causes of anuria
Complete obstruction
Toxic agent
Decreased renal blood flow
259
Excretion of more than 500 mL of urine at night
Nocturia
260
SG of nocturia
< 1.018
261
Any increase in urine excretion
Diuresis
262
Rough indicator of the degree of hydration
Urine color
263
Correlates with urine SG
Urine color
264
Normal urine color
Colorless to deep yellow
265
Abnormal urine color
Red or red brown
266
Urine color determination
Look down through the container against a white background
267
-Major pigment of urine
-lipid soluble pigment that is a product of endogenous metabolism
Urochrome
268
