BB LRGPHOR Ch11 - Polyclonal Antibody Production Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in BB LRGPHOR Ch11 - Polyclonal Antibody Production Deck (23):

1. True or False: Polyclonal antibody reagents are more specific for an antigen than monoclonal.

FALSE - Monoclonal are more specific due to their homogeneity, although this also makes them more limited in their use so polyclonal antibody reagents are more popular.


2. Which of the following is NOT a reason why rabbits are the most commonly used animal for polyclonal antibody production?
a. Adequate body size for ease of handling and large volume blood collection
b. Availability of SPF animals
c. Presence of multiple IgG isotypes
d. Excellent immune responsiveness to wide variety of antigens.

C - the rabbit has the benefit of a single primary IgG isotype


3. Above what molecular weight do molecules become immunogenic?



4. True or False: T-cell independent antigens are generally large molecules associated with bacterial infections including lipopolysaccharides, polymerized flagellin and pneumococcal polysaccharides.

TRUE - they are capable of activating B cells and a humoral response without the involvement of CD4 T cells-so response occurs more rapidly.


5. True or False: In T-cell dependent interactions, antigen is processed by the antigen-presenting cells and presented to antigen-specific CD4 T-cells along with MHC Class II molecules which results in the activation of antigen-specific helper T-cells.



8. Which of the following is NOT a recommended route of immunization in rabbit polyclonal antibody production?
a. Subcutaneous
b. Intradermal
c. Intravenous
d. Transdermal
e. Intramuscular

C - Anaphylaxis and significant lesions in multiple organs are risks associated with this route.


10. Which of the following are reported to be superior to the intradermal route for antibody response production?
a. Intraperitoneal
b. Particle Mediated Epidermal Deliver (gene gun)
c. Foot pad injections
d. Low-volume jet injection device
e. B and D

E. (IP causes significant pain and distress and rabbits do not have true foot pads and are too heavy for use of this route.)


11. Which of the following is FALSE?
a. The frequency of boosters is a significant variable in antibody production.
b. The goal of a booster is to re-stimulate the level of circulating antibody
c. A booster is most effective when given before the initial response has waned
d. The optimal booster interval is complicated by many variables

C - boosters are most effective after the initial response has decreased-this allows for selection of high-affinity B-cell binding and a higher secondary antibody response.


12. True or False: Purified proteins are poor immunogens and seldom result in a robust immune response when introduced on their own.

TRUE - Most proteins will need a compound attached to them-an adjuvant.


14. Which of the following is NOT a known mechanism of action of adjuvants?
a. “Depot” effect
b. Antigen presentation effect
c. Antigen distribution effect
d. Immune modulation effect
e. Cytotoxic lymphocyte induction effect
f. All of the above are known MOA’s



15. Which of the following is NOT correct regarding a “Depot” adjuvant?
a. It protects the immunogen from dilution
b. It protects the immunogen from degradation
c. It localized and releases the immunogen slowly
d. Results in a prolonged exposure to a high level of the immunogen.

D - Prolonged exposure to a low level of the immunogen.


16. Which of the following is the most commonly used type of “depot” adjuvant?
a. Microparticles
b. Liposomes
c. Nitrocellulose
d. Emulsions
e. Aluminum compounds

D - the others are used, but oil-in-water or water-in-oil emulsions are most common


17. Which of the following is NOT a component of FCA (Freund’s Complete Adjuvant)?
a. Mannide monooleate
b. Water
c. Light mineral oil
d. Heat-killed and dried mycobacterial cells
e. All of the above ARE components of FCA



19. True or False: FCA is the most widely used and most effective adjuvant for polyclonal antibody production.



20. True or False: FCA remains the “gold standard” to which newly formulated adjuvants are compared.



21. What adverse event associated with FCA use has prevented it from becoming a licensed adjuvant by the FDA?

Granuloma-induced spinal cord damage


22. Describe the changes in the mycobacterial component of FCA since its original formulation?

Currently less virulent and lower concentration (0.1 – 1.0 mg/ml) -- now use relatively avirulent M. tuberculosis H37Ra or M. butyricum


23. True or False: The delayed-type hypersensitivity response typical with FCA is what prevents reimmunization with FCA since it will result in a severe reaction.



24. Which of the following is/are other water-in-oil adjuvants with similar efficacies as FCA/FIA, but fewer adverse effects?
a. Specol
b. Montanide ISA
c. TiterMax Gold
d. RIBI Adjuvant System
e. Syntex Adjuvant Formulation
f. A, B, and C
g. B, D and E
h. None of the above

F. The RIBI and Syntex adjuvants are oil-in-water instead of water-in-oil like FCA.


25. True or False: Aluminum salt adjuvants, Immune Stimulating Complexes (ISCOMs) and Gerbu adjuvants are all examples of particulate-type adjuvants.



26. Which of the following is the most common method of producing prophylactic vaccines for human and veterinary use?
b. FIA
c. Aluminum salts
d. Gerbu



27. Although rare, adverse reactions such as localized erythema and granuloma formation at site of injection do occur when Aluminum salt adjuvants are used- particularly by which route?



29. What is the characteristic of saponin that has prevented its widespread use in human vaccines?

Hemolytic activity