biochem Module 8 Flashcards
(102 cards)
1
Q
this is always the first amino acid to be translated
a. tyrosine
b. methionine
c. alanine
d. valine
A
b
2
Q
process of RNA synthesis is called
a. replication
b. transcription
c. translation
d. transcytosis
A
b
c- protein synthesis
3
Q
prokaryotic rRNA
a. 28s
b. 18s
c. 16s
d. 5.8 s
A
c
4
Q
In, DNA synthesis, all parts will be replicated in RNA synthesis, all parts will be transcribed
a. first statement true, second false
b. first and second statements true
c. both false
d. first statement false, second true
A
a
5
Q
most abundant RNA
a. mRNA
b. tRNA
c. rRNA
d. snRNA
A
c
mRNA- most heterogenous
6
Q
difference between RNA and DNA synthesis except
a. RNA synthesis has no proofreading ability
b. RNA synthesis does not follow Watson Crick base pairing rules
c. No primer is used in RNA synthesis
d. only a portion of genome is transcribed
A
b.
7
Q
in RNA synthesis, the \_\_\_\_\_\_ is used a non coding strand of the DNA b. coding strand of the DNA c. non coding strand of the RNA d. coding strand of the RNA
A
a non coding or template strand
8
Q
RNA used for splicing
a. mRNA
b. tRNA
c. rRNA
d. snRNA
A
d
9
Q
DNA dependend RNA polymerase must attach to the ____ for transcription to occue
a. promoter region of the coding strand of DNA
b. promoter region of the non coding strand of DNA
c. promoter region of the coding strand of RNA
d. promoter region of the non coding strand of RNA
A
b
10
Q
primary transcript is complementary with a non coding strand of the DNA b. coding strand of the DNA c. non coding strand of the RNA d. coding strand of the RNA
A
a
11
Q
starting point of transcription
a. -35
b. -10
c. +1
d. +12
A
C
12
Q
mechanism of action of quinolones
a. inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis
b. 30 s inhibitor
c. 50 s inhibitor
d. inhibits DNA gyrase
A
d
13
Q
direction of transcription
a. upstream or to the right
b. upstream or to the left
c. downstream or to the right
d. downstream or to the left
A
c
14
Q
Type of mutation wherein cytidine becomes guanine A. Translocation B. Transition C. Transversion D. Silent mutation
A
C
15
Q
GTP in the initiation process of translation is bound to A. eIF1 B. eIF2 C. eIF4 D. eIF5
A
B
16
Q
posttranscriptional modification in the 3’ end
a. capping
b. poly A tail
c. introns
d. Splicosome
A
b
capping-5’ end
17
Q
protein synthesis is synthesized in what direction
a. 3’-5’
b. 5’-3’
c. both direction
d. 1’-5’
A
b
18
Q
pribnow box are recognized by
a. alpha factor
b. beta factor
c. rho factor
d. sigma factor
A
d
19
Q
RNA synthesis is synthesized in what direction
a. 3’-5’
b. 5’-3’
c. both direction
d. 1’-5’
A
b
20
Q
process in RNA syntheisis wherein RNAP begins to synthesize a transcript of DNA sequence
a. initiation
b. elongation
c. replication
d. termination
A
b
21
Q
elongation of RNA is done via the
a. addition in the 2’- OH
b. addition in the 3’-OH
c. cleavage in the 2’-OH
d. cleavage in the 3’-OH
A
b
22
Q
components of a core enzyme RNA polymerase except
a. alpha subunit
b. beta subunit
c. beta prime subunit
d. sigma subunit
A
d.
if with sigma- holoenzyme
23
Q
caps of the primary transcript
a. 5- methylcytosine diphosphate
b. 3- methyladenine monophosphate
c. 7- methylguanosine triphosphate
d. 9- methyluracil monophosphate
A
c
24
Q
Equivalent to the methyl cap in prokaryotes A. Kozak consensus sequence B. Shine Delgarno sequence C. TATA box D. Pribnow box
A
B
25
interconversion of euchromatin to heterochromatin is called
a. chromatin formation
b. chromatin modeling
c. chromatin cleavage
d. chromatin exchange
b
26
HETEROchromatin are have a lot of
a. methyl group
b. acetyl group
c. hydroxyl group
d. carboxyl group
a. that's why they are inactivated
| to activate- acetylate them
27
major product of RNA polymerase II
a. tRNA
b. mRNA
c. rRNA
d. snRNA
b
menmonic
RMT- 1,2,3
28
TATA box usually seen in
a. 35 nucleotides to the right
b. 10 nucleotides to the left
c. 25 nucleotides to the left
d. 2 nucleotides to the right
c
29
```
Peptidyl transferase is a component of
A. 30 s
B. 40s
C. 50s
D. 60s
```
D
30
```
only transcription factor capable of binding to specific sequences of DNA
a. TFIIIC
b TFIIIB
c. TFIID
c. NF1
```
c
31
transcription factor that binds in the GC box
a. NF1
b. TFIID
c. Sp1
d. TFIIIC
c
NF1- CAAT
TFIID- TATA
32
```
This melts the complex secondary structure of mRNA
A. eIF4A
B. eIF4E
C. eIF4G
D. eIF4H
```
A.
| 4A and 4B
33
substrte for several kinases and serves as a binding site for a wide array of protein
a. CTD
b. IF2
c. TFIIIC
c. NF1
a
34
what drug =) inhibits the beta subunit of prokarytic RNA polymerase
a. erythromycin
b. ciprofloxacin
c. rifampin
d. dactinomycin
c
erythromycin- 50s
ciprofloxacin- topoisomerase
d. dactinomycin- binds to DNA template
35
Eukaryotic rRNA tat is synthesized in RNAP III and is modified separately
a. 28s
b. 18s
c. 16 s
d. 5s
d
36
```
Translocation is part of protein ______
A. Pre Initiation
B. Initiation
C. Elongation
D. Termination
```
C
37
tRNA is transcribed by
a. RNA pol I
b. RNA pol II
c. RNA pol III
d. RNA pol IV
c
| RMT-1,2,3
38
```
After passing thru the liver, a substance is more
A. Lipophilic
B. Hydrophilic
C. Amphipathic
D. Active
```
B. So easier to excrete
39
nucleotides in the 5' end of the tRNA are removed via the
a. ribonuclease
b. RNAse P
c. tRNA nucleotidyl transferase
d. guanine methyltransferase
b.
| ribonuclease-cleaves preribosomal RNA to intermediate sized rRNA
40
```
What region of tRNA recognizes codon in mRNA
A. Thymidine pseudouridine cytidine arm
B. Anticodon region
C. Acceptor arm
D. D arm
```
B
41
addition of CCA bases in the 3' end of the tRNA are catalyzed by
a. ribonuclease
b. RNAse P
c. tRNA nucleotidyl transferase
d. guanine methyltransferase
c
| guanine methyltransferase- for capping of mRNA
42
```
This Initiation factor prevents the reassociation of 40s and 60s ribosomal subunit
A. eIF1
B. eIF2
C. eIF4
D. eIF5
```
A.
| eIF1A and eIF3
43
```
Cancer from connective tissues are called
A. Adenoma
B. Carcinoma
C. Sarcoma
D. Leukemia
```
C
44
```
Enzyme that catAlyzes the nucleophillic attack of A site tRNA to P. Site tRNA
A. PFK
B. EF2
C. Peptidyl transferase
D. Amino acyl tRNA synthase
```
C. This is a ribozyme
45
```
Type of mutation that causes premature termination
A. Missense
B. Non sense
C. Transition
D. Silent mutation
```
B
46
RNA sequence that do not code for proteins are called
a. euchromatin
b. heterochromatin
c. intron
d. exon
c
47
```
Citrate _____ glycolysis, _____ FA synthesis respectively
A. Inc, inc
B. Dec, dec
C. Inc, dec
D. Dec, inc
```
D
48
excised introns are called
a. snurps
b. spliceosome
c. lariat
d. mature mRNA
c
49
SLE has antibody against
a. RNAP
b. snurps
c. mature tRNA
c. lariat
b
50
HIV attacks
a. RBC
b. CD4
c. liver
d. heart
b
51
quinolones acrs by ingibiting ____ of gram negative and _____ of gram postive
a. topoisomerase I, topoisomerase III
b. topoisomerase I, topoisomerase IV
c. topoisomerase II, topoisomerase III
d. topoisomerase II, topoisomerase IV
d
52
enzyme that converts RNA to DNA
a. RNA pol III
b. DNA pol I
c. reverse transcriptase
d. integrase
c
53
```
This is the most frequent conjugation reaction
A. Hydroxylation
B. Sulfation
C. Glucoronidation
D. Redox
```
C
54
```
Type of mutation wherein adenine becomes guanine
A. Translocation
B. Transition
C. Transversion
D. Silent mutation
```
B.
55
what part of the gene codes for reverse transcriptase
a. pol
b. env
c. gag
d. regulatory
a
gag- proteins
env- envelope
regulatory- between env and oil
56
enzyme that catalyzes the insertion of viral DNA to host DNA
a. RNA pol III
b. DNA pol I
c. reverse transcriptase
d. integrase
d
57
```
Amino acids can be encoded by different combinations of codon. This is an example of
A. Degeneracy
B. Non overlapping
C. Unambiguous
D. Non punctuating
```
A
58
```
HAARt theraphy for HIV is composed of ___ NRTI, __ protease inhibitor
a. 3, 1
b 1,2
c. 1,3
d. 2,1
```
d
59
```
Preferred fuel in the heart and muscles
A. Glucose
B. FA
C. Amino acids
D. Aota
```
B
60
```
Energy requirement for formation of 1 peptide bond in translation
A. 1 phosphate group
B. 2 phosphate group
C. 3 phosphate group
D. 4 phosphate group
```
D
61
```
Dephosphorylated p53 will
A. Inc proteolysis
B. Dec proteolysis
C. No change in proteolysis
D. Don't care
```
A
62
```
Part of tRNA where there is a recognition site for specific aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase
A. D arm
B. Acceptor arm
C. Thymidine pseudouridine cytidine arm
D. Anticodon arm
```
A
63
pribnow box is usually seen
a. 10 nucleotides to the left of the transcription site
b. 35 nucleotides to the left of the transcription site
c. 6 nucleotides to the right of the transcription site
b. 24 nucleotides to the right of the transcription site
a
64
```
Rate limiting step in translation
A. Binding of eIF3 to 40s subunit
B. Binding of RF1 to A site
C. Binding of eIF3 to 5' mRNA cap
D. Translocation of peptidyl tRNA from A site to P site
```
C
65
```
Cancer cells have_____ activity of glycolysis
A. Higher
B. Lower
C. Same
D. Lower then higher
```
A
66
```
Composition of glutathione except
A. Glutamine
B. Cysteine
C. Tryptophan
D. Glycine
```
C
67
nucleotide base that is unique in RNA
a. adenine
b. thymine
c. uracil
d. guanine
c
70
```
Protein synthesis is done in what direction
A. 5' to 3'
B. 3' to 5'
C. 2' to 5'
D. 5' to 2'
```
A
74
```
Tetracycline inhibits what step in protein translation
A. Initiation
B. Elongation
C. Termination
D. Aota
```
B
75
Combination of 48s complex with 60s ribosomal subunit is part of _____ of translation
A. Initiation
B. Elongation
C. Termination
A
76
```
What region of tRNA is the site for attachment of amino acyl tRNA to ribosomal surface at the site of protein synthesis
A. Thymidine pseudouridine cytidine arm
B. Anticodon region
C. Acceptor arm
D. D arm
```
A
77
```
Each codon encodes for a single amino acid. This is an example of
A. Degeneracy
B. Universal
C. Unambiguous
D. Non overlapping
```
C
78
```
eRF3 binds to
A. UAG
B. UAA
C. UGA
D. GTP
```
D
79
```
Type of mutation that causes no detectable changes because the codon still codes for the same amino acid
A. Missense
B. Non sense
C. Transition
D. Silent mutation
```
D
80
```
Where does translation occur in prokaryotes
A. Nucleus
B. Cytoplasm
C. Cell wall
D. Endoplasmic reticulum
```
A
81
```
Where can you find anti codons
A. DNA
B. mRNA
C. tRNA
D. Proteins
```
C
| Codons- mRNA
82
```
MOA is preventing the binding of aminoacyltRNAs to active site
A. Macrolides
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Tetracycline
D. Aminoglycosides
```
C
83
In the presence of BP1, initiation of translation will
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. No change, it will affect transcription
D. No change, it will affect replication
B.
| Will bind to eIF 4E rendering it inactive
84
```
p53 inhibits cell cycle by
A. Inhibiting apoptosis
B. Promoting acetylation of histones
C. Insertion of poly a tail
D. Activating p21 protein
```
D
85
```
Major source of NADPH
A. Glycolysis
B. Gluconeogenesis
C. PPP
D. Ketogenesis
```
C
86
```
What initiation factor causes the release of all initiation factors from the 80s ribosome
A. eIF2
B. eIF3
C. eIF4
D. eIF5
```
D
87
```
eRF 2 binds to except
A. UAG
B. UAA
C. UGA
D. Nota
```
A
88
Glucose converted to 2 molecules of pyruvate with
net generation of 2 molecules each of ATP and NADH
A. Gluconeogenesis
B. TCA
C. Glycolysis
D. Ketogenesis
C
89
```
You can generally converted fats to carbohydrates
A. True
B. False
C. Don't know
D. Don't care
```
B. Except for odd numbered FA
90
```
In eukaryotes, this occurs n the cytoplasm
A. DNA replication
B. Transcription
C. Reverse transcription
D. Translation
```
D
91
```
MOA is binding to eEF2
A. Puromycin
B. Diphtheria
C. Ricin
D. Aminoglycosides
```
B
92
```
Proteins that will direct a G1 phase cell to S phase
A. NSAID
B. Morphine
C. Cyclin
D. Oncogene
```
C
93
```
End ploidy of Cells in S phase are
A. Monoploid
B. Diploid
C. Triploid
D. Tetraploid
```
D
94
```
Resting phase of cell cycle
A. G0
B. G1
C. G2
D. G3
```
A
95
```
Phase in cell cycle wherein chromosomes separates and migrate to the ends of the cell
A. G1 phase
B. M phase
C. G2 phase
D. S phase
```
C
96
```
Most primary carcinoma arise from
A. Continually renewing
B. Conditionally renewing
C. Non renewing
D. Degenerating
```
A
97
```
p21 can be induced by
A. Cholesterol
B. Cholesterol inhibitors
C. PPAR
D. Phospholipase A2
```
B
98
```
Loss of APC gene in FAP is an example of
A. Insertion mutation
B. Deletion mutation
C. Missense mutation
D. Non sense mutation
```
B
99
termination factor in the transcription of prokaryotes
a. alpha factor
b. beta factor
c. rho factor
d. sigma factor
c
100
```
Phosphorylated p53 _____ cell cycle
A. Inc
B. Dec
C. No change
D. Don't know
```
B
101
```
Mutations ______ oncogenes, _____ tumor suppressor genes
A. Activate, activate
B. Activate, inactivate
C. Inactivate, activate
D. Inactivate, inactivate
```
B
104
```
Hypothesized to have an effect of p21 protein
A. Prostaglandin
B. HMG CoA reductase inhibitors
C. Lidocaine
D. Tetracyclines
```
B
105
```
During starvation, whati nitration factor is Phosphorylated
A. eIF3
B. eIF4
C. eIF2
D. eIF1
```
C.
| Phosphorylated eIF2 is INACTIVE
107
```
Checkpoint is absent
A. Between mitosis and G1
B. Between G1 and S phase
C. Between S phase and G2
D. Between G2 and M phase
```
C
108
```
MOA is preventing eukaryotic peptidyltransferase
A. Macrolides
B. Clindamycin
C. Cyclohexamide
D. Aminoglycosides
```
C
109
```
What region of tRNA is the site for attachment for specific amino acids
A. Thymidine pseudouridine cytidine arm
B. Anticodon region
C. Acceptor arm
D. D arm
```
C
113
```
MOA is preventing prokaryotic peptidyltransferase
A. Macrolides
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Tetracycline
D. Aminoglycosides
```
B
