Biosecurity & Biocontainment Flashcards

(41 cards)

1
Q

what is the goal of a biosecurity or biocontainment plan

A

prevent the transmission of infectious agents into and among individuals, groups of animals, farms or regions

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2
Q

The principles of biosecurity are to…

A

increase host resistance
eliminate disease reservoirs (Env)
prevent / eliminate transmission

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3
Q

what are intrinsic vs extrinsic elements of biosecurity

A

intrinsic = immune status, nutrition, genetics
extrinsic = movement pathways, segregation, physical barriers

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4
Q

Biosecurity plans are based on what

A

Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points

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5
Q

the result of management practices to avoid introduction or reintroduction of disease agents to a facility or region

A

biosecurity

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6
Q

what are the exposure pathways to dairy cattle

A

Oral: contaminated feed/water
Inhalation: dust/manure particles
Physical: oronasal cavities, teat wounds
Indirect: fomites, vectors

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7
Q

Farm Biosecurity Risks (4)

A

Cattle from other premises
Feedstuff
Vehicles and People
Drinking water

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8
Q

how long should new cattle be isolated before introduction to herd

A

10 days -3 weeks

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9
Q

what are the most common diseases cattle are tested for

A
  • bovine diarrhea virus (BDV)
  • brucellosis
  • tuberculosis
  • Mycobacterium avium, paratuberculosis
  • Mycoplasma
  • Staphylococcus, Streptocossus
  • Neospora
  • Salmonella
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10
Q

common dairy cattle vaccinations

A

BVD
Brucellosis
Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis (IBR)
parainfluenza 3 virus
bovine respiratory syncytial virus (BRSV)

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11
Q

what is Biocontainment

A

result of actions to prevent the spread of disease agents among groups of animals at a facility or farm
- important backup to biosecurity

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12
Q

when after vaccination does immunity develop for cattle

A

~4 weeks

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13
Q

What are the methods of biocontainment maintenance on dairy farm

A
  • vaccinations
  • unidirectional flow of animals, people, materials
  • scheduled cleaning of facility + equiptment
  • newborn calf protocols
  • no feeding of leftover feed to young
  • logical milking order
  • avoiding direct contact b/w groups
  • limit exposure to recycled water
  • proper manure handling
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14
Q

how should new born calves be handled

A
  • move to individual stalls right after birth
  • give colostrum w/in 24 hours
  • vaccinate 3-4 weeks prior to moving to group pen
  • do not feed waste milk
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15
Q

what 4 main animal groups should be separated on a dairy farm

A

newborns
young stock and heifers
lactating cows
non-lactating cows

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16
Q

what are the common zoonoses in veterinary personnel

A

salmonellosis
cryptosporidiosis
plague
sporotrichosis
MRSA
psittacosis (avian chlamydiosis)
dermatophytosis
leptospirosis
Q fever

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17
Q

what vaccines should employees in the vet field have at minimum

A

Rabies
Tetanus
Influenza

18
Q

what is disease control

A

the reduction of disease incidence, prevalence, morbidity or mortality to a locally acceptable level as a result of deliberate efforts

continued intervention measures are required to maintain reduction

combination of - initial intervention strategies, ongoing disease control strategies, monitoring and surveillance

19
Q

what is the eradication

A

CDC: permanent reduction to zero of the worldwide incidence of infection caused by a specific agent
Result of deliberate efforts
intervention measures no longer needed

20
Q

examples of successful global eradication programs

A

Smallpox - 1980
Rinderpest - 2011

21
Q

what are some ongoing global eradication programs

A
  • guinea worm disease
  • lymphatic filariasis
  • leprosy
  • tetanus
  • Chaga’s disease
  • measles
  • polio
22
Q

what are the 4 control and eradication options for animals

A
  1. depopulation and quarantine of new animals
  2. quarantine and remove positives
  3. quarantine, remove positives and vaccinate susceptible individuals
  4. quarantine and vaccination (or treatment)
23
Q

when should disease control and eradication include depopulation of current animals and the quarantining of new ones

A
  • highly contagious diseases, short incubation periods
  • disease is disruptive to production and economy
    ex: Foot and Mouth, HogCholera, Exotic Newcastle disease, Scrapie, Bovine spongiform encephalopathy, highly pathogenic avian influenza
  • test and slaughter entire herds
24
Q

what type of diseases warrant quarantine and removal of positives

A

when agent is not highly contagious or communicable, has a long incubation period during which infection is detectable

  • low disease prevalence

ex: Bovine TB, equine infectious anemia

  • test and slaughter individual animals
25
what type of diseases warrant quarantine, removal of positives and vaccination of susceptible animals
- when disease prevalence is higher and segregation of herds inadequate - removal of positives doesn't stop transmission ex: brucellosis
26
what type of diseases warrant quarantine and vaccination
- disease w/ high prevalnce but economic and production costs aren't catastrophic - this method slows but doesn't totally prevent transmission ex: Leptospirosis, Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis, bordatella
27
what biosafety level would agents such as Bacillus subtilis, Naegleria gruberi, infectious canine hepatitis, non-pathogenic E.coli belong to
Biosafety Level 1
28
characteristics of diseases in Biosafety level 1
agents not known to cause disease in healthy adults
29
characteristics of diseases in Biosafety level 2
agents do not cause lethal infections and are not transmissible through air agents are pathogens for which immunization or antibiotic treatment is available
30
what biosafety level would agents such as measles, Salmonella, Toxoplasma, Clostridium botulinum and hepatitis B belong to
Biosafety level 2
31
characteristics of diseases in Biosafety level 3
agents w/ potential for respiratory transmission, may cause serious and potentially lethal infection either prevention or treatment options exist
32
what biosafety level would agents such as M. tuberculosis, St. Louis encephalitis, F. tularensis, Coviella burnetii, and Rabies belong to
Biosafety Level 3
33
characteristics of diseases in Biosafety level 4
Dangerous and exotic agents w/ high risk of life-threatening disease, aerosol transmitted
34
what biosafety level would agents such as Marburg, Ebola, Congo-Crimean hemorrhagic fever and lassa fever belong to
Biosafety Level 4
35
BSL -1 Lab Locations
high schools, community colleges, municipal drinking water treatment facilities
36
BSL -2 Lab Locations
local health depts, universities, state labs, private labs, industrial labs
37
BSL - 3 Lab locations
state health dept, universities, private companies, industry, federal government
38
BSL -4 Lab Locations
only ~13 facilities in US most are federal (CDC, NIH) some are at universities, one is private
39
primary precaution barriers in BSL 2 labs
biosafety cabinets or other containment devices
40
primary precaution barriers in BSL 3 labs
same as BSL-2 but add respiratory PPE when needed
41
primary precaution barriers in BSL 4 labs
BSL 2 + 3 precautions + full body air supplied positive pressure personal suit