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OBS and gynae > breast IOD > Flashcards

breast IOD Flashcards

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1
Q

which tumour under microscopy has cell in a single file and a dysfunction in the E-cadherin-catenin system

A

lobular carcinoma

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2
Q

which tumour describes: a well circumscribed with well differentiated glands embedded into well differentiated connective tissue stroma

A

breast fibroadenoma

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3
Q

breast cancer that express ER

A

ER positive is less aggressive and more likely to respond to hormone therapy

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4
Q

breast cancer that over express HER

A

poorer prognosis but more likely to respond to herceptin

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5
Q

what is associated with microcalcifcations

A

DCIS can be seen in mammogram

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6
Q

how does DCIS and ductal carcinoma present

A

ductal carcinoma presents as a mass, DCIS: confined within basement membrane

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7
Q

What are the six different prognostic factors for breast cancer

A

tumor stage, tumour grade, histological subtype, vascular invasion, excision margins, oestrogen and HER2

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8
Q

what is the most prognostic factor in breast cancer

A

tumour stage and in particular the lymph nodes

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9
Q

What are the three compensation mechanisms for acid

A

buffering, compensation and treatment

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10
Q

What are the three mechanisms for buffering

A

bicarbonate in the serum and phosphate in the urine, skeleton and intracellular loss of H+

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11
Q

Characteristics of compensation of acid

A

diametric opposite, never overcompensates and delayed and limited

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12
Q

how do we treat to compensate acid

A

precipitating solution

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13
Q

iron requirment for men and women aged 11-18

A

men: 11 and women: 15

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14
Q

iron requirement for men and women aged 19-50

A

men: 8 and women: 18

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15
Q

iron requirement for men and women aged 7-12 months

A

11 for both

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16
Q

What is the most common cancer in the UK

A

breast cancer

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17
Q

lifetime risk of breast cancer in the UK

A

1-8 women

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18
Q

in which ages in breast cancer most likely

A

40-70 yr

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19
Q

Before what age is breast cancer less likely to develop

A

25 years

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20
Q

three major risk factors for breast cancers

A

family history, prolonged oestrogen exposure and alcohol consumption

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21
Q

Which genes can lead to increased risk of breast cancer

A

BRACA 1 and BRACA 2

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22
Q

under which inheritance pattern is BRCA gene inherited

A

autosomal dominant

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23
Q

by what percentage does each additional alcoholic drink increase the risk of developing breast cancer

A

10%

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24
Q

apart from breast cancer, what other cancer is at a higher risk of having BRACA

A

ovarian cancer and do a bilateral masectomy

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25
What are the four characteristics of a malignant cell
pleomorphism, hyperchromasia, increased nuclear:cytoplasmic ratio and mitotic actvity
26
in which ages would you consider a mammogram
age over 35
27
in which ages would you consider an ultrasound
age under 35
28
why would you do a mammogram in older patients
you can see microcalcifications more clearly
29
why would you do a ultrasound in younger patients
you can see more dense tissue and identify solid and cystic lesions
30
What does C1/B1 refer to
inadequate sample
31
what does C2/B2 refer to
benign
32
what does C3/B3 refer to
equivocal favour benign
33
what does C4/B4 refer to
equivocal favour malignant
34
what does C5/B5 refer to
malignant
35
Which C/B stage does DCIS refer to
C5/B5
36
what does a increased urea/creatinine ration refer to
there is a problem with the kidneys
37
Define fibrocystic change
minor aberrations to cyclical hormonal chnage
38
painful lump in breast during second half of cycle
fibrocystic change
39
In which age is fibrocystic age common
25-45
40
treatment of fibrocystic change
reassurance, analgesia, aspiration or excision
41
Which three factors reduce the release of ADH
decreased plasma osmolality, increase in plasma volume and ethanol
42
What is the ages for the NHS breast screening program
47-73 years every 3 years before 50-70
43
Where do all breast cancers arise from
from epithelial cells lining the terminal duct lobular unit
44
what type are 75% of breast cancers
ductal carcinoma
45
What part of the lung does mesothelioma affect
lining of the pleura
46
latency period of mesothelioma
40 years
47
what do fibroblasts secrete in the interstitium during DLPD
collagen
48
three organisms that causes severe CAP
strep pneumoniae, legionella, Stpah auerus
49
which organism is the main cause of infective excacerbation of COPD and then pneumonia
1)h. influenzae and 2)s.pneumoniae
50
What are the other three types of breast cancer apart from lobular and ductal
tubular, cribriform and mucinous
51
most common organisms that cause HAP
gram negative, klebsiella, e-coli and pseudomonas aeruginosa
52
What are the three risk factors for lung cancer in non-smokers
industrial hazards, epidermal growth factor and environmental hazards like radon gas
53
What is main demographic in patients with sjorgens syndrome
50 year old women
54
sensitivity and specificity of ANA testing
high sensitivity but low specificity
55
A negative ANA will rule out which diseases
SLE, sjorgens syndrome, systemic sclerosis
56
Which drugs can increase the risk of a positive ANA
hydralazine, isonazid and procainamide
57
Which infections can you see a positive ANA
TB, mononucleosis, hepatits c, subacute bacterial endocarditis
58
When should the three serum tryptase samples be taken
15min-3 hr, 3-6hr 24-48hr
59
when should serum tryptase levels return to normal after an allergic reaction
12-14
60
What does a persistently raised serum tryptase suggest
mastocytosis
61
rules for antihistamines when doing a skin prick test
stop 5-7 days before
62
2 preformed and 2 synthesised inflammatory mediators
preformed: histamine and tryptase, synthesised: prostaglandin and leukotrienes
63
in which region is beta thalassemia present in higher levels
pakistan
64
IgA endomysial antibodies, IgA tTG antibodies
coeliac disease
65
Anti-gastric parietal cell antibodies
atrophic gastritis, pernicious anaemia
66
anti-intrinsic factor antibodies
pernicious anaemia
67
anti-mitochondrial antibodies,anti-PDH antibodies
primary biliary cirrhosis
68
anti-smooth muscle antibodies
autoimmune hepatitis
69
anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies
good-pastures syndrome
70
anti-PR3, cANCA
Granulomatosis with polyangitis, Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis
71
pANCA
granulomatosis with polyangitis, eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangitis and UC
72
anti-cardiolipin antibodies
antiphospholipid syndrome
73
anti-skin antibodies
phemphigus and phemphigold
74
anti-adrenocortical antibodies
addisons disease
75
anti-SSA (Ro) and anti-SSB (La)
sjorgens
76
anti- cyclic citrullinated peptide antibodies
rheumatoid arthritis
77
anti-acetylcholine receptor antibodies
myasthenia gravis
78
define chronic spontaneous urticaria
spontaneous hives or angioedema or both daily or almost daily for atleast 6 weeks
79
6 steps of management for chronic spontaneous urticaria
1) stop exacerbating factors 2) anti-histamines 3) short courses of steroids for 10 days for acute exacerbations 4) h2 receptor blocker- rantidine 5) leukotriene receptor- montelukast 6) IgE antiboidy: ozliumab
80
increased risk of breast cancer thriugh family history
Breast cancer in a first-degree male relative of any age Breast cancer in a first-degree relative under the age of 40 Bilateral breast cancer in a first-degree relative under the age of 50 Breast cancer in two first-degree relatives

OBS and gynae (17 decks)

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