Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

OBS and gynae > Gastro > Flashcards

Gastro Flashcards

(71 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What test is positive in UC and negative in crohn’s

A

pANCA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What would you seen in the histology of a patient with UC

A

lead piping due to loss of haustral markings and pseuopolyps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

which is granulomatous, UC or crohns

A

UC is non and crohns is caseating gran

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

gold standard investigation and emergency treatment for UC

A

sigmoidoscopy with biopsy and surgery: proctocolectomy, topical ifnot prednisolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

treatment for functional dyspepsia

A

amitriptylline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

which drugs would you avoid in someone with GERD

A

anticholinergics and calcium channel blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which drugs can cause upper GI bleed

A

ODEVICES, Omeprazole, Disulfram Erythromycin, Valproate, Isonazid, Ciproflaxcin, Ethanol Sulphonamides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is causes jaundice with metabolic acidosis

A

drug induced hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What causes AST:ALT ratio to be over 2

A

alcoholic liver disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What causes ALT/AST to be over 1000IU

A

ischaemic hepatitis, viral hepatitis and atuoimmune hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the fetal equivalent of albumin

A

alpha fetoprotein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Disease with isolated bilirubin

A

gilberts syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the ALT/AST/GGT/ALP pattern for viral hepatitis

A

ATL/AST grossly elevated and GGT and ALP is moderately elevated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the most common inheritable cause of colorectal cancer

A

lynch syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Difference is clinical features between oesophageal cancer and achalasia

A

achalasia is difficulty with solids and liquids from the start

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

features of biliary colic

A

intermittent coliky upper quadrant right sided pain, no fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

stages of hepatic encephalopathy

A

1: mood change and disrupted sleep and wake cycle

2: dizziness, confusion, slurring speech

3: restlessness, incoherency, liver flap

4: coma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

how many weeks with a previously healthy liver would you need to have to now be diagnosed with acute liver failure

A

less than 26 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how would you treat renal dysfunction in acute liver failure

A

fluid resuscitation with human albumin solution rather than crystalloid solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

drugs you would use to treat encephalopathy and cerebral oedema

A

encephalopathy: oral lactulose and oedema: IV mannose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

how would you treat recurring hepatic encephalopathy

A

rifamicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

went on holiday 3 weeks ago, GP suspects viral hepatitis and pt says she tried many different foods in spain. which infection is it likely to be

A

Hep A incubation period of 2-3 weeks and faecal-oral transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

went on holiday 3 months ago, jaundice, itchiness. GP suspect viral hepatitis, what is the most likely causative agent?

A

Hep B, incubation test- 60-90 days and transmitted through sex and vertical transmission.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

treatment for alcohol withdrawal first and second line

A

chlordiazepoxide and iv lorazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
score used for cirrhosis
child-hugh score
26
Treatment of asities
fluid restriction, furosemide and spironolactone
27
treatment for pruritis
cholestyramine is a bile acid sequestrant so binds to bile acids and presents absorption
28
gi bleed and oesophageal varices will present with which type of anaemia?
normocytic
29
which electrolyte abnormality can lead to cirrhosis
low albumin and hyponatraemia
30
different types of autoimmune hepatitis
1: anti-smooth muscle antibodies and anti-nuclear antibodies 2: anti-liver microsomal antibodies 3: anti-soluble liver antibodies
31
what is the treatment for autoimmune hepatitis
30mg oral prednisolone: for immunsupressive therapy and aziathioprine as a DMARD and reduce over 2 years
32
pt presenting with jaundice, oedema and confusion with a paracetamol overdose 30mins ago. management?
activated charcoal
33
pt presenting with jaundice, oedema and confusion with a paracetamol overdose 5hours ago. management?
NAC
34
pt presenting with jaundice, oedema and confusion with a paracetamol overdose 3 hours ago. management?
wait another 4 hours and do a treatment line
35
pt presenting with jaundice, oedema and confusion with a paracetamol overdose but doesnt know how long ago management?
NAC immediately
36
What is the role of N-acetycysteine
a toxic metabolite of paracetamol: NAPQI which is toxic to the kidney and liver. Gluthiaone detoxifies it. and increased paracetamol depletes the stores, NAC replenishes these stores.
37
what is the most common type of gastric cancer
adenocarcinoma
38
When would you do an urgent referral in 2 weeks for stomach cancer
dysphagia at any age, 55 and over for unintentional weight loss
39
when would you refer for 6 weeks for stomach cancer
haematemesis at any age, 55 and over with treatment resistant dyspepsia, abdo pain and nausea and vomiting
40
investigation for stomach cancer
endoscopy, CTAP and MRI treatment with partial and total gastrectomy
41
treatment for barrett's oesopahgus
surgery
42
apart from PPI therapy- what are the other treatment for ERD
antacids like magnesium trisilicate, alginates like gaviscon
43
two types of hiatus hernia and the most common
rolling and sliding and sliding is more common
44
First line investigation for hiatus hernia
barium swallow then oesophageal mano
45
which condition is increased gastric emptying a risk factor for
duodenal ulcer
46
which condition is delayed gastric emptying a risk factor for
gastric cancer
47
when is duodenal ulcer pain worse
without food or over night
48
when is a gastric ulcer more painful
with food pain intensifies
49
first and second line treatment for infectious colitis
oral vancomycin, and oral fidaxomicin. if severe: oral vanco and IV metronidazole
50
family history with colorectal cancer is likely to be at risk of which cancer
endometrial cancer
51
which feature would you see in acute liver disease
smooth tender hepatomegaly
52
does melaena suggest a lower GI or upper GI bleed
upper and at risk with NSAID
53
which GI disorder has halitosis: peptic ulcer disease, GERD
GERD
54
difference between gastric and duodenal ulcer symptoms
gastric: shortly after food pain. duodenal is pain with hunger and made better with food
55
When are people offered the Hep B vaccine
8, 12 and 16 weeks of age
56
does gilbert syndrome have conjugated or unconjugated bilirubin
unconjugated
57
what does a streptoboccus infection predispose you too
infective endocarditis and colorectal cancer
58
recurrent clostridium difficile infection
oral fidaxomicin
59
Courvoisier's law
palpable mass in the RUQ is more likely to be a malignant obstruction of the common bile duct rather than obstruction due to stones.
60
most common affected site in crohns
ileum
61
abdo pain and diarrhoea with duodenal ulcer s and high PTH
zollinger ellisons syndrome around 1/3 of these patients have multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1
62
what can transfer in swimming pools and causes a malabsorption
giardia lambia
63
for a PE do you used LMWH or a DOAC
DOAC
64
variceal haemorrhage treatment
terlipressin + IV antibiotic
65
what cancer is pernicious anaemia associated with
gastric cancers and carcinoid tumours
66
what cancer is zollinger-ellison associated with
gastrinoma
67
what cancer is hpylori associated with
MALT lymphoma
68
what cancer is coeliac disease associated with
t cell lymphoma
69
what cancer is ulcerative colitis associated with
cholangiocarcinoma and colorectal cancer
70
treatment for wilsons disease
d-penicillamine
71
treatment for achalasia
hellers cardiomyotomy

OBS and gynae (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions