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OBS and gynae > rheumatology > Flashcards

rheumatology Flashcards

(67 cards)

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1
Q

Which rheumatological condition has only pain and stiffness but no weakness

A

polymylagia rheumatica

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2
Q

Which rheumatological condition can lead to carpal tunnel syndrome

A

polymyalgia rheumatica

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3
Q

Which rheumatological condition is associated with polymyalgia rheumatica

A

giant cell arteritis

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4
Q

Which condition is a medical emergency

A

giant cell arteritis

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5
Q

which are the 5 features of GCA

A

bitemporal sudden onset headache, vision: amaurosis fugax, vision loss, scalp tenderness, intermittent jaw claudication

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6
Q

What condition shows a optic disc that is chalky white and swollen optic disc

A

GCA

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7
Q

Which condition has a diagnosis using a biopsy

A

GCA

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8
Q

Treatment of GCA

A

oral prednisolone

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9
Q

What is the main mechanism of vision loss in GCA

A

anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy

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10
Q

What do you see in the blood film of someone with GCA

A

normochormic normocytic anaemia

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11
Q

what type of aneurysm is GCA associated with

A

aortic aneurysm

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12
Q

Which joints in the hands is osteoarthritis common

A

interphalangeal joints

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13
Q

what is the most common joint disease in the uk

A

osteoarthritis

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14
Q

which condition are heberdens and bouchards nodes seen

A

osteoarthritis

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15
Q

features on the x-ray in osteoarthritis

A

L: loss of joint space O: osteophytes S: subarticular sclerosis S: subchondral cysts

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16
Q

What three features are needed for the diagnosis of osteoarthritis

A

aged over 45 and morning stiffness less than 30min and movement related joint space

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17
Q

What is the first line management of osteoarthritis but then in the knee and hand

A

paracetamol, nsaids but for the knee and hand it is topical nsaids

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18
Q

Difference between ankylosing spondylitis and arthritis of the lumbar spine

A

ankylosing spondylitis is an inflammatory condition and more stiffness in the morning

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19
Q

What are the risk factors of osteoporosis

A

S: steroids H: hyperparathyroidism A: alcohol and smoking T:thin T: low testosterone E: erosive bone disease R: poor renal function E: early menopause D: diabetes

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20
Q

What is the first step before doing a dexa scan

A

do q risk score, if it is more than 10% do a dexa scan

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21
Q

What is the t score

A

this is comparing the bone density to young adults of the same sex.

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22
Q

What is the z score

A

comparing the bone density to adults of the same age and sex

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23
Q

What score indicates osteopenia

A

T score is -1 to -2.5 less than the mean

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24
Q

What score indicates osteoporosis

A

Z score less than 2 SD of the mean

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25
What is the first line treatment for osteoporosis
bisphosphonates, like alendronic acid
26
What is the mechanism of action of desonumab
causes the maturation of osteoclasts
27
What is the mechanism of action of raloxifene
binds to ER
28
In which bone condition is the bone mineral: bone matrix reduced
osteomalacia
29
In which condition is the serum calcium increased: osteomalacia, pagets, osteitis fibrosa cystica
Osteitis fibrosa cystica
30
In which condition is the serum calcium decreased: osteomalacia, pagets, osteitis fibrosa cystica
osteomalacia
31
In which condition is the serum calcium normal: osteomalacia, pagets, osteitis fibrosa cystica
pagets
32
What is osteomalacia
deficiency in vitamin D or calcium or phosphate which results in a failure to mineralize bone
33
bowing of legs, knock knees, costochondral swelling, skull softening and proximal muscle weakness are features of which condition
osteomalacia
34
What is characterised a vitamin D deficiency
less than 25nmol/L of vitamin D
35
radiolucent bones in a xray suggest what
osteomalacia
36
What is the maintainence dose of vitamin D
800 IU
37
How would you treat vitamin D deficiency
50000IU for 6 weeks, 20000 for 7 weeks, 4000IU for 10 weeks and then the maintenance dose of 800IU
38
How would you treat vitamin D insufficiency
800IU maintenance dose
39
Which arthritis affects the PIP joints and MCP joints
RA
40
Which arthritis has a neutropenia and painful DIP and PIP joints
Psoriatic arthritis
41
boutinnere's deformity, wrist sublaxation, swan neck deformity and z shaped thumb suggest what
RA
42
juxta-articular osteopenia and loss of joint space and on xray
RA
43
What are the categories of DS28
less than 1.6: mild 16-3.2: moderate 3.2-5.1: severe if over 5.2 start DMARD treatment
44
Examples of three DMARDS
methotrexate, hydrochloroquine and sulfaszine
45
side effects of methotrexate
cough, dysponea and fever (pneumonitis)
46
Which condition has an occult rash on the umbilicus, scalp and behind the ear and a pencil in cup deformity in the achilles tendon
psoriatic arthritis
47
which condition presents with extra-rheumatological features like raynaud's phenomenon, pleural effusions, seizures and hepatosplenomegaly
SLE
48
which condition shows joint widening on a x-ray
rickets
49
treatment of acute flares in RA
IV methylprednisolone
50
hip pain with fever
transient synovitis same day referral
51
ANA and anti-dsDNA specificity and senstivity for SLE
ANA: more sensitive anti-dsDNA: more specific
52
which drug with aziathioprine has a severe interaction and can cause bone marrow suppression and agranulocytosis
allopurinol
53
anti jo-1
dermatomyositis: purple rash on face
54
anti-scl-70
diffuse systemic sclerosis: thickening of the skin
55
what is marfans syndrome associated with
recurrent pneumothoraces
56
what should be done before giving bisphosphonates
correct calcium and vitamin D level
57
treatment for sjorgens
hypromellose
58
aortic problems, young female which causes limb claudication
takayasu's arteritis
59
distinguishing factor for pagets disease
isolated raised ALP
60
leg may be observed to be flexed at the hip, internally rotated and adducted.
posterior dislocation
61
, the leg can be positioned as externally rotated, but this is usually accompanied by significant abduction,
anterior dislocation
62
urethritis, arthritis and infective illness
reactive arthritis
63
joint aspirate is yellow and cloudy with the absence of crystals
RA
64
difference between pseudogout and gout
chondrocalcinosis
65
Bisphosphonates and denosumab can be used to prevent pathological fractures in bone metastases. If the eGFR < 30, denosumab is preferred
66
treatment for pagets disease
bisphosphonates
67
first line treatment for gout
nsaids and colchine

OBS and gynae (17 decks)

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