cardiology Flashcards

(58 cards)

1
Q

investigation for infective endocarditis

A

3 blood cultures taken from different parts of the body atleast 1 hour apart and a transoesophageal echocardiogram

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2
Q

diagnosis for infective endocarditis

A

dukes critera: either 2 major criteria, 1 major and three minor or 5 minor

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3
Q

What is in duke major criteria

A

positive blood culture tests, strong suggestive abnormality on echo

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4
Q

what is in duke minor criteria

A

fever more than 38, positive blood culture, but not for correct organism, cardiac/valvular abnormality, vasculitic phenomenon, embolic phenomenon, suggestive echo

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5
Q

When does aortic stenosis in someone with a biscupid valve present

A

by 30 years

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6
Q

what is the difference between stenosis and regurgitation

A

stenosis: valve cannot open properly and impedes forward flow and regurgitation: cannot close properly causing reverse flow

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7
Q

In which group is mitral valve prolapse most common

A

mainly women

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8
Q

most common cause of mitral valve regurg

A
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9
Q

what happens to the valves during mitral valve prolapse

A

dense collagen and elastin matrix is replaced by myxoedematous glucoaminoglycans

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10
Q

What is acute heart failure always a complication of

A

MI, either ischaemia, papillary muscle rupture or developing an arrythmia

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11
Q

what is the most important risk factor for developing AAA

A

atherosclerosis

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12
Q

characterising malignant/accelerated hypertension

A

marked raised diastolic pressure over 130mm-140Hg in younger adults where their arteries are not protected by atherosclerosis, fibrinoid necrosis nests are formed within arteries and there are complications of acute renal failure, blindness and microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia and DIC are complications

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13
Q

investigation for all patients with suspected pericarditis

A

transthoracic echo

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14
Q

what is the first and second line for supraventricular tachycardia

A

valslava manouevre and then adenosine

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15
Q

side effect of adenosine

A

flushing

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16
Q

Where does furosemide act

A

ascending loop of henle

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17
Q

when should people with a NSTEMI need a coronary angiography

A

grace score more than 3% do a coronary angiography within 72 hours

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18
Q

common cause of infective endocarditis in iv drug users

A

staph auerus- highly pathogenic

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19
Q

what to do for severe pneumonia (CAP)

A

coamoxiclav

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20
Q

What pneumonia causative agents does the urine antigen test for

A

legionella and strep pneumoniae

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21
Q

how are TSH and T4 and T3 affected by severe pneumoniae

A

normal TSH and low T4/T3

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22
Q

give examples of inspiratory and expiratory wheeze

A

inspiratory: croup, epiglottitis, anaphylaxis and expiratory: COPD and asthma

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23
Q

where would you see curshmann’s spirals

A

asthma

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24
Q

ejection systolic murmurs

A

aortic stenosis, pulmonary stenosis

25
pansystolic murmur
mitral regurgitation, tricuspid regurgitation and ventricular septal defect
26
mid systolic murmur
mitral valve prolapse
27
early diastolic
aortic regurgitation
28
mid diastolic
tricuspid stenosis and bicuspid stenosis
29
which hypertensive medication should we avoid in someone with gout
thiazide like diuretic: bendroflumethiazide
30
hypotension, tachycardia and muffled heart sounds and raised JVP
cardiac tamponade
31
example of a shockable rhythm
monomorphic ventricular tachycardia without a pulse
32
short and long term treatment for complete heart block
transcutaneous pacing is temporary to wait for a pacemaker
33
what is long QT syndrome and bazots formula
long QT syndrome: is 470ms in men and 440ms in women when there is coprescription of a macrolide and antiepileptic medication
34
what can cause hypoxic ischaemic strokes
. Precipitous drops in blood pressure can cause “watershed” area ischaemic strokes.
35
difference between mobitz i and ii
i is progressively increase PR until P wave drops and ii is constant PR with occasional non conducted p waves and first degoree is when they get progressively longer but no effect on P waves
36
dizziness and yellowing of vision describes the toxicity of which drug
digoxin and can be caused by hypokalaemia
37
feature of pericarditis on an ecg
saddle shaped st elevation
38
which medication is contraindicated in aortic stenosis
nitrates like GTN
39
when do you offer cardiac resynchronisation therapy
in an ejection fraction less than 35%
40
reduced ejection fraction with continual heart failure symptoms: treatments
ARB/ACEi, mineralocorticoid receptor and beta blocker
41
st elevation in someone with no obstructtive coronary heart disease and looks like an octopus pot
takotsubo cardiomyopathy
42
angina with beta blocker is insufficieent what can be used in combination
long acting dihydrapyridine calcium channel blocker
43
angina but asthmatic first line medication
rate limitng ccb: dilitazem
44
which of the following is not associated with aortic stenosis: soft S2, ejection click murmur, narrow pulse pressure and S4 heart sound and quinickes sign
quinickes sign and s4 heart sound
45
u waves
hypokalaemia
46
turners syndrome aortic valve
bicuspid aortic valve
47
ECG changes in v1 to v4- part of the heart and artery affected
anteroseptal and left anterior descending
48
ECG changes in I II avF- part of the heart and artery affected
inferior and right coronary artery
49
ECG changes in I, avL, V5-6 part of the heart and artery affected
lateral, left circumflex
50
ECG changes in I avL, v1-v6 part of the heart and artery affected
anterolateral, proximal left anterior descending
51
ECG changes in v1-3 part of the heart and artery affected
posterior, left circumflex and right coronary
52
beck's triad for cardiac tamponade
hypotension, muffled heart sounds and sitended neck veins
53
what can an aortic abscess lead to
complete heart block as it is close to the AVN node
54
does aortic regurgitation lead to HFNEF, HFrEF
HFrEF
55
pansystolic murmur radiating to the axilla
mitral regurgitation
56
quinickes sign
nail bed pulsation due to aortic regurg: early diastolic
57
which medication can lead to redcued hypoglycaemic awareness
beta blockers
58
first line treatment for otitis externa
topical antibiotics