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NPTE Exam > Cardiopulmonary Review Questions #3 > Flashcards

Cardiopulmonary Review Questions #3 Flashcards

1
Q

Which condition would be most commonly associated with a high hematocrit level?

anemia
blood loss
dehydration
vitamin deficiency

A

dehydration

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2
Q

Which value would be most indicative of a normal hemoglobin value?

11.5 gm/dL
14.5 gm/dL
18.5 gm/dL
19.5 gm/dL

A

Correct Answer: 14.5 gm/dL

Normal hemoglobin for males is 13.3-16.2 gm/dL and for females is 12.0-15.8 gm/dL.

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3
Q

Which value would be most desirable for partial thromboplastin time?

11 seconds
32 seconds
45 seconds
59 seconds

A

Correct Answer: 32 seconds

Normal partial thromboplastin time is 26.3-39.4 seconds.

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4
Q

What serum total cholesterol value would be considered borderline for hyperlipidemia?

170 mg/dL
190 mg/dL
220 mg/dL
250 mg/dL

A

Correct Answer: 220 mg/dL

Cholesterol under 200 mg/dl is considered desirable, 200 - 239 mg/dL borderline, and 240 mg/dL and over is considered high.

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5
Q

Which of the following lab values would be considered a precaution to all forms of exercise?

hematocrit of 30%
hemoglobin of 12 g/dL
platelet count of 10,000 mm3
white cell count of 1,200 mm3

A

platelet count of 10,000 mm3

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6
Q

Which of the following lipid levels poses a risk for heart disease?

low-density lipoprotein = 90 mg/dL
high-density lipoprotein = 35 mg/dL
total cholesterol = 195 mg/dL
triglycerides = 145 mg/dL

A

Correct Answer: high-density lipoprotein = 35 mg/dL

High-density lipoprotein is the “good” cholesterol. Recommended high-density lipoprotein levels are greater than 40 mg/dL, with levels greater than 60 mg/dL being considered protective against heart disease.

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7
Q

Which biochemical markers of cardiac injury are commonly assessed to diagnose or exclude an acute myocardial infarction?

troponin and creatine kinase
creatine kinase and C-reactive protein
C-reactive protein and potassium
potassium and troponin

A

troponin and creatine kinase

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8
Q

Lab results showing elevated hematocrit, hypernatremia, and elevated protein levels would be most indicative of:

asthma
hypovolemia
hypervolemia
orthopnea

A

Correct Answer: hypovolemia

Hypovolemia refers to a decrease in the volume of blood in the body which can be due to loss of blood or loss of body fluids. Hematocrit, hypernatremia, and elevated protein levels are reflective of the decrease in blood volume and the relative increase in concentration of the elements within the blood.

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9
Q

Which is the main protein found in blood plasma?

albumin
globulin
immunoglobin
keratin

A

albumin

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10
Q

A patient with an international normalized ratio (INR) of greater than 4.0 indicates:

a normal value
risk of hemorrhage
risk of clotting
risk of embolism

A

Correct Answer: risk of hemorrhage

International normalized ratio (INR) is a calculation made to standardize prothrombin time. Prothrombin time is a test to determine how fast the blood clots in patients receiving oral anticoagulation medication. The normal range is 2.0 to 3.0.

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11
Q

Which condition results in an abnormal excess of erythrocytes that increases blood viscosity?

polycythemia
sickle-cell anemia
hemophilia
leukocytosis

A

polycythemia

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12
Q

An individual’s risk for developing heart disease doubles with a serum cholesterol above:

100 mg/dL
140 mg/dL
200 mg/dL
240 mg/dL

A

240 mg/dL

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13
Q

An increase in red blood cells as a compensatory response to hypoxemia would be consistent with which term?

anemia
cytopenia
polycythemia
leukoplakia

A

polycythemia

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14
Q

A recorded value of 42% would be most indicative of a normal value for which measure?

hematocrit
hemoglobin
platelets
white blood cells

A

hematocrit

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15
Q

Which diagnostic test would be most beneficial to screen for the presence of a bleeding disorder?

white blood cell differential
mean corpuscle volume
platelets
prothrombin time

A

prothrombin time

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16
Q

Which of the following represents a normal leukocyte count?

8,000/mm3
16,000/mm3
24,000/mm3
32,000/mm3

A

8,000/mm3

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17
Q

Which of the following represents a normal platelet count?

50,000/mm3
200,000/mm3
500,000/mm3
800,000/mm3

A

200,000/mm3

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18
Q

What is a likely hematologic compensation for individuals with chronic lung disease?

polycythemia
hemoglobinemia
leukopenia
leukocytosis

A

polycythemia

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19
Q

What hematologic lab value is carefully monitored in patients taking diuretic medication for renal insufficiency?

electrolytes
red blood cells
white blood cells
platelets

A

electrolytes

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20
Q

Which laboratory measure is most relevant when determining the international normalized ratio?

cardiac biomarkers
complete blood count
hematocrit
prothrombin time

A

prothrombin time

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21
Q

What is the age-predicted maximal heart rate for a 46-year-old male?

146
156
174
194

A

174

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22
Q

What two variables are manipulated when using the Bruce protocol?

maximum oxygen consumption and speed
metabolic equivalents and distance
speed and elevation
distance and time

A

speed and elevation

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23
Q

What effect on the cardiovascular system occurs when exercising in a therapy pool as compared to land exercise?

decreased venous circulation
decreased heart rate
increased systolic blood pressure
increased VO2 response

A

decreased heart rate

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24
Q

Which heart rate range would be the most appropriate for aerobic training in an individual with multiple sclerosis?

30-45% of heart rate maximum
45-60% of heart rate maximum
60-75% of heart rate maximum
75-90% of heart rate maximum

A

60-75% of heart rate maximum

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25
Q

Which exercise would be least desirable for a severely debilitated patient with cardiopulmonary dysfunction?

working on bridging in bed
utilizing an upper body ergometer
transferring sit to stand from different surfaces
walking

A

using and UBE

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26
Q

Which percentage of the maximum heart rate would be the most appropriate exercise parameter for a 72-year-old in excellent cardiovascular health?

30%-40% of maximum heart rate
50%-60% of maximum heart rate
70%-80% of maximum heart rate
80%-90% of maximum heart rate

A

70%-80% of maximum heart rate

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27
Q

An appropriate heart rate to be maintained during the peak period in aerobic training, calculated as a percentage of the individual’s maximum heart rate, is termed:

maximum heart rate
target heart rate
resting heart rate
steady-state heart rate

A

target heart rate

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28
Q

Healthy adults between the ages of 18 and 65 years old should engage in aerobic activity consisting of:

60 minutes of light aerobic activity 7 days a week
45 minutes of moderate aerobic activity 3 days a week
30 minutes of moderate aerobic activity 5 days a week
15 minutes of vigorous aerobic activity 3 days a week

A

30 minutes of moderate aerobic activity 5 days a week

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29
Q

Which of the following variables is necessary when calculating the target heart rate zone using the Karvonen formula?

maximal oxygen uptake
blood pressure
age
duration of exercise

A

age

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30
Q

Which of the following acute changes would be considered a normal response to aerobic exercise?

a linear decrease in diastolic blood pressure
a linear increase in diastolic blood pressure
a decrease in tidal volume
an increase in tidal volume

A

an increase in tidal volume

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31
Q

Which of the following is a normal chronic adaptation to aerobic exercise?

increase in maximal oxygen uptake
decrease in capillary density
increase in resting heart rate
decrease in mitochondrial number

A

increase in maximal oxygen uptake

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32
Q

A patient with a cardiovascular disorder should perform resistance training at which of the following intensities?

low repetitions at 25% of one-repetition maximum
high repetitions at 40% of one-repetition maximum
low repetitions at 60% of one-repetition maximum
high repetitions at 85% of one-repetition maximum

A

high repetitions at 40% of one-repetition maximum

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33
Q

Which of the following patients would most likely require medical clearance before beginning an exercise program?

50-year-old male with a family history of cancer
40-year-old female with a body mass index of 33
35-year-old male with bilateral ankle edema
65-year-old female with blood pressure of 140/80 mm Hg

A

35-year-old male with bilateral ankle edema

34
Q

Which of the following resistance training exercises would be most effective at improving a patient’s cardiovascular fitness?

bench press with barbell
long arc quad with ankle weight
triceps extension with dumbbells
squat with dumbbells

A

squat with dumbbells

35
Q

To avoid the risk of heat illness when the humidity is high, it is recommended that a patient:

use a lower target heart rate than normal
use the same target heart rate as normal
use a higher target heart rate than normal
use a rating of perceived exertion scale to monitor exercise intensity

A

use the same target heart rate as normal because the pt will reach the target heart rate with less intensity in the heat

36
Q

Which group would tend to have the highest resting heart rate?

infant
toddler
preschooler
adolescent

A

infant

37
Q

Which pulse site is measured by palpating inferior to the angle of the mandible and anterior to the sternocleidomastoid muscle?

brachial
carotid
radial
temporal

A

carotid

38
Q

Which pulse site is measured by palpating anterior and adjacent to the ear?

brachial
carotid
radial
temporal

A

temporal

39
Q

Which pulse site is assessed near the center of the long axis of the foot, between the first and second metatarsal bones?

dorsalis pedis
posterior tibial
brachial
radial

A

dorsalis pedis

40
Q

Which pulse site is assessed by palpating the lateral volar surface of the wrist, lateral to the flexor carpi radialis tendon?

brachial
radial
ulnar
popliteal

A

radial

41
Q

Which of the following would be a normal resting heart rate for a four-year-old child?

60 beats/minute
100 beats/minute
140 beats/minute
180 beats/minute

A

100 beats/minute

42
Q

Which of the following is defined as the rhythmic dilation of an artery caused by the contraction of the ventricles of the heart?

pulse
blood pressure
heart rate
contractility

A

pulse

43
Q

A normal sinoatrial initiated heart rate is typically:

20-40 beats per minute
40-60 beats per minute
60-100 beats per minute
100-120 beats per minute

A

60-100 beats per minute

44
Q

The normal resting heart rate of a young child would be:

lower than an adult’s heart rate
higher than an adult’s heart rate
the same as an adult’s heart rate
constantly fluctuating heart rate

A

higher than an adult’s heart rate

45
Q

Which assessment time period would produce the most valid measurement of resting heart rate?

15 seconds
30 seconds
45 seconds
60 seconds

A

60 seconds

46
Q

Which of the following vital signs is considered within normal limits for a healthy adult?

heart rate of 70 beats per minute at rest
heart rate of 120 beats per minute at rest
blood pressure of 170/110 mmHg at rest
respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute at rest

A

heart rate of 70 beats per minute at rest

47
Q

Which pulse site is assessed by palpating on the medial aspect of the foot inferior and slightly posterior to the medial malleolus?

dorsal pedal artery
medial plantar artery
popliteal artery
posterior tibial artery

A

posterior tibial

48
Q

What is the heart rate of a patient whose heart beats 19 times in a 12 second interval?

76 beats per minute
95 beats per minute
114 beats per minute
190 beats per minute

A

Correct Answer: 95 beats per minute

The heart rate per minute would be calculated by multiplying 19 x 5 since the collection period (i.e., 12 seconds) is only 1/5 or 20% of one minute.

49
Q

Which group would tend to have the lowest resting heart rate?

infant
toddler
preschooler
adolescent

A

adolescent

50
Q

Which arterial pulse site is located in the midline of the posterior knee between the tendons of the hamstring muscles?

popliteal
posterior tibial
femoral
temporal

A

popliteal

51
Q

Which auscultatory area would be best assessed over the second intercostal space at the left sternal border?

aortic area
pulmonic area
mitral area
tricuspid area

A

pulmonic area

52
Q

At what location is the contraction of the left ventricle most pronounced?

the jugular notch
the second intercostal space
the fifth intercostal space
the xiphoid process

A

the fifth intercostal space

53
Q

Which area of the heart would be assessed by auscultating over the blue marking on the chest wall?

mitral area
aortic area
pulmonic area
tricuspid area

A

aortic area

54
Q

The S2 heart sound is associated with the closure of the:

aortic valve
mitral valve
tricuspid valve
atrioventricular valves

A

aortic valve

55
Q

Which abnormal heart sound is associated with congestive heart failure?

S1
S2
S3
S4

A

S3

56
Q

Which abnormal heart sound is associated with myocardial infarction or hypertension?

S1
S2
S3
S4

A

S4

57
Q

What area of the heart is the S2 heart sound best heard using auscultation?

apex of the heart
lateral side of the heart
medial side of the heart
base of the heart

A

base of the heart

58
Q

What finding is most likely to cause a bruit identified during auscultation?

narrowing of an artery
narrowing of a vein
widening of an artery
widening of a vein

A

narrowing of an artery

59
Q

When auscultating the heart, which of the following would not create audible sound?

turbulent blood flow
laminar blood flow
stenotic valves
valvular regurgitation

A

laminar blood flow

60
Q

What sound is often heard as blood flows through an insufficient valve?

whistling sound
gurgling sound
swishing sound
popping sound

A

swishing sound

61
Q

Which of the following procedures involves an incision in the windpipe to relieve an obstruction by creating an airway?

endotracheal intubation
tracheostomy
gastrointestinal tube insertion
colonoscopy

A

tracheostomy

62
Q

What method is used to revascularize the myocardium if an artery is occluded?

coronary artery bypass graft
heart transplant
abdominal aortic aneurysmectomy
pacemaker implantation

A

CABG

63
Q

Which device is best described as an electronic pulse generator used to create an artificial action potential to control cardiac arrhythmias?

pacemaker
shunt
echocardiogram
ultrasound

A

pacemaker

64
Q

Which vein is typically harvested to perform a coronary artery bypass graft?

external jugular
great saphenous
cephalic
pulmonary

A

great saphenous

65
Q

What is the primary purpose for using an intra-aortic balloon pump?

increase cardiac index
facilitate cardiac output
monitor left ventricle pressure
administer medications

A

facilitate cardiac output

66
Q

According to the pacemaker classification system, what is the correct order in which a pacemaker is coded?

chamber paced, chamber sensed, response, rate responsive pacing
chamber sensed, chamber paced, response, rate responsive pacing
chamber paced, response, chamber sensed, rate responsive pacing
rate responsive pacing, chamber paced, response, chamber sensed

A

Correct Answer: chamber paced, chamber sensed, response, rate responsive pacing

67
Q

When a patient receives oxygen administered by a nasal cannula at the rate of 1 liter per minute, what percentage of the air given is pure oxygen?

16%
20%
24%
28%

A

Correct Answer: 24%

Administration of oxygen at 1 liter per minute results in 24% of the air delivered being pure oxygen. This increases at a rate of 4% per liter to the maximum oxygen delivery by nasal cannula at 6 liters per minute. At 6 liters per minute, the air delivered would be 44% oxygen.

68
Q

Which of the following is a symptom of pacemaker malfunction?

tachycardia
pupil dilation
dyspnea
ataxia

A

Dyspnea

69
Q

Which of the following devices would most likely be implanted in conjunction with a balloon angioplasty procedure?

ventricular assist device
cardiac pacemaker
metal stent
cardioverter defibrillator

A

metal stent

70
Q

A patient with which of the following medical conditions would be least likely to require a lung transplant?

idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
cystic fibrosis
emphysema
pneumonia

A

pneumonia

71
Q

How many milliliters of oxygen per kilogram per minute is an individual consuming if they are engaging in an activity that is described as two metabolic equivalents?

2.0 mL O2/kg/minute
4.0 mL O2/kg/minute
6.0 mL O2/kg/minute
7.0 mL O2/kg/minute

A

7.0 mL O2/kg/minute

72
Q

The primary use of metabolic equivalents for therapists is:

preserve patient safety during exercise
monitor response to exercise
prescribe exercise intensity
quantify heart rate response

A

prescribe exercise intensity

73
Q

Which metabolic equivalent level is most consistent with walking on a treadmill at 3 miles per hour?

1 metabolic equivalent
3 metabolic equivalents
5 metabolic equivalents
7 metabolic equivalents

A

3 METS

74
Q

One metabolic equivalent (MET) is equal to:

3.5 ml O2/kg/min
5.0 ml O2/kg/min
7.5 ml O2/kg/min
10 ml O2/kg/min

A

3.5

75
Q

The first stage of the Bruce protocol requires roughly how many metabolic equivalents (METs)?

1
5
10
15

A

5

76
Q

What standardized measurement refers to the amount of oxygen consumed at rest by the average person

basal metabolic rate
resting metabolic rate
metabolic equivalent
rate of oxygen consumption

A

metabolic equivalent

77
Q

Which activity would require the greatest metabolic equivalents (METs) value to complete?

walking at 4 miles per hour
sleeping
general house work
jogging a 10 minute mile

A

jogging a 10 minute mile

78
Q

Which level of exercise intensity would be the most appropriate for a patient who is nearing discharge from inpatient cardiac rehabilitation?

1 MET
3 METs
5 METs
7 METs

A

3 METs

79
Q

When calculating energy expenditure using metabolic equivalents, which of the following variables must be considered?

height and weight of the patient
height of the patient and duration of activity
weight of the patient and duration of activity
age of the patient and duration of activity

A

weight of the patient and duration of activity

80
Q

Which of the following household activities would have the lowest metabolic equivalent (MET) value?

lawn mowing
vacuuming
gardening
cooking

A

cooking

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