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NPTE Exam > Non-Systems Review Questions #1 > Flashcards

Non-Systems Review Questions #1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which assistive device would be least appropriate for a person that is partial weight bearing?

bilateral canes
Lofstrand crutches
platform walker
walker

A

Bilateral canes

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2
Q

The primary rationale for using a reverse walker instead of a traditional walker is to improve:

postural alignment
ease of movement
stability
upper extremity involvement

A

Postural alignment

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3
Q

Which scenario would provide the best justification for using a platform attachment on a walker?

failure to demonstrate righting reactions
inability to bear weight through the wrist and hand
inability to bear full weight on the involved lower extremity
difficulty independently advancing the walker

A

Inability to bear weight through the wrist and hand

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4
Q

Which assistive device requires significant coordination, but is not appropriate for use with a patient that is partial weight bearing?

axillary crutches
bilateral canes
Lofstrand crutches
walker

A

bilateral canes

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5
Q

How much elbow flexion should exist when an individual is grasping the handgrips of axillary crutches with the wrists in a neutral position?

5-10 degrees
10-15 degrees
15-20 degrees
20-25 degrees

A

20-25 degrees

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6
Q

What is the proper order of assistive devices from the greatest assistance to least assistance?

parallel bars, walker, axillary crutches, Lofstrand crutches, cane
parallel bars, axillary crutches, walker, Lofstrand crutches, cane
parallel bars, Lofstrand crutches, walker, axillary crutches, cane
parallel bars, Lofstrand crutches, axillary crutches, walker, cane

A

Parallel bars, walker, axillary crutches, Lofstrand crutches, cane

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7
Q

A walker is used with which gait pattern?

one-point
two-point
three-point
four-point

A

three point

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8
Q

When fitting a patient for axillary crutches, the base of each crutch should be placed where in relation to the patient’s body?

2 inches anterior, 6 inches lateral
2 inches anterior, 4 inches lateral
4 inches anterior, 4 inches lateral
6 inches anterior, 2 inches lateral

A

6 inches anterior, 2 inches lateral

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9
Q

When fitting a patient with Lofstrand crutches, where should the arm cuff be placed to ensure proper fit?

1.5 inches distal to the olecranon process
4.5 inches distal to the olecranon process
6 inches distal to the olecranon process
mid forearm

A

1.5 inches distal to the olecranon process

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10
Q

For a patient who has significantly impaired balance and coordination, what would be the most appropriate assistive device for them to use?

single-point cane
Lofstrand crutches
rolling walker
quad cane

A

Rolling walker

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11
Q

Which scenario would not require the use of a platform attachment on an assistive device?

a patient with significantly impaired balance
a patient with a transradial amputation
a patient with triceps weakness due to nerve damage
a patient with a fractured scaphoid

A

A patient with significantly impaired balance

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12
Q

If a patient using bilateral axillary crutches loses their balance forward (anteriorly), they should:

reach forward with both arms
tuck their chin forward toward their chest
maintain their grasp on both crutches
keep their elbows extended to brace the fall

A

Reach forward with both arms

In the event of a forward (anterior) loss of balance, the patient should first release both crutches to the side, not in front of the body. Then the patient should reach forward with both arms and turn their face to one side. As they contact the floor, the elbows should bend to absorb the force and slowly lower the body to the ground.

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13
Q

When issuing a walker to a patient, what bony landmark would most approximate the height of the handgrip?

iliac crest
greater trochanter
anterior superior iliac spine
posterior superior iliac spine

A

Greater trochanter

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14
Q

Weakness in which muscle would make it extremely difficult to ambulate on crutches?

medial deltoid
erector spinae
latissimus dorsi
rhomboids

A

Lats

The latissimus dorsi is innervated by the thoracodorsal nerve (C6, C7, C8). With the origin fixed, the muscle acts to medially rotate, adduct, and extend the shoulder joint. Adequate latissimus dorsi strength is essential to effectively utilize crutches.

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15
Q

How far below the axilla should the top of a properly fitted axillary crutch be positioned?

2 inches
4 inches
6 inches
8 inches

A

2 inches

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16
Q

Which assistive device would be the least appropriate for a patient that is non-weight bearing due to a lower extremity fracture?

parallel bars
walker
axillary crutches
straight cane

A

straight cane

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17
Q

Which muscle group is most important when ambulating with axillary crutches?

wrist extensors
wrist flexors
scapular depressors
scapular elevators

A

Scapular depressors

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18
Q

Which assistive device provides the greatest amount of mobility?

bilateral axillary crutches
single-point cane
quad cane
hemi walker

A

Single point cane

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19
Q

Which assistive device would be most appropriate for maximizing function in a patient who is partial weight bearing on one lower extremity and is four weeks status post-bilateral mastectomy?

walking sticks
hemi walker
axillary crutches
Lofstrand crutches

A

Loftstrand crutches due to mastectomy

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20
Q

Which of the following factors is of least importance when selecting an assistive device?

the patient’s level of understanding
the patient’s height and weight
the patient’s upper and lower extremity strength
the patient’s level of coordination

A

Height and weight

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21
Q

How many finger widths of space should exist between the top of the crutch pads and the base of the axilla?

1 finger width
3 finger widths
5 finger widths
7 finger widths

A

3 finger widths

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22
Q

What injury may occur if a patient bears weight through their axilla on their crutches when ambulating?

axillary nerve compression
pectoralis major strain
glenohumeral subluxation
anterior glenohumeral ligament sprain

A

axillary nerve compression

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23
Q

What diagnosis would be the most likely to benefit from using a long handled sock assist?

Parkinson’s disease
systemic lupus erythematosus
total hip arthroplasty
traumatic brain injury

A

Total hip

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24
Q

What diagnosis would be the most likely to benefit from using a button hook adaptive device?

Alzheimer’s disease
cerebrovascular accident
T10 paraplegia
traumatic brain injury

A

CVA

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25
Q

Which instructions are most appropriate when ascending/descending stairs with unilateral extremity involvement?

ascend with the involved leg and descend with the involved leg
ascend with the uninvolved leg and descend with the uninvolved leg
ascend with the involved leg and descend with the uninvolved leg
ascend with the uninvolved leg and descend with the involved leg

A

Ascend with uninvolved, descend with the involved

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26
Q

What is the primary purpose of wearing a shoe with a medial sole flare?

resist dorsiflexion
resist plantar flexion
resist inversion
resist eversion

A

resist eversion

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27
Q

Which intervention would be the most appropriate to apply to the shoe of a patient with calcaneal spurring?

heel cushion
heel lift
metatarsal pad
rocker bar

A

Heel cushion

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28
Q

The most appropriate shoe modification for a patient with hammer toes is:

high toe box
medial longitudinal arch support
padded inner sole
rocker bar

A

High toe box

Hammer toes refer to contractures of the proximal interphalangeal joint of the second, third or fourth toe causing the toe to appear permanently bent. A high toe box provides additional space in the toe region which reduces pressure on the dorsal surface of the affected toes.

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29
Q

A floor-reaction ankle-foot orthosis would be most appropriate for a patient that:

demonstrates difficulty with knee flexion during gait
presents with a spinal cord injury at the level L1
demonstrates difficulty with knee extension during gait
presents with stroke and demonstrates poor balance

A

Difficulty with extension

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30
Q

Which of the following is the most appropriate for daytime use by a 14-year-old female with a mid-thoracic curve of 25 degrees?

Boston thoracolumbosacral orthosis
Philadelphia collar
Jewett brace
halo-vest

A

Boston orthosis

The Boston thoracolumbosacral orthosis is used for daytime bracing and is most effective for curves below 35 degrees. A spinal orthosis is often warranted for scoliotic curves ranging from 25-40 degrees. Surgical intervention may be necessary for curves over 40 degrees.

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31
Q

A solid ankle cushion heel is most likely to be prescribed to which patient requiring a prosthesis?

an athlete who wishes to return to running and other sports
a child
a senior citizen who wishes to return to household and community ambulation
a female who wishes to return to hiking mountainous terrain

A

A senior citizen who wishes to return to household and community ambulation

A SACH is appropriate for all ages and genders, BUT is most useful for ambulation over even surfaces and household distances

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32
Q

Which of the following is the least restrictive type of ankle foot orthosis?

posterior leaf spring orthosis
modified ankle-foot orthosis
solid ankle-foot orthosis
dual channel ankle-foot orthosis

A

posterior leaf spring orthosis

A posterior leaf spring orthosis is a type of ankle-foot orthosis that provides a dorsiflexion assist during swing phase. The trim line is posterior to the malleoli and as a result the device offers minimal medial or lateral ankle support.

33
Q

A Pavlik harness would result in the hip being positioned in:

hip flexion and abduction
hip flexion and adduction
hip extension and abduction
hip extension and adduction

A

Hip flexion and abduction

A Pavlik harness is the primary method of treating developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH). DDH is a subluxed or dislocated hip in infancy as a result of abnormal congruency of the femoral head and acetabulum. The Pavlik harness maintains the infant’s hips in flexion and abduction to enhance acetabular development.

34
Q

What is the name of this orthosis and what is its function

A

Pavlik harness - used to tread developmental hip dysplasia which is subluxed or dislocated hip during infancy

35
Q

Which cervical orthosis effectively limits motion in all planes and allows for early mobility and rehabilitation after a vertebral fracture?

Jewett orthosis
Milwaukee brace
Boston brace
Minerva orthosis

A

Minerva orthosis

The Minerva orthosis positions the head and applies stabilizing forces under and around the chin and occiput to restrict flexion and extension, lateral motion and rotation of the head and cervical spine. The remaining options would not limit mobility in the cervical spine.

36
Q

What is the name of this orthosis and its function?

A

Restricts cervical motion in all planes to allow for early mobility and rehab after a avertebral fracture

37
Q

Which variable would be the most compelling to warrant use of a scoliosis brace?

10 degree scoliotic curve
rapid progression of an existing curve
significant pain impacting functional activities
subjective report of instability

A

Rapid progression of an existing curve

Bracing is used with patients with 20-40 degree curves. But bracing can be used with rapid progression of a curve before it gets to 20

38
Q

Which type of diagnostic imaging is designed to show motion in joints through x-ray imaging?

computed tomography
fluoroscopy
myelography
venography

A

Fluoroscopy

39
Q

What is the primary disadvantage of using fluoroscopy as an imaging technique?

excessive radiation exposure
inability to determine density of bone structures
poor resolution of images
severity of tissue damage

A

excessive radiation exposure

40
Q

Which of the following imaging techniques shows the greatest detail in soft tissue structures?

magnetic resonance imaging
computed tomography
fluoroscopy
x-ray

A

MRI

41
Q

Which imaging technique provides the best view of a disc protrusion, differentiating between the nucleus pulposus and the annulus fibrosus?

computed tomography
plain film radiography
magnetic resonance imaging
xeroradiography

A

MRI

42
Q

Which diagnostic test refers to a radiograph that visualizes injected radiopaque dye in an artery?

arteriography
arthrography
venography
computed tomography

A

arteriography

43
Q

Which diagnostic test refers to an invasive test utilizing a contrast medium to provide visualization of joint structures through radiographs?

arteriography
arthrography
bone scan
computed tomography

A

arthrography

44
Q

Which diagnostic test is an invasive test which utilizes isotopes to identify stress fractures, infection, and tumors?

fluoroscopy
computed tomography
bone scan
magnetic resonance imaging

A

bone scan

45
Q

Which diagnostic test produces cross-sectional images based on x-ray attenuation and is commonly used to diagnose spinal lesions and in diagnostic studies of the brain?

fluoroscopy
computed tomography
bone scan
magnetic resonance imaging

A

CT scan

46
Q

Which diagnostic test is non-invasive and relies on the transmission and reflection of high frequency sound waves to produce cross-sectional images in a variety of planes?

fluoroscopy
computed tomography
Doppler ultrasonography
magnetic resonance imaging

A

Doppler ultrasonography

47
Q

Which diagnostic test is an invasive test that combines fluoroscopy and radiography to evaluate the spinal subarachnoid space?

myelography
electroencephalography
electromyography
computed tomography

A

myelography

48
Q

Which of the following medical imaging devices produces images from radioactive emissions?

magnetic resonance imaging
functional magnetic resonance imaging
positron emission tomography
radiographs

A

PET scan

49
Q

Which medical imaging technique would best detect an intracranial bleed such as a stroke?

computed tomography scan
functional magnetic resonance imaging
positron emission tomography
magnetic resonance imaging

A

CT scan

50
Q

What technique used to quantify body fat is also used to analyze bone mineral content?

skinfold measurements
bioelectric impedance
dual energy X-ray absorptiometry
hydrostatic weighing

A

dual energy X-ray absorptiometry

51
Q

During a cerebral angiography, radiopaque dyes are injected into which artery?

vertebral artery
pulmonary artery
middle cerebral artery
anterior cerebral artery

A

vertebral artery

52
Q

Which scenario is not considered to be a contraindication for magnetic resonance imaging?

presence of a pacemaker
presence of pins
presence of artificial heart valves
presence of a tumor

A

presence of a tumor

53
Q

Which test is the most effective in initially demonstrating a bone or joint abnormality?

magnetic resonance imaging
computed tomography scan
plain film radiographs
ultrasound

A

plain film radiograph

54
Q

All of the following are cross-sectional imaging techniques except:

conventional radiography
magnetic resonance imaging
computed tomography
positron emission tomography

A

conventional radiography

55
Q

What are the black areas produced on a radiograph called?

radiodense
radiolucent
radiopaque
radio waves

A

radiolucent

56
Q

Which diagnostic procedure allows direct visual examination of the bladder, ureteral orifices, and urethra?

x-ray
cystoscopy
intravenous pyelogram
retrograde pyelogram

A

cystoscopy

57
Q

Which diagnostic test records the electrical activity of the superficial layers of the brain?

electroencephalography
electromyography
computed tomography
magnetic resonance imaging

A

electroencephalography

58
Q

What is the most likely method to obtain a sample of synovial fluid for analysis?

arthrocentesis
blood draw
lumbar puncture
urinalysis

A

arthrocentesis

59
Q

Which medical device would be used to remove fluid from the pleural space after surgery?

central venous line
chest tube
intraventricular catheter
vascular access port

A

chest tube

60
Q

Which type of catheter would require an incision in the lower abdominal area?

condom catheter
external catheter
Foley catheter
suprapubic catheter

A

suprapubic

61
Q

Which type of feeding equipment is most likely to inhibit a cough?

gastric tube
gastrojejunal tube
jejunostomy tube
nasogastric tube

A

nasogastric

62
Q

Which medical device is used for long-term administration of substances into the venous system such as chemotherapeutic agents, total parenteral nutrition, and antibiotics?

arterial line
intracranial pressure monitor
pulmonary artery (Swan-Ganz) catheter
indwelling right atrial (Hickman) catheter

A

(Swan-Ganz) catheter
indwelling right atrial (Hickman) catheter

63
Q

How many liters of oxygen per minute is the maximum provided from a nasal cannula?

3 liters per minute
4 liters per minute
5 liters per minute
6 liters per minute

A

6

64
Q

A patient who has had an endotracheal tube inserted will have the most difficulty with which activity?

talking
suctioning
bedside exercises
ambulation

A

talking

65
Q

A central venous pressure catheter measures pressures in which heart chamber?

right atrium
right ventricle
left atrium
left ventricle

A

right atrium

66
Q

Which of the following functions can be performed with an arterial line?

obtain blood samples
administer medications
administer nutrition
insert a coronary stent

A

obtain blood samples

67
Q

Which of the following is a possible complication with use of an intravenous line?

myocardial infarction
stroke
pulmonary embolism
seizure

A

PE

68
Q

Which of the following oxygen delivery systems would most likely be used for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?

nasal catheter
nasal cannula
oronasal mask
tracheostomy mask

A

nasal cannula

69
Q

When ambulating with a patient using a Foley catheter, where should the collection bag be placed?

at the level of the bladder
above the level of the bladder
below the level of the bladder
on the floor

A

below the level of the bladder

70
Q

Which of the following is most commonly used in a hospital setting for short-term feeding?

percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy
percutaneous endoscopic jejunostomy
nasogastric tube
total parenteral nutrition

A

nasogastric tube

71
Q

Which ventilator setting delivers a constant tidal volume?

computer-assisted control ventilation
mechanical control ventilation
pressure control ventilation
volume control ventilation

A

volume control ventilation

72
Q

What type of medical device is depicted in the image?

intravenous line
peripherally inserted central catheter line
central venous catheter
arterial line

A

IV

73
Q

Which patient would be the most appropriate candidate for nasogastric feeding?

patient with dysfunctional gag reflex
patient with gastroesophageal reflux
patient with high risk for aspiration
patient in a com

A

patient in a coma

74
Q

Which of the following is not a vehicle for medication administration through inhalation?

face mask
nebulizer
positive-pressure breathing machine
intravenous device

A

IV device

75
Q

What is the most common method of patient-controlled analgesia?

epidural
transdermal
regional
intravenous

A

intravenous

76
Q

The most appropriate form of nutrition for a newborn whose mother is HIV positive would be:

intravenous feeding
parenteral nutrition
breast feeding
bottle feeding

A

bottle feeding

77
Q

What type of enteral nutrition line is depicted in the image?

nasogastric tube
nasojejunal tube
gastrostomy
jejunostomy

A

gastrostomy

78
Q
A

NPTE Exam (54 decks)

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