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NPTE Exam > Cardiopulmonary: Study Set 2 > Flashcards

Cardiopulmonary: Study Set 2 Flashcards

1
Q

9What are the three types of breath sounds that could be heard when auscultating the lungs

A

vesicular, bronchovesicular bronchial, and absent

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2
Q

(Tracheal and bronchial/vesicular) breath sounds are loud, tubular sounds normally heard over the trachea

A

Tracheal and bronchial

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3
Q

True or False:

Bronchial sounds heard over distal airways are abnormal because it represents consolidation or compression of lung tissue that facilitates transmission of sound

A

True, bronchial sounds are heard more proximal over the trachea

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4
Q

(Tracheal and bronchial/vesicular) breath sounds are low pitched, breezy sounds normally heard over the distal airways in healthy lung tissue

A

vesicular

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5
Q

(Tracheal and bronchial/vesicular) has a shorter inspiratory phase and a longer expiratory phase

A

tracheal and bronchial

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6
Q

(Tracheal and bronchial/vesicular) breath sounds have a longer inspiratory phase and a shorter expiratory phase

A

vesicular

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7
Q

(Tracheal and bronchial/vesicular) breath sounds have a small pause between inspiratory phase and expiratory phase

A

tracheal and broncial

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8
Q

(Tracheal and bronchial/vesicular) breath sounds do not have a pause between the inspiratory phase and expiratory phase

A

vesicular

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9
Q

Upon auscultating a patient’s lung sounds, you find discontinuous high pitched popping sounds that occur more with inspiration. What is this abnormal sound referred as

A

crackles

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10
Q

Upon auscultating a patient’s lunch sounds, you find dry crackling sounds directly over the spot your patient is complaining of pain. What is this abnormal sound referred as

A

pleural friction rub

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11
Q

Upon auscultating a patient’s lunch sounds, you find continuous low pitched sounds that sound similar to snoring or gurgling sounds. What is this abnormal sound referred as

A

Rhonchi

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12
Q

Upon auscultating a patient’s lunch sounds, you find continuous high pitched wheeze. What is this abnormal sound referred as

A

stridor

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13
Q

Upon auscultating a patient’s lunch sounds, you find continuous musical sounds that vary in pitch. What is this abnormal sound referred as

A

wheeze

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14
Q

Upon auscultating a patient’s lunch sounds, you find there are absent lung sounds. What is this idicitative of

A

pneumothorax aka lung collapse

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15
Q

What does bronchophony mean

A

increased vocal resonance with greater clarity or loudness of spoken word
like saying 99

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16
Q

what does egophony mean

A

a form of bronchophony where a long E sound turns into a long nasal sounding A

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17
Q

what does whispered pectoriloquys mean

A

recognition of whispered words

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18
Q

What are the contraindications for using diaphragmatic breathing

A

moderate to severe COPD
marked hyperinflation of the lungs without DB movement
pts with paradoxical breathing patterns
pts who need increased muscle effort to perform DB
Pts with increased dyspnea with DB movement

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19
Q

what position should diaphragmatic breathing be done in

A

semi fowlers
legs extended with upper body/trunk at 30-45 degree incline
(like a patient sitting in a hospital bed)

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20
Q

What is inspiratory muscle training

A

attempts to strengthen the diaphragm and intercostal muscles by using either resistive breathing or threshold breathing

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21
Q

what is paced breathing

A

a breathing technique to decrease the work of breathing and prevent dyspnea during activity

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22
Q

what is exhale with effort breathing

A

a technique that helps prevent someone from holding their breath during activity. Inhale on rests, and exhale during exertion or movement

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23
Q

How should paced breathing and exhale with effort be performed while walking

A

inhale every two steps and exhale every four

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24
Q

How should paced breathing and exhale with effort be performed while climbing stairs

A

inhale while standing, exhale while ascending or descending stairs. stay on one stair until inhalation is complete and continue with stairs during expiration only

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25
Q

what is pursed lip breathing

A

a breathing technique that can be used by anyone with dyspnea by breathing in slowly through the nose for two counts, then breathing out with lips puckered for four counts

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26
Q

what is segmental breathing

A

used as a breathing technique after surgery and to prevent complications. Pts will either sit or use postural drainage positions. PT will apply firm pressure at the end on exhalation only to assist with secretion removal

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27
Q

What are some position that help relieve dyspnea

A

sitting down and leaning forward with arm support if available

reverse trendelenburg - head above legs and trunk which reduces weight of abdominal contents on diaphragm

semi-fowlers position with pillows under knees

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28
Q

what is tachycardia/pnea

what is bradycardia/pnea

A

tachy is fast
brady is slow

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29
Q

what are some contraindications for participating in cardiac rehab

A

unstable angina
systolic pressure above 200 or diastolic above 110
orthostatic drop of 20 or more
recent embolism
resting ST segment greater than 2

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30
Q

If a patient is participating in exercise at a cardiac rehab facility, the PT should discontinue the activity if the HR goes above ______ bpm or above ____ bpm above the pts resting HR

A

130, 30

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31
Q

If a patient is participating in exercise at a cardiac rehab facility, the PT should discontinue the activity if the diastolic BP is greater than ____ mmHg or if the systolic BP drops more than ____ mmHg.

A

110
drops more than 10

32
Q

During phase I of cardiac rehab, what should the patients RPE stay under on the 6-20 scale

A

below 13

33
Q

What is an adequate response in systolic BP with activity

A

an increase of 10-40bpm

34
Q

A patient is asking his PT for guidance on how much he should exercise following cardiac surgery. This patient is in phase I of rehab. What is the appropriate response given by the PT

A

walk 5-10 minutes a day or 1000ft, four times a day

35
Q

On average, how long does phase one of cardiac rehab last

A

3-5 days

36
Q

On average, how long does phase two of cardiac rehab last

A

Up to 12 weeks

37
Q

What is the equivalent of 1 MET

A

3.5 mL O2/kg/min or 1 kcal/kg/h

38
Q

How long should a patient in phase II of cardiac rehab exercise for

A

15-20 minutes during the first month
25-30 minutes during the next three or four months
40 minutes or longer after six months

39
Q

what are the signs and symptoms of heat stroke

A

dizziness, disorientation, nausea, vomiting, dry skin, hyperventilation

40
Q

what are the signs and symptoms of heat exhaustion

A

low bp, wet and pale skin, elevated HR and RR

41
Q

what are the signs and symptoms of heat syncope

A

decreased HR and RR, pale skin, vertigo, nausea

42
Q

What is an angiography

A

a contrast dye is put into the blood vessels to show the location of plaques in the arteries and the extent of the occlusion

43
Q

What is a bronchoscopy

A

a direct visualization of the bronchial tree to identify tumors, bronchitis, bleeding, and foreign bodies

44
Q

What is a cardiac catheterization

A

The act of a thin catheter is inserted into an artery in the leg or arm and for it to reach the coronary arteries for a contrast medium to be used like in an angiography

45
Q

What is a carotid ultrasound

A

Ultrasound that screens for blockages and can indicate increased risk for stroke. It can also be used to elevate the placement of a stent

46
Q

What is a computed tomography

A

known as a CT scan, this machine uses x ray machine that rotates around the patient and takes pictures in slices to create a 3D image

47
Q

What is an echocardiography

A

this uses high frequency sound waves to evaluate the function of the heart. This can be done via TTE which in transthoracic and non invasive or TEE which is transesophageal and is invasive but more detailed due to the proximity of the esophagus to the heart

48
Q

What is fluoroscopy

A

this is a continuous x ray of the heart and lungs but is not used often due to the high radiation exposure

49
Q

What is invasive hemodynamic monitoring

A

this is when intra-arterial and intravenous lines are placed in the heart to monitor blood pressure

50
Q

What is an MRI used to image in cardiopulmonary PT

A

size and function of the chambers, the destruction done after a MI or masses in the chest

51
Q

What is a PET scan

A

an image test where a small amount of radioactive material is swallowed. The radioactive material accumulates in areas with high levels of chemical activity indicating the presence of cancer or heart disease

52
Q

What is a thoracentesis

A

a procedure that includes removal of fluid from the pleural space with a needle for microbiologic cytologic studies

53
Q

How does a pulse ox work

A

the sensor measures the light absorbed by oxygenated and deoxygenated hemoglobin, which gives a percentage of partial pressure of oxygen in the arterial blood

54
Q

In an electrocardiogram, what is the P wave

A

atrial depolarization

55
Q

In an electrocardiogram, what is the PR interval

A

the conduction time from the SA node to the AV node

56
Q

What is a normal PR interval

A

0.12 to 0.20 seconds

57
Q

In an electrocardiogram, what is the QRS complex

A

ventricular depolarization and atrial repolarization

58
Q

What is a normal QRS complex

A

0.06 to 0.10 seconds

59
Q

In an electrocardiogram, what is the QT interval

A

The time for ventricular depolarization and repolarization

60
Q

What is a normal QT interval

A

between .20 and .40 seconds

61
Q

In an electrocardiogram, what is the ST segment

A

isoelectric period when the ventricles are depolarized

62
Q

In an electrocardiogram, what is the T wave

A

ventricular repolarization

63
Q

What is a premature atrial contraction

A

the atrium initiates an impulse to contract before the SA node, typically due to caffeine, alcohol, smoking, or stress

64
Q

What is an atrial flutter

A

very rapid tachycardia with a rate of 250-350 bpm that may indicate MI, heart disease, chronic lung disease, pulmonary emboli

65
Q

What is atrial fibrillation

A

the atria are depolarized up to six hundred times per minute

66
Q

What atrial dysrhythmia does this picture indicate

A

atrial flutter

67
Q

What atrial dysrhythmia does this picture indicate

A

atrial fibrillation

68
Q

What atrial dysrhythmia does this picture indicate

A

premature atrial contraction

69
Q

What is premature ventricular complex

A

premature depolarization arising in the ventricles due to ectopic focus

70
Q

What is ventricular tachycardia

A

three or more premature ventricular contractions with a rate of 150 or more. Pts are not able to maintain bp and become hypotensive

71
Q

What is ventricular fibrillation

A

ventricles do not beat in a coordinated fashion resulting in no cardiac output, pt will become unconscious

72
Q

What ventricular arrhythmia does this picture indicate

A

premature ventricular contraction

73
Q

What ventricular arrhythmia does this picture indicate

A

ventricular tachycardia

74
Q

What ventricular arrhythmia does this picture indicate

A

ventricular fibrillation

75
Q

If a patient has suffered from an MI, the ST segment will be elevated or depressed by ___ mm,

The Q wave will be longer than ___ seconds or ____ larger than the R wave.

The T wave inversion will occur ____ after the event.

A

ST will be 1-2 mm elevated or depressed

Q wave will be longer than 0.04 or larger than one-third of the R wave

The T wave inversion can occur hours or days after

NPTE Exam (54 decks)

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