Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NPTE Exam > Cardiopulmonary Review Questions #4 > Flashcards

Cardiopulmonary Review Questions #4 Flashcards

1
Q

If left untreated, a deep vein thrombosis would be most likely to cause?

stroke
myocardial infarction
pulmonary embolism
anterior compartment syndrome

A

Pulmonary embolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What condition would be most commonly associated with transient pressure or discomfort resulting from myocardial ischemia?

aneurysm
angina pectoris
congenital heart defect
heart murmur

A

angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What congenital condition would be most commonly associated with a malformation of the interior walls or valves of the heart?

atherosclerosis
endocarditis
cor pulmonale
congenital heart defect

A

congenital heart defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What condition would be most commonly associated with hypertrophy of the right ventricle caused by altered structure or function of the lungs?

hypertension
cor pulmonale
tetralogy of Fallot
atherosclerosis

A

cor pulmonale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for coronary artery disease?

poor nutrition
male gender
ethnicity
insufficient sleep

A

poor nutrition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the most common congenital heart defect?

atrial septal defect
tetralogy of Fallot
ventricular septal defect
patent ductus arteriosus

A

VSD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following is not one of the four classic defects that compose the heart condition known as tetralogy of Fallot?

pulmonary stenosis
ventricular septal defect
aortic communication with both ventricles
right atrial hypertrophy

A

right atrial hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which condition causes enlargement of the cardiac muscle and is the leading cause of sudden death in young athletes?

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
cor pulmonale
tetralogy of Fallot
endocarditis

A

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the leading preventable cause of coronary artery disease?

alcoholism
hypertension
elevated low-density lipoproteins
smoking

A

smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following would be least likely to result in a deep vein thrombosis?

prolonged inactivity
injury to the endothelium
hypercoagulopathy
arterial insufficiency

A

arterial insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following would be considered an atrial septal defect?

mitral valve stenosis
patent foramen ovale
patent ductus arteriosus
bicuspid atresia

A

patent foramen ovale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A ventricular septal defect causes:

oxygenated blood to enter the left ventricle
deoxygenated blood to enter the right ventricle
oxygenated blood to enter the right ventricle
deoxygenated blood to enter the left ventricle

A

oxygenated blood to enter the right ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Obesity, prolonged bed rest, limb paralysis, congestive heart failure and use of oral contraceptives are all associated with an increased risk of developing:

myocardial infarction
diabetes mellitus
deep vein thrombosis
ischemic wounds

A

DVT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following would not be considered a general category of cardiac myopathy?

dilated
hypertrophic
paradoxical
restrictive

A

paradoxical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What surgical procedure would have the greatest incidence of deep vein thrombosis?

Achilles tendon repair
anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction
rotator cuff repair
total hip arthroplasty

A

THA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What condition would be most commonly associated with a progressive decrease in cardiac output that fails to meet the body’s demand for blood and oxygen?

heart failure
myocardial infarction
coronary artery disease
endocarditis

A

heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What condition would be most commonly associated with coronary artery blood flow being severely reduced or completely cut off causing irreversible necrosis to the myocardium?

heart failure
myocardial infarction
atherosclerosis
myocarditis

A

MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following abnormal lab values indicates the presence of an acute myocardial infarction?

elevated creatine kinase levels
elevated myoglobin levels
elevated albumin levels
elevated potassium levels

A

elevated creatine kinase levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following criteria indicates modification or termination of an exercise program for a patient with congestive heart failure?

ejection fraction above 40%
Borg rating of perceived exertion less than 3/10
mild dyspnea with ambulation
development of pulmonary crackles with exercise

A

development of pulmonary crackles with exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following etiologies would result in primary lymphedema?

radiation therapy for cancer
surgical removal of lymph nodes
congenital malformation of lymph vessels
lymphatic infection

A

congenital malformation of lymph vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Patients with congestive heart failure would most likely tolerate which position best?

Trendelenburg position
sitting
supine
left sidelying

A

sitting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the method by which pulmonary hypertension may lead to congestive heart failure?

increased right ventricle preload
increased left ventricle preload
increased right ventricle afterload
increased left ventricle afterload

A

increased right ventricle afterload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Myocardial injury is potentially reversible for how long following onset?

30 minutes
1 hour
6 hours
12 hours

A

30 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Stage 1 hypertension is characterized by which systolic and diastolic blood pressure values respectively?

systolic less than 120 mm Hg and diastolic less than 80 mm Hg
systolic 120 – 129 mm Hg and diastolic less than 80 mm Hg
systolic 130 – 139 mm Hg or diastolic 80-89 mm Hg
systolic at least 140 mm Hg or diastolic at least 90 mm Hg or diastolic

A

systolic 130 – 139 mm Hg or diastolic 80-89 mm Hg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What condition can result in the compression of the heart by fluid?

pericardial effusion
pulmonary effusion
pleuritis
heart valve insufficiency

A

pericardial effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What deficit in myocardial performance is typically associated with pericarditis?

decrease in myocardial expansion
increase in ejection fraction
decreased heart rate
increased cardiac output

A

decrease in myocardial expansion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Why would a patient with congestive heart failure tend to experience a rapid weight gain?

increased blood volume
increased stroke volume
increased fluid retention
increased blood pressure

A

increased fluid retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Rheumatic heart disease often occurs following an acute infection of what type of bacteria?

streptococcus
influenza
staphylococcus
escherichia coli

A

streptococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

A heart valve that does not open completely is considered:

incompetent
closed
insufficient
stenotic

A

stenotic

30
Q

A prolapsed valve in the heart is most likely to affect the:

aortic valve
mitral valve
tricuspid valve
pulmonary valve

A

mitral valve

31
Q

What classification of drug best describes Lasix?

antiarrhythmic
anticoagulant
calcium channel blocker
diuretic

A

diuretic

32
Q

Which pharmacological agent would be most likely prescribed to treat acute angina pectoris?

anticoagulant agents
calcium channel blockers
nitrate agents
positive inotropic agents

A

nitrate agents

33
Q

Which type of medication is given prophylactically to prevent thrombus formation?

antiplatelet agents
calcium-channel blockers
nitrates
thrombolytic agents

A

antiplatelet

34
Q

What classification of drug best describes Coumadin?

beta blocker agents
calcium channel blocker agents
antiarrhythmic agents
anticoagulant agents

A

anticoagulant

35
Q

What classification of drug best describes Lipitor?

antihyperlipidemia agents
anticoagulant agents
thrombolytic agents
nitrate agents

A

antihyperlipidemia agents

36
Q

What classification of drug best describes aspirin?

antihyperlipidemia agents
nitrate agents
antithrombotic agents
diuretic agents

A

antithrombotic

37
Q

Which of the following would be classified as a calcium channel blocker agent?

Propranolol
Verapamil
Digoxin
Lipitor

A

Verapamil

38
Q

Which pharmacological agent would be most likely prescribed to treat pericarditis?

anti-inflammatory agents
nitrate agents
calcium channel blockers
aspirin

A

anti-inflammatory

39
Q

Which pharmacological agent would not be considered a bronchodilator?

albuterol
plavix
levalbuterol
corticosteroids

A

plavix

40
Q

What effect would beta blockers have on a patient’s vital signs?

increase in both heart rate and blood pressure
increase in heart rate and decrease in blood pressure
decrease in both heart rate and blood pressure
decrease in heart rate and increase in blood pressure

A

decrease in both

41
Q

Which of the following nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs is often utilized following myocardial infarction?

acetylsalicylic acid
ibuprofen
naproxen
acetaminophen

A

acetylsalicyclic acid

42
Q

What classification of drugs functions to increase the force of myocardial contraction?

calcium channel blocker agents
beta blockers
positive inotropic agents
nitrate agents

A

positive inotropic agents

43
Q

Which of the following is used to treat cardiac arrhythmia?

sodium channel blockers
nitroglycerin
anticoagulants
benzodiazepines

A

sodium channel blockers

44
Q

In patients with congestive heart failure, prolonged use of Lasix may lead to:

thiamine deficiency
vitamin C deficiency
renal disease
anemia

A

thiamine deficiency

45
Q

Which substance facilitates endothelial vasodilation?

insulin
epinephrine
caffeine
nitric oxide

A

nitric oxide

46
Q

Which of the following agents raises an individual’s blood pressure at rest and increases the blood pressure response to exercise?

calcium channel blockers
nitrates
nicotine
diuretics

A

nicotine

47
Q

Which category of drug acts to strengthen the myocardium?

cardiac glycosides
beta blockers
diuretics
nitrates

A

cardiac glycosides

48
Q

Which of the following types of me`edication would not be used to treat hypertension?

thiazide diuretics
beta blockers
angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
digoxin

A

digoxin

49
Q

What is a commonly used treatment for an acute pulmonary embolism?

antihyperlipidemia agent
angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor agent
rapid acting fibrinolytic agent
alpha adrenergic antagonist agent

A

rapid acting fibrinolytic agent

50
Q

What type of pharmacological agent is commonly used to treat asthma?

analgesics
antitussives
bronchodilators
expectorants

A

bronchodilators

51
Q

What condition is the drug digitalis commonly used to treat?

arteriosclerosis
cardiac arrhythmias
chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
pulmonary stenosis

A

cardiac arrhythmias

52
Q

What type of drug is commonly used to remove mucus from the lungs?

antitussives
analgesics
bronchodilators
expectorants

A

exportants

53
Q

An example of an adrenergic drug is:

acetylcholine
nicotine
epinephrine
choline

A

epinephrine

54
Q

Which action on the heart or vascular system results from utilization of a cholinergic drug?

dilation of innervated vessels
increased venous return
decreased internodal delay
increased force of contraction

A

dilation of innervated vessels

55
Q

Why would a patient taking beta blockers have a diminished heart rate response with exercise?

sympathetic nervous system inhibition
decrease in sodium and potassium
decrease in circulating blood volume
widespread system vasoconstriction

A

sympathetic nervous system inhibition

56
Q

Which medical condition is most often assessed by using the Mantoux test?

herpes zoster
impetigo
measles
tuberculosis

A

TB

57
Q

What condition would be most commonly associated with a buildup of fluid in the space between the lungs and the chest cavity?

pleural effusion
pneumonia
pulmonary edema
asthma

A

pleural effusion

58
Q

What condition would be most commonly associated with an inflammation of the lungs usually caused by bacterial, viral, fungal or parasitic infection?

pleural effusion
pneumonia
emphysema
cystic fibrosis

A

pneumonia

59
Q

What condition would be most commonly associated with a collection of fluid in the alveoli within the lungs, making it difficult to breathe?

pulmonary fibrosis
pneumonia
pleural effusion
pulmonary edema

A

pulmonary edema

60
Q

What condition would be most commonly associated with one or more arteries in the lungs becoming blocked?

pulmonary embolism
emphysema
pulmonary fibrosis
restrictive lung disease

A

PE

61
Q

What condition would be most commonly associated with irreversible reduced elasticity and increased stiffness of the lungs secondary to alveolar scarring?

pulmonary edema
pulmonary fibrosis
restrictive lung disease
chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

A

pulmonary fibrosis

62
Q

Which condition would be most likely to produce blood-tinged sputum?

bronchopneumonia
tuberculosis
bronchiectasis
heart failure

A

TB

63
Q

Which of the following conditions is considered to be a restrictive lung disease?

bronchiectasis
cystic fibrosis
acute respiratory distress syndrome
emphysema

A

acute respiratory distress syndrome

64
Q

An embolus dislodged from the bifurcation of the right and left pulmonary artery is termed:

fibrin clot
deep vein thrombosis
pulmonary embolism
saddle embolus

A

saddle embolus

65
Q

Which of the following is most likely to result in decreased lung compliance?

asthma
pneumonia
pulmonary fibrosis
cystic fibrosis

A

pulmonary fibrosis

66
Q

What is the method by which pulmonary embolism may lead to congestive heart failure?

elevated aortic pressure
elevated pulmonary artery pressure
left ventricular hypertrophy
pulmonary valve stenosis

A

elevated pulmonary artery pressure

67
Q

Which organism is the most common cause of pneumonia?

haemophilus influenzae
pseudomonas aeruginosa
staphylococcus aureus
streptococcus pneumoniae

A

streptococcus pneumoniae

68
Q

Which of the following correctly states the expected blood gas measurements in a patient with respiratory alkalosis?

elevated pH, normal HCO3, decreased PCO2
elevated pH, HCO3 and PCO2
decreased pH, and HCO3, normal PCO2
decreased pH, normal HCO3, normal PCO2

A

elevated pH, normal HCO3, decreased PCO2

69
Q

Where do the majority of blood clots originate that result in a pulmonary embolus?

upper extremity arteries
upper extremity veins
lower extremity arteries
lower extremity veins

A

LE veins

70
Q

What type of sputum is most commonly associated with pulmonary edema?

fetid
purulent
hemoptysis
frothy

A

frothy

NPTE Exam (54 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions