Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NPTE Exam > Other Systems Review Questions #1 > Flashcards

Other Systems Review Questions #1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following exerts its primary influence on the hair follicles?

arrector pili muscles
Meissner’s glands
melanocytes
sebaceous glands

A

arrector pili muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which structure in the epidermis serves as a barrier against fluid, electrolyte, and chemical loss?

basal cells
Langerhans cells
keratinocytes
stratum corneum

A

Stratum corneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the proper order of skin layers from superficial to deep?

  1. epidermis, papillary dermis, reticular dermis, subcutaneous
  2. epidermis, reticular dermis, papillary dermis, subcutaneous
  3. reticular dermis, papillary dermis, epidermis, subcutaneous
  4. epidermis, subcutaneous, papillary dermis, reticular dermis
A
  1. epidermis, papillary dermis, reticular dermis, subcutaneous
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which layer of the skin contains melanocytes?

epidermis
dermis
hypodermis
subcutaneous

A

epidermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which substance is responsible for the pigmentation of the skin?

melatonin
melanin
serotonin
keratin

A

melanin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What organ provides the first physical line of defense for the body from external harm?

thyroid
skin
liver
lymph nodes

A

skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What type of gland helps to protect the skin by producing sebum?

apocrine sweat gland
sebaceous gland
ceruminous gland
mammary gland

A

sebaceous gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following inflammatory mediators is responsible for causing pain in an acute wound?

histamine
prostaglandins
phagocytes
renin

A

prostaglandins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The process by which epithelial cells die and produce a protective outer layer is called:

epithelialization
keratinization
granulation
necrotizing

A

keratinization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following types of burns would be the least painful?

superficial
superficial partial-thickness
deep partial-thickness
full-thickness

A

full thickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which burn classification is most likely to result in hypertrophic and keloid scarring after the healing process is complete?

superficial
superficial partial-thickness
deep partial-thickness
full-thickness

A

deep partial thickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following zones of injury corresponds with the most severe area of injury at a burn site that sustained irreversible cell damage?

zone of erythema
zone of stasis
zone of coagulation
zone of hyperemia

A

zone of coagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the primary cause of burns in adolescents and adults?

hot liquids
electricity
chemicals
fire

A

hot liquids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A burn that blanches and exhibits brisk capillary refill would most likely be classified as:

epidermal
superficial partial-thickness
deep partial-thickness
full-thickness

A

superficial partial thickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which burn classification would most likely affect the pH of systemic tissue?

chemical burn
electrical burn
flash burn
scald burn

A

chemical burn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which classification of burn could potentially cause ventricular fibrillation?

chemical burn
electrical burn
flash burn
scald burns

A

electrical burn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A burn that presents with significant pain and blistering is most likely to be classified as a:

superficial burn
superficial partial-thickness burn
deep partial-thickness burn
full thickness burn

A

superficial partial thickness burn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What burn classification would be given to an area of the skin that was bright red, painful, and dry without blisters?

superficial burn
superficial partial-thickness burn
deep partial-thickness burn
full-thickness burn

A

superficial burn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following burn classifications is characterized by complete destruction of the epidermal and dermal layers, in addition to the involvement of the subcutaneous fat or muscle?

superficial burn
superficial partial-thickness burn
deep partial-thickness burn
full-thickness burn

A

full-thickness burn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following would not be used with mechanical debridement?

pulsatile lavage
Hubbard tank
wet-to-dry dressings
transparent film dressings

A

transparent film dressing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following is a form of non-selective debridement technique?

autolytic debridement
enzymatic debridement
wet-to-dry dressing
sharp debridement

A

wet to dry dressing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which type of debridement accelerates the body’s own ability to clean up debris?

mechanical
autolytic
biosurgical
surgical

A

autolytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which form of wound debridement converts a chronic wound into an acute wound using specific instruments, decreasing the surface bacterial burden, and removing senescent cells?

sharp
autolytic
enzymatic
mechanical

A

sharp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which method is an example of mechanical debridement?

collagenases
maggots
film dressings
pulsed lavage

A

pulsed lavage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which of the following is a selective form of debridement?

wet-to-dry dressing
whirlpool
pulsed lavage
autolytic

A

autolytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which method of debridement removes both viable and nonviable tissues?

nonselective debridement
enzymatic debridement
autolytic debridement
sharp debridement

A

nonselective debridement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

During sharp debridement, caution should be taken with patients who are currently taking:

antidiuretics
anticoagulants
antihypertensives
antitussives

A

anticoagulants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which of the following is not an example of mechanical debridement?

whirlpool
pulsed lavage
wet-to-dry dressings
hydrocolloids

A

hydrocolloids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which color demonstrates the greatest severity of necrotic tissue?

white
tan
yellow
black

A

black

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which of the following dressings would be most appropriate for partial or full-thickness wounds exhibiting minimal to moderate drainage?

transparent film
foams
calcium alginates
collagen matrix

A

foam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Moisture retentive dressings such as hydrocolloids, films, and hydrogels can be used for which of the following debridement methods?

sharp
autolytic
enzymatic
mechanical

A

autolytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which of the following would be the most appropriate type of wound dressing to place over an intravenous access site?

hydrocolloid dressing
transparent film dressing
non-adherent gauze dressing
foam dressing

A

transparent film dressing

33
Q

Which of the following is considered the most occlusive of the moisture-retentive dressings?

transparent films
foams
hydrogels
hydrocolloids

A

hydrocolloids

34
Q

Which type of dressing would be the most appropriate for an infected wound if the goal is to reduce exudate while maintaining a moist wound environment?

impermeable film
hydrogel
foam
alginates

A

alginates

35
Q

Which of the following is not an indication for applying a wound dressing?

protect the area from injury
prevent contamination
prevent scarring
promote healing

A

prevent scarring

36
Q

Which of the following would typically be the dressing of choice to treat a stage 1 or 2 pressure injury?

transparent film
hydrocolloids
calcium alginates
wet-to-dry dressings

A

transparent film

37
Q

Which of the following wound dressings are most helpful in maintaining a moist wound bed in a superficial wound with minimal drainage?

transparent film
alginates
hydrogels
wet-to-dry dressings

A

hydrogels

38
Q

Which of these wound dressings can be utilized to treat an infected pressure injury?

transparent film
hydrocolloids
hydrogels
calcium alginates

A

calcium alginates

39
Q

Which type of dressing would be the least moisture retentive?

alginates
semipermeable foams
hydrocolloids
semipermeable films

A

semipermeable films

40
Q

According to the rule of nines which body segment would occupy the greatest percentage of the total body surface area?

anterior trunk
arm
head
posterior leg

A

anterior trunk

41
Q

According to the rule of nines, what percentage of the total body surface area would be allocated to the posterior surface of the bilateral legs and feet?

9%
18%
27%
36%

A

18

42
Q

The rule of nines is not appropriate to assess which type of burn?

superficial partial-thickness
superficial
deep partial-thickness
full-thickness

A

superficial

43
Q

According to the rule of nines, a burn affecting the anterior right leg and foot would constitute what percentage of the total body surface area?

1.0%
9.0%
13.5%
18.0%

A

9

44
Q

According to the rule of nines, a burn affecting the posterior trunk and posterior left arm, forearm and hand, would constitute what percentage of the total body surface area?

9%
13.5%
18%
22.5%

A

22.5

45
Q

According to the rule of nines, at what age does a child reach the same body proportions as an adult?

9
12
15
18

A

9

46
Q

When using the rule of nines for a young child, which part of the body makes up a larger percentage as compared to an adult?

head and neck
trunk
upper extremity
lower extremity

A

head and neck

47
Q

Using the rule of nines, what percentage of the body is affected if there is a burn to the posterior trunk, posterior left lower extremity, and the entire left upper extremity?

31.5%
36.0%
40.5%
45.0%

A

36

48
Q

According to the rule of nines, what percentage of the body would be affected by burns covering the anterior surface of the arms and legs bilaterally?

18.0%
22.5%
27.0%
36.0%

A

27

49
Q

What percentage of the total body surface area would be affected with a burn that covers the anterior portions of the bilateral lower extremities and the anterior portion of the right arm?

13.5%
18.0%
22.5%
23.0%

A

22.5

50
Q

nutritional status
level of hydration
skin maceration
body composition

A

skin maceration

51
Q

What score on the Braden scale would most warrant initiation of a pressure injury prevention program?

16
19
21
23

A

Correct Answer: 16

It is recommended that individuals who score an 18 or less on the Braden scale be placed on a pressure injury prevention program. The scale assesses sensory perception, moisture, activity, mobility, nutrition, and friction and shear. Each section of assessment is scored from one to four with the exception of friction and shear, which is scored one to three. The maximum score on the Braden scale is 23.

52
Q

What is the bacterial agent commonly responsible for skin infection?

gonococcus
chlamydia
mycobacterium tuberculosis
staphylococcus aureus

A

staphylococcus aureus

53
Q

Which condition would not increase the risk of developing a pressure injury during a prolonged hospitalization?

diabetic neuropathy
body mass index of 21
incontinence
malnutrition

A

BMI of 21
eighteen - twenty five is normal

54
Q

In order to relieve pressure on the skin and prevent contractures, a patient’s position should be changed every:

2 hours
4 hours
6 hours
8 hours

A

2 hours

55
Q

Which of the following is not considered as a primary risk factor for development of a pressure injury?

insensate body areas
dry epidermal surfaces
prolonged weight bearing
persistent incontinence

A

dry epidermal surfaces

56
Q

A deep tissue wound with intact skin (i.e., unstageable wound) may be especially difficult to identify in which demographic?

males
females
dark skinned individuals
fair skinned individuals

A

dark skin

57
Q

A rubor of dependency test can help to identify which of the following risk factors for developing skin ulceration?

venous insufficiency
arterial insufficiency
neuropathy
insensate skin

A

Correct Answer: arterial insufficiency

The rubor of dependency test is used to evaluate arterial circulation by observing skin color changes that occur with the lower extremity in an elevated position as opposed to on a level surface. Arterial insufficiency is a significant risk factor for developing skin breakdown.

58
Q

A percussion test can help to identify which of the following risk factors for developing skin ulceration?

venous insufficiency
arterial insufficiency
neuropathy
insensate skin

A

Correct Answer: venous insufficiency

A percussion test assesses the valves of the saphenous vein by percussing a distal segment of the vein while palpating a proximal segment. If the proximal hand senses blood movement, the valves are not functioning properly. Venous insufficiency is a major risk factor for developing skin breakdown.

59
Q

Which diagnosis would be most likely to negatively impact the healing of a pressure injury?

adhesive capsulitis
rotator cuff tendonitis
peripheral vascular disease
emphysema

A

emphysema

60
Q

Which structure is especially vulnerable to pressure injuries in a side lying position

greater trochanter
ischial tuberosity
iliac crest
sacrum

A

greater trochanter

61
Q

What bony prominence would not be susceptible to a pressure injury in a supine position?

occiput
lateral head of the humerus
sacrum
heel

A

lateral head of the humerus

62
Q

What bony prominence would not be susceptible to pressure injury when a patient is sitting in a properly sized standard wheelchair?

ischial tuberosity
vertebral spinous processes
spine of the scapula
posterior superior iliac spines

A

Correct Answer: spine of the scapula

A properly fit standard wheelchair should have a back height that falls below the inferior angle of the scapula. The therapist should measure from the seat of the chair to the floor of the axilla with the user’s shoulder flexed to 90 degrees and then subtract approximately 4 inches. The seat back would not make contact with the spine of the scapula in this scenario.

63
Q

Which position of the shoulder would be the most appropriate to prevent a contracture following a burn to the anterior chest?

abduction, flexion, lateral rotation
adduction, extension, medial rotation
abduction, flexion, medial rotation
adduction, extension, lateral rotation

A

abduction, flexion, lateral rotation

64
Q

Which position of the hip would be the most appropriate to prevent a contracture following a burn to the anterior hip?

hip extension and internal rotation
hip flexion and external rotation
hip extension and abduction
hip flexion and adduction

A

hip extension and abduction

65
Q

Which of the following anatomical landmarks would be unlikely to cause a pressure injury if the patient is positioned in prone?

sternum
acromion process
anterior superior iliac spine
anterior inferior iliac spine

A

anterior inferior iliac spine

66
Q

An airplane splint applied following a burn would most likely be used to avoid a contracture affecting the:

neck
shoulder
elbow
wrist

A

Correct Answer: shoulder

An airplane splint is used to immobilize a shoulder during healing from an injury, surgery or burn. The splint maintains the arm in an abducted position at or below shoulder level with the elbow typically flexed.

67
Q

In order to prevent the development of wounds, how often should a skin assessment in an acute care setting typically occur?

every 24 hours
weekly
quarterly
every physical therapy visit

A

24 hours

68
Q

The medial and lateral condyles of the tibia are areas that are likely to develop pressure injuries in which position?

sidelying
sitting
supine
prone

A

sidelying

69
Q

Which positions would make the sacrum most susceptible to develop a pressure injury with prolonged positioning?

sitting and sidelying
supine and sitting
supine and prone
prone and sitting

A

supine and sitting

70
Q

Whirlpool is contraindicated for which of the following scenarios?

necrotic tissue
callous
multiple necrotic areas
venous insufficiency

A

Correct Answer: venous insufficiency

Whirlpool, a type of mechanical debridement, may be used to debride loosely adhered tissue and deodorize the wound. It may be inappropriate to place the lower extremity of a patient with venous insufficiency into a dependent position with warm water due to increased blood pooling.

71
Q

Ulceration on the medial aspect of the lower leg, around the malleoli, is most characteristic of a/an:

venous insufficiency ulcer
neuropathic ulcer
arterial insufficiency ulcer
pressure ulcer

A

venous insufficiency ulcer

72
Q

The most appropriate action to temporarily relieve night pain due to an arterial insufficiency ulcer is to:

elevate the legs on pillows
place the legs in a dependent position
take an aspirin
use a heating pad

A

place the legs in a dependent position

73
Q

Lower extremity pain that is most prominent during sleep and awakens the patient is most consistent with:

arterial insufficiency
venous insufficiency
diabetic neuropathy
venous reflux

A

arterial insufficiency

74
Q

What is the most common location for an arterial insufficiency ulcer?

plantar surface of the feet and toes
proximal to the medial malleoli
lateral malleoli, dorsum of the feet and toes
over bony prominences throughout the body

A

lateral malleoli, dorsum of the feet and toes

75
Q

An ulcer proximal to the medial malleolus with an irregular shape and a red wound bed would most likely be classified as a/an:

neuropathic ulcer
arterial insufficiency ulcer
pressure ulcer
venous insufficiency ulcer

A

venous insufficiency

76
Q

A wound located over a bony prominence is most accurately identified as a:

venous ulcer
arterial ulcer
pressure ulcer
neuropathic ulcer

A

pressure ulcer

77
Q

What type of wound is depicted in the image?

partial-thickness wound
full-thickness wound
superficial wound
subcutaneous wound

A

partial thickness

78
Q

Which lower extremity peri-wound characteristic would suggest that arterial insufficiency is a major contributing factor to the wound development?

moist skin
thin toenails
hairless skin
brusied skin

A

hairless skin

79
Q

Which treatment option is most appropriate when treating a venous insufficiency ulcer?

sharp debridement
use of a foam dressing
external compression of the limb
whirlpool irrigation

A

external compression of the limb

NPTE Exam (54 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions