Flashcards in cellular and molecular Deck (51):
DNA is made up of 4 deoxyribonucleotides containing the purine bases _______ and ________, and the pyrimidine bases _________ and ________.
The bond between the bases is a ________ bond.
adenine and guanine
cytosine and thiamine
Adenine binds to thymine and cytosine binds to guanine.
2. The central dogma of molecular biology is that DNA can be copied to DNA and to messenger RNA (process is called _________), and that proteins can be synthesized using the information in mRNA as a template (called _______), but that the information can’t be transferred back from protein to nucleic acid, or from RNA to DNA.
3. How is the structure of RNA different from DNA?
-Thymine is replaced with uracil
-The base pairs are linked by ribose rather than 2’ deoxyribose
-RNA is usually single stranded
-RNA is much more susceptible than DNA to degradation by nucleases
4. What are/were the benefits of sequencing the genome?
-The expectation that knowledge of the sequence of position of all genes would produce tangible improvements in medical care
-Tools could be developed for storing and analyzing the large amount of information produced
-The work would produce a biotechnology industry to stimulate the development of new medical applications from the data
5. A Boxer was chosen for the canine genome sequencing project because this breed was described as having the lowest rate of _________, in other words, the lowest rate of variation in sequence, when compared to other breeds.
6. The feline genome has also been sequenced. What is of particular interest?
-The large numbers of endogenous retrovirus-like sequences identified, accounting for about 4% of the feline genome.
7. Only approximately __% of the genome codes for mRNA, rRNA, tRNA, small nuclear RNA, and small nucleolar RNA.
8. Transcription is mediated by a DNA-directed what? Where in the cell does it occur?
-Primarily in the nucleus, but also in the mitochondria
9. The length of genes is often many times greater than that of the transcribed mRNA molecule due to the presence of _______ which are noncoding nucleic acids, that separate the exons, or the coding sequence. The base triplets of three nucleotides are termed codons and code for individual amino acids.
10. Translation of mRNA molecules to a polypeptide occurs in the _________.
The presence of intronic sequence permits alternative splicing of the exons and thus variation in the sequence, which is translated to protein from a single gene and is called a ____ ______. An important example is the increased expression of a splice variant in breast cancer causing a reduced survival time due to shorter time to tumor mets.
12. The majority of genomic DNA present within mammalian cells is not _______, with less than 2% of the haploid human genome coding for genes.
13. Areas of noncoding elements, which are highly conserved between mammalian species, are often associated with genes that code for ____________________
regulation of development.
14. The one way flow of genetic information is not always the case. What is the enzyme that can generate a DNA sequence from and RNA template? What is the best described reverse transcriptase in mammalian cells and why is it thought to be important?
-Telomerase, implicated in aging and oncogenesis b/c it is responsible for preventing the shortening of the telomere length and its expression is a near universal marker of malignancy
15. Segments of DNA sequence that are transcribed into mRNA are termed _______. Its position and the start of the gene are identified by a sequence upstream termed the _______.
16. Genes such as ribosomal proteins and histones have a common function between different cells and thus are constitutively expressed between different cell types and are called ______ genes.
17. What is epigenetics? What are some of the mechanisms by which it occurs? Give an example in dogs.
-Methods other than DNA sequence that control differential expression in different cell types within an individual
-Via DNA methylation and histone acetylation
-Hypomethylation is associated with transcriptional activity and has been implicated in the neoplastic transformation of cells and has been identified in canine neoplasia such as lymphoma
18. What are mutations called that don’t affect the fitness of an individual?
19. What is a haplotype?
-When a set of alleles that are closely linked at a particular locus and they are inherited together, each different set is termed a haplotype
20. What is the most common type of mutation? What are other examples.
-Most common is a single nucleotide polymorphism, or a point mutation
If it changes a protein sequence or length it is called a nonsynonymous mutation
-A missense mutation results in a change to an amino acid codon, which may alter the protein structure
-A nonsense mutation is when the mutation may replace the normal amino acid codon with a stop codon leading to termination of the protein sequence
-A synonymous mutation changes the sequence but not the amino acid
-The deletion or addition of a single or multiple base pair sequence will change the frame in which the sequence is read by RNA polymerase and is termed a frame shift mutation
21. What is genetic linkage?
-The tendency to inherit together two or more alleles at different loci on the same chromosome more frequently than would be expected by independent assortment.
22. What is linkage disequilibrium?
-The association of alleles at different loci, but not necessarily on the same chromosome, at greater frequency than would be expected by random chance.
23. What are some ways of detecting mutations?
-Use of restriction nucleases which are bacterial enzymes that cut the DNA double helix at restriction sites and identify mutations resulting in loss or gain of a restriction site.
24. What is the purpose of a gene knockout experiment?
-They involve the insertion of a mutated (nonfunctioning) gene into a vector, which is then inserted into embryonic stem cells, leading to offspring with the gene knockout. This is the gold standard for determination of the effect of the loss of a single or both copies of a gene, or the mutation of a gene on an organism.
25. What enzymes are responsible for the posttranslational modification of a protein by the addition of a phosphate group? What does this phosphorylation do functionally?
-Causes the protein to interact with other proteins recognizing the phosphorylated domain and is commonly associated with cell signaling
26. What are examples of tests utilizing proteomics in veterinary medicine?
-Western blot, immunohistochemical staining, ELISA, mass spectrometer
27. What is pharmacogenomics?
-The study of the interaction of genetic variation with response to a drug, be that efficacy or toxicity
1.) What is a biomarker, according to the NIH?
a. Characteristic that is objectively measured and evaluated as an indicator of normal biologic processes, pathogenic processes, or pharmacologic responses to therapeutic intervention
2.) Where is the greatest proportion of cartilage in the body (which makes specific OA biomarker development difficult)?
a. Spine and respiratory system
3.) What does the Dimethylmethylene Blue (DMMB) assay measure and how does it work?
a. Measures intact GAG chains via colorimetric assay to the insoluble precipitate formed by DMMB and intact GAG chains
4.) What are the general targets of the aggrecan assays (there are 3 main sequences the assays are made toward)?
a. Repeating disaccharide sequence that can be sulfated at 4- or 6- on the chondrointin chains (7D4 and 3B3 +/- CS846)
b. Keratan sulfate (5D4)
c. N-terminus of cleaved aggrecan (BC-3, BC-14, OA-1)
5.) What is removed from the Type II collagen pre-propeptide to allow it to form the triple helix?
a. C- and N-terminal globular domains
6.) What does MMP stand for and how did they get that name?
a. Matrix metalloproteinases- have a metal ion, usually zinc, present at the active site
7.) What is the result of collagen proteolysis and why is that significant for biomarkers?
a. Triple helix cleavage results in a ¾ fragment and ¼ fragment, which exposes the N- and C- terminal epitopes for detection (target of most assays)
8.) What does Cartilage Oligomeric Matrix Protein do?
a. Binds Tpye I or Type II cartilage and stabilizes the network
b. Facilitates fibrillogenesis
9.) How are Acute Phase Proteins described (2 specific variables)?
a. Positive or negative based on response to insult
b. Major, moderate or minor based on magnitude of response
Name 3 main acute phase proteins.
a. Albumin, Alpha-1 acid Glycoprotein, C-reactive protein, Ceruloplasmin, Haptoglobin, Serum amyloid A, fibrinogen, transferrin
What are the stimulants of TNF-α production and where is it synthesized?
a. Lipopolysaccharide and IL-1
13.) What triggers IL-6 production from what source?
a. Pathogen-Associated Molecular Patterns (PAMPs - component of specific microbes) trigger IL-6 production via toll-like receptors
b. Sythesized by white blood cells, mainly macrophages and T-lymphocytes, and somewhat by WAT (white adipose tissue)
14.) Name the three primary adipokines associated with obesity related insulin resistance.
a. TNF-α, IL-6, PAI-1
Obesity is characterized by a state of chronic__________, with increasing levels of inflammatory markers such as
low grade systemic inflammation
16.) What adipokines have been detected in the synovial fluid of human osteoarthritis patients?
1.) What are the three categories of stem cells that have been identified?
b. Fetal or perinatal
c. Adult (mesenchymal/stromal, hematopoietic, and neural)
2.) Define stem cells
a. Undifferentiated cells that possess the ability to divide for indefinite or prolonged periods in culture and may give rise to highly specialized cells characteristic of each embryonic germ layer
b. Undifferentiated cells that possess the ability to divide for indefinite or prolonged periods in culture and may give rise to highly specialized cells characteristic of each embryonic germ layer
c. The inner cell mass of preimplantation blastocysts
3.) How are hematopoetic stem cells typically used?
a. Implanted into leukemia patient after immunodepletion via total body irradiation
4.) What is so important about umbilical cord blood-derived stem cells?
a. More effectively repopulate the hematopoietic cell system and with less immunorejection than other stem cell sources
5.) What do mesenchymal/stromal stem cells do besides replace a cell population?
a. Secrete trophic factors that affect surrounding cells
b. Secrete cytokines and chemokines to modulate immune and inflammatory reactions
6.) Induced pleuripotent stem cells (iPS cells) are produced by…
a. Reprogramming of adult or embryonic somatic cells via transduction of a specific set of transcription factor genes
7.) Why are iPS cells so important?
a. Mitigates ethical concerns around embryonic stem cells
b. Uses autogenic transplantation so decreases immunorejection potential
c. Can still be induced to differentiate into multiple lineages
8.) What is the largest concern regarding the use of stem cells successfully?
a. Concern for tumor formation