ch. 22 Flashcards
(122 cards)
1
Q
the lymphatic system is involved in
a. fat absorption from the digestive tract
b. transporting lymph from the intestines to the liver
c. maintenance of pH in the tissues
d. production of erythrocytes
e. protein metabolism
A
fat absorption from the digestive tract
2
Q
the lymphatic system plays a role in maintaining fluid balance within the body by
a. adding lymph to GI tract secretions
b. returning interstitial fluid to the plasma
c. transporting lymph from tissues to the liver
d. carrying excess fluid to the kidneys to be excreted
e. actively absorbing fluid from the blood
A
returning interstitial fluid to the plasma
3
Q
lacteals are
a. a type of lymphocyte
b. a nonspecific defense
c. lymphatic vessels in the lining of the small intestine
d. the sinuses inside a lymph node
e. germinal centers
A
lymphatic vessels in the lining of the small intestine
4
Q
which of the following is NOT a function of the lymphatic system
a. defending from infection caused by microorganisms and other foreign substances
b. aiding in erythropoiesis of red blood cells
c. maintaining fluid balance by returning excess interstitial fluid to the blood
d. absorbing and transporting lipids from the digestive tract
A
aiding in erythropoiesis of red blood cells
5
Q
what is the purpose of lacteals
a. drain blood from the spleen
b. absorb fluid from capillary beds
c. absorb lipids from the digestive tract
d. absorb solutes from interstitial spaces
A
absorb lipids from the digestive tract
6
Q
lymph containing a high lipid content is called
a. chyle
b. chyme
c. lacteal
d. interstitial fluid
A
chyle
7
Q
the lymphatic system differs from the cardiovascular system in that
a. the lymphatic system only carries fluid away from tissues
b. the lymphatic vessels have their own “pump” to assist flow
c. lymph capillaries do not contain any fluid
d. lymph capillaries allow free movement of fluid in and out of the capillaries
e. lymph circulates fluids and cardiovascular does not
A
the lymphatic system only carries fluid away from tissues
8
Q
lymph capillaries are found in the
a. epidermis
b. cornea
c. bone marrow
d. central nervous system
e. dermis
A
dermis
9
Q
structurally, lymph vessels are most similar to
a. veins
b. arteries
c. arterioles
d. capillaries
e. venules
A
veins
10
Q
how do lymphatic capillaries differ from blood capillaries
a. lymphatic capillaries do not have a basement membrane
b. simple squamous epithelial cells of lymphatics overlap with loose attachments
c. lymphatic capillaries are more permeable than blood capillaries
d. lymphatic capillary epithelium act as one-way valves preventing movement of fluid back into interstitial spaces
e. all of the choices are ways lymphatic capillaries differ from blood capillaries
A
all of the choices are ways lymphatic capillaries differ from blood capillaries
11
Q
what structural feature of lymphatic vessels is responsible to forward movement of lymph
a. over-lapping endothelial cells
b. valves
c. no basement membrane
d. thin walls
A
valves
12
Q
lymph movement is assisted by
a. contraction of skeletal muscle
b. contraction of smooth muscle in lymph vessel
c. pressure changes in the thorax during respiration
d. compression of lymphatic vessels
e. all of these choices are correctr
A
all of these choices are correct
13
Q
a woman has her right breast and right axillary lymph nodes removed. which of the following might occur
a. cisterna chyli flow increases
b. the thoracic duct would be severed
c. right lymphatic duct drainage decreases causing edema in the right arm
d. lymph drainage would be affected in her left arm
e. lymph drainage would be affected in both legs
A
right lymphatic duct drainage decreases causing edema in the right arm
14
Q
the right lymphatic duct drains lymph from the
a. abdomen
b. upper part of the body
c. right arm, right chest, and right side of the head
d. right side of the body
e. left arm, left chest, and left side of the head
A
right arm, right chest, and right side of the head
15
Q
the thoracic duct drains lymph into the
a. left subclavian vein
b. right subclavian vein
c. right internal jugular vein
d. left brachiocephalic vein
e. left subclavian artery
A
left subclavian vein
16
Q
which of the following organs does NOT contain lymphatic tissues
a. liver
b. spleen
c. lingual tonsils
d. thymus
e. pharyngeal tonsils
A
liver
17
Q
lymphatic tissue contains an interlaced network of reticular fibes that functions to
a. produce lymphocytes
b. produce capsules around lymph nodes
c. attack microorganisms
d. line the walls of lymphatic vessels
e. trap microorganisms
A
trap microorganisms
18
Q
nonencapsulated lymphatic tissue called MALT includes all of the following except
a. tonsils
b. Peyer patches
c. lymph nodes
d. diffuse lymphatic tissue
A
lymph nodes
19
Q
Peyer patches are lymphatic nodules found in the
a. lymph nodes
b. spleen and tonsils
c. appendix and tonsils
d. small intestine and appendix
A
small intestine and appendix
20
Q
lymph nodules are
a. small, bean-shaped structures
b. the site of erythocyte production
c. located in the loose connective tissue of the digestive system
d. composed of an outer cortex and inner medulla
e. connected together in a series
A
located in the loose connective tissue of the digestive system
21
Q
adenoids are enlarged
a. lingual tonsils
b. pharyngeal tonsils
c. palatine tonsils
d. cervical lymph nodes
e. axillary lymph nodes
A
pharyngeal tonsils
22
Q
tonsils
a. increase in size in adults
b. are located in both the oral and abdominal cavities
c. provide protection against bacteria entering the oral and nasal cavities
d. contain red pulp and white pulp
e. are not functional in children
A
provide protection against bacteria entering the oral and nasal cavities
23
Q
the palatine tonsils
a. interfere with breathing when enlarged
b. are located at the junction of the oral cavity and pharynx
c. are located superior to the palate
d. are really lymph nodes in disguise
e. are located in the nasopharynx
A
are located at the junction of the oral cavity and pharynx
24
Q
bean-shaped lymphatic organs found along lymphatic vessels are called
a. lymph nodes
b. medullary cords
c. cisterna chyli
d. trabeculae
e. lymph nodules
A
lymph nodes
25
lymph nodes are surrounded by a dense connective tissue called
a. cortex
b. capsule
c. reticulum
d. trabeculum
e. basement membrane
capsule
26
bacteria and debris are actively removed from the lymph by ______ in the sinuses of lymph nodes
a. trabecular cells
b. germinal cells
c. macrophages
d. lymphocytes
e. plasma cells
macrophages
27
germinal centers are the sites of
a. increased blood flow to the lymph nodes
b. fluid production
c. increased flow of lymph from infected tissues
d. entrance of lymph into lymph nodes
e. proliferation of lymphocytes in the lymph nodes
proliferation of lymphocytes in the lymph nodes
28
lymph exits a lymph node via the
a. efferent lymphatic vessels
b. afferent lymphatic vessels
c. cortical sinuses
d. trabeculae
e. lymphatic duct
efferent lymphatic vessels
29
the only structures that filter lymph is/are the
a. tonsils
b. spleen
c. lymph nodes
d. thymus
lymph nodes
30
the spleen
a. filters damaged red blood cells from the blood
b. changes undifferentiated lymphocytes into competent lymphocytes
c. is necessary for life. it can't be removed without causing death
d. produces several different hormones with unknown function
e. has additional digestive functions
filters damaged red blood cells from the blood
31
which of the following statements concerning the spleen is true
a. splenic arteries enter the organ at the periarterial sheath
b. the spleen can act as a blood reservoir
c. the white pulp is associate with the venous supply
d. the red pulp has trabeculae
e. humans can not survive without a spleen
the spleen can acta as a blood reservoir
32
the white pulp of the spleen
a. contains lymphocytes that can stimulate an immure response
b. filters lymph as it flows through the spleen
c. destroys defective red blood cells
d. stimulates immune responses, filter lymph, and destroys defective red blood cells
contains lymphocytes that can stimulate an immune response
33
which of the following statements accurately descrives the thymus gland
a. the thymus gland lacks a capsule
b. the thymus gland contains many reticular fibers
c. the thymus gland is larger in infacts than in adults
d. lymphocytes are found on why in the medulla of the thymus gland
e. the thymus increases in size with aging
the thymus gland is larger in infants than in aduts
34
what is the funtion of thymosin
a. destroys damaged red blood cells
b. destroys damaged white blood cells
c. activates lymphocytes in lymph nodes
d. maturation of T-cells
maturation of T-cells
35
when innate immunity is actiavated,
a. each exposure is very specific
b. previous exposures are remembered
c. each exposure produces the same resonse
d. each exposure increases the strength of the immune response
e. the second exposure does not produce a response
each exposure produces the same response
36
which of the following is true of adaptive immunity
a. it is present at birth
b. previous encounters wiht the foreign substance does not change the response
c. the second response is faster and stronger than the first response
d. responses are general, not specific
the second response is faster and stronger than the first response
37
which of the following is NOT a characteristic of adaptive immumity
a. it has a memory
b. you are born with it
c. it has specificity
d. acquired throughout your lifetime
you are born with it
38
which of the following characteristics is/are most consistent with adaptive immunity
a. constant response to each exposure
b. specificity
c. memory
d. increased response to second and subsequent exposures
e. specificity, memory, and increased response to second and subsequent exposures
specificity, memory, and increased response to second and subsequent exposures
39
which of the following would be classified as an innate physical barrier
a. activation of complement
b. phagocytosis of invading organisms
c. washing action of tears and saliva
d. inflammation
e. release of histamine
washing action of tears and saliva
40
complement proteins
a. can form holes in the plasma membrane of target cells
b. are on the surface of macrophages
c. are hormones found in the blood
d. may cause the release of interferon
e. do not attract neutrophils, monocytes, macrophages, or eosinophils
can form holes in the plasma membrane of target cells
41
which of the following most accurately describes fow foreign substances can activate complement
a. antibodies can bind to foreign antigens and activate complememtn throught the classical pathway
b. foreign substances can bind to spontaneously activated C3 and stabilize it
c. foreign proteins are phagocytized by marcophages and directly activate complement
e. antibodies can bind to foreign antigens and activate complement through the classical pathway and foreign substances canbind to spontaneously activated C3 and stabilize it
antibodies can bind to foreign antigens and activate complement through the classical pathway and foreign substances canbind to spontaneously activated C3 and stabilize it
42
which of the following is NOT a mechanism of complement action
a. produces cytokines
b. opsonization
c. attracts other immune cells to the site of infection
d. forms a MAC that leads to cell lysis
produces cytokines
43
a surface chamical that prevents microbial frowth is
a. histamine
b. leukotriene
c. sebum
d. kinin
e. interferon
sebum
44
a protein that helps to protect the body against viral infections is
a. complement
b. interferon
c. lysozyme
d. distamine
e. kinin
interferon
45
interferon
a. directly attacks viruses
b. protects cells that have been incaded by viruses
c. increases vascular permeability
d. is not produced by most cells
e. is a protein that interferes with virus production and infection
is aprotein that interferes with virus production and infection
46
interferon production is stimulated by
a. a viral infection
b. the complement cascade
c. antigen-presenting cells
d. degranulation of basophils
e. inflammation
a viral infection
47
the movement of leukocytes to the source of certain chemicals is called
a. chemotaxis
b. opsonization
c. chemoreception
d. phagocytosis
e. hemolysis
chemotaxis
48
lysozyme is
a. an enzyme found in body fluids that destroy certain bacteria
b. a type of antibody that attracts a phagocyte
c. a cytokine produced by T cells
d. an antigen
e. a bacteria
an enzyme found in body fluids that destroys certain bacteria
49
the two major types of phagocytic cells are
a. neutrophils and monocytes
b. neutrophiles and macrophages
c. monocytes and macrophages
d. lymphocytes and monosytes
e. eosinophiles and T cells
neutrophils and macrophages
50
which of the following statements conceringing neutrophils and macrophages is false
a. they both exhibit chemotaxis
b. they both move by amoeboid motion
c. both are capable of phagocytosis
d. both release histamine when activated
e. both can squeeze between cells
both release histamine when activated
51
macrophages
a. are derived from basophils
b. reduce the inflammatory response
c. are responsible for most phagocytic activity in the late stages of an infection
d. produce cytokines that aid in the destruction of antigens
e. are the first at the site of infection
are responsible for most phagocytic activity in the late stages on an infection
52
histamine and leukotrienes are released from
a. basophiles and mast cells
b. eosinophils and basophils
c. neutrophils and lymphocytes
d. macrophages and microphages
e. phagocytes
basophils and mast cells
53
in a patient experiencing an allergic reaction, which of the following immune cells will greatly increase in number
a. mast cells
b. eosinophils
c. monocytes
d. neutrophils
e. basophils
eosinophils
54
which of the following is usually the first cell type to leave the blood and enter infected tissues
a. eosinophil
b. lymphocyte
c. monocyte
d. natural killer cell
e. neutrophil
neutrophil
55
Natural Killer (NK) cells
a. a type of macrophage
b. are a type of plasma cell
c. secrete enzymes that kill tumor or virus-infected cells
d. are derived from B cells
e. promote inflammation
secrete ezymes that kill tumor or virus-infected cells
56
the inflammatory response
a. prevents the spread of an infection
b. stimulates erythrocytes to leave the blood
c. delays healing of damaged tissues
d. depresses immunity
e. is harmful and should be immediately reversed
prevents the spread of an infection
57
the redness and heat seen in an inflamed area are the result of
a. vasoconstriction
b. increased blood flow to the area
c. phagocyte mobilization
d. production of interferon
e. a reddish substance released by erythrocytes
increased blood flow to the area
58
during the inflammatory response
a. vasoconstriction occurs
b. chemical mediators are released
c. vascular permeability is decreased
d. neutrophil production is depressed
e. blood flow is reduced
chemical mediators are released
59
the key signs of inflammation include all of the following EXCEPT
a. jaundice
b. pain
c. swelling
d. redness
e. heat
jaundice
60
which of the following substances causes increased capillary permeability, chemotaxis, and vasodilation
a. histamine
b. protaglandins
c. leukotrienes
d. complement
e. cytokines
histamine
61
in systemic inflammation, pyrogens
a. decrease phagocytosis
b. decrease vasodilation
c. increase neutrophil production
d. stimulate fever production
e. are chemotaxic factors
stimulate fever production
62
circulatory changes that occur in inflammation include
a. increased viscosity of the blood
b. decreased vascular permeability
c. increased vascular permeability
d. decreased blood flow to the area
e. vasoconstriction
increased vascular permeability
63
adaptive immunity is stimulated by
a. antigens
b. histamines
c. antibodies
d. complement
e. plasma proteins
antigens
64
transplanted tissues and organs that contain ______ ______ are rejected by the body
a. self-antigens
b. foreign antigens
c. foreign antibodies
d. self-antibodies
e. plasma proteins
foreign antigens
65
______ are part of cell-mediated immunity while _____ are part of antibody-mediated immunity
a. B cells, NK cells
b. antibodies, antigens
c. T cells, B cells
d. macrophages, antibodies
e. neutrophils, monocytes
T cell, B cells
66
a small molecule that can cuase an allergic reaction is a/an
a. T cell
b. B cell
c. antibody
d. hapten
hapten
67
_______ determines which B-cell is cloned in an antibody-mediated response
a. the antibody
b. the antigen
c. a macrophage
d. complement
e. a neutrophil
the antigen
68
which of the following is a subpopulation of T cells
a. cytotoxic
b. antigenic
c. cytokinetic
d. basophilic
e. antitoxic
cytotoxic
69
T cells are divided into two primary groups, effector and regulatory. which of the following are regulatory T cells
a. helper T cells
b. cytotoxic T cells
c. chemotaxic T cells
d. delayed hypersensitivity T ells
e. assistant T cells
helper T cells
70
the effects of cell-mediated immunity are the result of activities of
a. B cells
b. cytotoxic T cells
c. macrophages
d. dendritic cells
e. helper T cells
cytotoxic T cells
71
the thymus is where _____ mature and become functional immune cells
a. pre-T cells
b. pre-B cells
c. macrophages
d. null cells
e. C cells
pre-T cells
72
the process of eliminating those lymphocytes that react or respond against self-antigens is called
a. phagocytosis
b. inflammation
c. negative selection
d. activation of complement
e. natural selection
negative selection
73
positive selection of lymphocytes refers to the
a. processing of an antigen by a macrophage
b. proliferation of natural killer cells
c. production of antigen-specific antibodies
d. survival of pre-B and pre-T cells that are capable of an immune response
e. replication of memory cells
survival of pre-B and pre-T cells that are capable of an immune response
74
primary lymphatic organs include the
a. tonsils and spleen
b. thymus and lymph nodes
c. red bone marrow and thymus
d. red bone marrow and lymph nodes
red bone marrow and thymus
75
which of the following is NOT a secondary lymphatic organ
a. spleen
b. lymph node
c. lymphatic nodule
d. thymus gland
thymus gland
76
what areas of an antigen are recognized by lymphocytes so that they can respond
a. major histocompatibility complexes
b. antigenic determinants
c. T-cell receptors
d. epitopes
e. both antigenic determinants and epitopes are correct
both antigenic determinants and epitopes are correct
77
the MHC (major histocompatibility complex) class molecules
a. are only found on B cells
b. are found in the nucleus of cells
c. allow the immune system to respond to antigens inside cells
d. are lipoproteins on cell surfaces
e. do not attach to plasma membranes
allow the immune system to respond to antigens inside cells
78
different T-cell receptors can respond to different antigens because of different
a. variable regions in the structure of the receptors
b. epitopes in the receptor's structure
c. selection processes
d. complement binding sites in the receptors
e. antigenic determinants
variable regions in the structure of the receptors
79
lymphocyte activation can occur in several ways. however, in all cases
a. lymphocytes must recognize an antigen
b. helper T cells are activated first and they then stimulate other cells
c. antigen-presenting cells process the antigen and present it to the lymphocytes
d. cytokines released by the antigen stimulate the lymphocyte response
e. antigens must be able to recognize the lymphocytes
lymphocytes must recognize an antigen
80
the MHC class I antigen complex displays a foreign antigen on the cell surface. the prompts the immune system to destroy
a. B cells clones
b. extracellular antigens
c. the displaying cell
d. mature red blood cells
e. the virus inside the cell, but not the cell
the displaying cell
81
MHC class II molecules are found on
a. neutrophils, monocytes, and macrophages
b. dendritic cells, B cells, and helper T cells
c. monocytes, helper T cells, and neutrophils
d. B cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells
e. B cells, C cells, and D cells
B cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells
82
cells that process antigen and present antigens to other immune cells are called
a. plasma cells
b. antigen-presenting cells
c. B receptor cells
d. T suppressor cells
e. antibodies
antigen-presenting cells
83
frequently, several different signals or molecules are needed in order to produce an immune response by a B cell or T cell. the second signal in this process is called
a. opsonization
b. copresentation
c. complement activation
d. antigen processing
e. costimulation
costimulation
84
which of the following cytokines is mismatched
a. perforin - makes a hole in target cell membranes
b. alpha interferon - prevents viral replication
c. lymphotoxin - costimulator of T cells
d. interleukin 4 - plays a role in allergic reactions
e. TNF - activates macrophages and promotes fever
lymphotoxin - costimulator of T cells
85
T helper cells possess a glycoprotein called CD4. this molecule binds to
a. MHC class I molecules
b. MHC class II molecules
c. MHC-CD8 antigens
d. MHC-CD28 antigens
e. interleukin-1 receptor
MHC class II molecules
86
which of the following might occur after a helper T cell is presented with a presented with a processed antigen and costimulated
a. helper T cells destroy the presenting cell
b. helper T cells produce antibodies
c. helper T cells release interleukins that stimulate B cells to clone
d. helper T cells stop division
e. helper T cells lyse
helper T cells release interleukins that stimulate B cells to clone
87
lymphocyte proliferation begins by increasing the number of
a. macrophages
b. B cells
c. T suppressor cells
d. Helper T cells
e. cytotoxic T cells
helper T cells
88
once cytotoxic T cells are produced, which of the following is (are) consistent with their ability to attack intracelluar viruses
a. most nucleated cells process antigens through the MHC class I mechanisms
b. viral antigens are processed by the MHC class I machanism and are presented to the cell surface
c. cytotoxic T cells bind to MHC class I processed antigens
d. cytotoxic T cells bound to the MHC class I processed antigens release lymphokines
e. all of these choices are correct
all of these choices are correct
89
tolerance is a state of a. hypersensitivity
b. transplant rejection
c. unresponsiveness to antigens
d. responding to self-antigens
e. nonrecognition of antigens
unresponsiveness to antigens
90
tolerance to antigens is induced by
a. blocking costimulation
b. stimulating interleukin 2 production
c. preventing suppressor T cell proliferation
d. promoting the release of cytokines
e. stimulating helper T cell division
blocking costimulation
91
antibodies are produced by
a. T effector cells stimulated by T helper cells
b. T helper cells stimulated by various cytokines
c. B cells that differentiate to form plasma cells
d. natural killer cells as they lyse cencer cells
e. the red bone marrow
B cells that differentiate to form plasma cells
92
antibodies
a. play a large role in cell-mediated immunity
b. are produced by both T and B cells
c. are composed of four light and four heavy polupeptide chains
d. are not specific, but ast generally
e. have a variable region that binds to a specific antigenic determinant
have a variable region that binds to a specific antigenic determinant
93
the immunoglobulin that is often the first antibody produced in response to an antigen is
a. IgD
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgE
e. IgG
IgM
94
antibodies
a. activate antigens
b. may initiate inflammation and enhance phagocytosis
c. are proteins produced by T helper cells
d. are needed for costimulation
e. have memory
may initiate inflammation and enhance phagocytosis
95
which of the following is correctly matched
a. IgA - found in saliva and tears
b. IgD - can cross the placenta
c. IgG - first to challenge the antigen
d. IgM - antigen-binding receptor on B cells
e. IgE - transfusion reactions
IgA - found in saliva and tears
96
antibodies secreted in breast milk
a. are IgG antibodies
b. are IgA antibodies
c. provide natural active adaptive immunity
d. include the cytokine interleukin 2
e. promote inflammation
are IgA antibodies
97
as a result of opsonization
a. holes are produced in target cell membranes
b. organ transplant rejection occurs
c. antigens are more susceptible to phagocytosis
d. antigens clump together
e. inflammation, chemotaxis, and lysis occur
antigens are more susceptible to phagocytosis
98
B cells
a. are a subset of T cells
b. when activated become plasma cells and produce antibodies
c. are responsible for forming all the body's memory cells
d. suppress the activity of T cells
e. mature in the thymus
when activated become plasma cells and produce antibodies
99
several days after an inital contact with an antigen, antibody blood levels increases. this is a
a. primer response
b. primary response
c. precipitating response
d. principle response
e. cascae response
primary response
100
the secondary or memory response
a. occurs after the primary response has acivated NK cells
b. provides better protection than the primary response
d. is less effective in antibody production
d. produces different antibodies than those produced in the primary immune response
e. does not protect the body after the first exposure
provides better protection than the primary response
101
the type of cell responsible for the secondary response is a
a. mast cell
b. macrophage
c. memory cell
d. red blood cell
e. monocyte
memory cell
102
in the cell-mediated immune response, T cells secrete _____, which activate components of the immune system
a. antibodies
b. complement
c. collagen
d. cytokines
e. histamine
cytokines
103
which is the proper order of events in cell-mediated immunity
1. cloning of cytotoxic T cells and memory T cells
2. antigen presented to T lymphocytes
3. activation of T lymphocytes
4. cytotoxic T cells attack target cells
a. 2,3,4,1
b. 1,4,2,3
c. 2,3,1,4
d. 3,2,4,1
e. 1,2,3,4
2,3,1,4
104
cytotoxic T cells
a. produce antibodies for general circulation
b. attach to the surface of cells causing them to lyse
c. cause precipitation of antigens
d. have IgG antibodies on their cell membranes
e. are destroyed after contact killing
attach to the surface of cells causing them to lyse
105
cell-mediated immunity would be least effective against
a. tumor cells
b. virally infected cells
c. intracellular bacteria
d. extracellular antigens
e. intracellular parasites
extracellular antigens
106
the intense inflammatory poison ivy is due to activity of the
a. cytotoxic T cells
b. plasma cells
c. delayed hypersensitivity cells
d. macrophages
e. mast cells
delayed hypersensitivity cells
107
stimulating the proliferation of cytotoxic T cells to destroy cencer cells is an example of
a. immunotherapy
b. immunocompetence
c. tolerance
d. passive artificial acquired immunity
e. passive natural acquired immunity
immunotherapy
108
the HIV virus infects
a. B cells
b. cytotoxic T cells
c. suppressor T cells
d. helper T cells
e. monocytes
helper T cells
109
the HIV virus can be transmitted
a. only from males to other males
b. during unprotected sexual intercourse
c. by coughing or sneezing
d. by contact with people at work
e. by hugging an infected child
during unprotected sexual intercourse
110
the most rapidly increasing group of AIDS patients is _____ who have had sexual contact with an infected person
a. homosexual males
b. hemophiliacs
c. heterosexual males and females
d. homosexual females
e. bisexual males
heterosexual males and females
111
which of the following will increase your risk of contracting the HIV virus
a. use of a condom during intercourse
b. heat treatment of clotting factors prior to transfusion
c. use of contaminated needles
d. reduction in the number of sexual partners
e. abstinence
use of contaminated needles
112
which of the following is false
a. the HIV virus binds to the CD4 molecule of host cells
b. there is currently only one cure for AIDS - AZT
c. most manifestations of AIDS are explained by the loss of helper T cell functions
d. once infected by the virus, a person will test posititve for HIV antibodies
e. in order for HIV to replicate, viral RNA is used to make viral DNA, which is inserted into the host cell's DNA
there is currently only one cure for AIDS - AZT
113
several research groups are working on vaccines that will be effective against the AIDS virus. when a successful vaccine is produced, it is likely to be injected to produce
a. active natural immunity
b. active artificial immunity
c. passive natural immunity
d. passive artificial immunity
e. active passive immunity
active artificial immunity
114
a traditional method of providing temporary immunity for a person who is suspected of being infected (usually be an animal bite) with rabies is classified as
a. active natural immunity
b. active artificial immunity
c. passive natural immunity
d. passive artificial immunity
e. passive active immunity
passive artificial immunity
115
active natural immunity occurs when
a. antibodies pass from a pregnant mother to her fetus
b. antibodies are injected into a host
c. an individual develops a disease
d. a person is vaccinated
e. antibodies are passed in breast milk
an individual develops a disease
116
transfusing a person with plasma proteins from a person or an animal that has been actively immunized against a specific antigen provides
a. active immunity
b. passive immunity
c. no immunity
e. natural immunity
passive immunity
117
if you receive an immunization for hepatitis B and produce antibodies against the hepatitis B virus, you have developed what type of adaptive immunity
a. active natural immunity
b. active artificial immunity
c. passive natural immunity
d. passive artificial immunity
e. active passive immunity
active artificial immunity
118
the type of adaptive immunity that provides immediate protection against disease when there is no time for the person to develop their own immunity is called ____ immunitya. active natural
b. active artificial
c. passive innate
d. passive artificial
e. active immediate
passive artificial
119
a child is born with a congenital disease that results in total loss of B cells. which of the following would be a consequence of this immunodeficiency
a. no lymphokine production
b. lack of antibody formation
c. nonfunctioning complement system
d. inability to form any type of memory cell
e. no antigens on the cells
lack of antibody formation
120
an abnormal, exaggerated response of the immune system is called
a. immunization
b. an innate immune response
c. hypersensitivity
d. excess immunity
e. tolerance
hypersensitivity
121
in immunodeficiency diseases
a. the immune system fails to distinguish between self-antigens and foreign antigens
b. inadequate B and/or T cell formation may occur
c. IgE mediates a localized reaction
d. serum sickness results
e. immune surveillance occurs
inadequate B and/or T cell formation may occur
122
which of the following is NOT an aging effect of the lymphatic system and immunity
a. fluid removal by the lymphatic capillaries is reduced
b. fewer antibodies are produced
c. onset of autoimmune disease is unchanged
d. T cell numbers remain constant but they are less functional
fluid removal by the lymphatic capillaries is reduced
