ch. 29 Flashcards
(141 cards)
1
Q
the period from conception until birth is
a. the prenatal period
b. the germinal period
c. the embryonic period
d. the fetal period
e. the conceptual period
A
the prenatal period
2
Q
the prenatal period during which the major organ systems form is the
a. fetal period
b. germinal period
c. embryonic period
d. neonatal period
A
embryonic period
3
Q
what even separates childhood from adolescence
a. puberty
b. infancy
c. formation of germ layers
d. beginning to walk
A
puberty
4
Q
germ layers form during the _____ period while organ systems mature during the _____ period
a. embryonic; fetal
b. prenatal; neonatal
c. germinal; embryonic
d. germinal; fetal
e. fetal; germinal
A
germinal; fetal
5
Q
the clinical age of the unborn child is calculated from
a. ovulation
b. conception
c. the last mentrual period
d. fourteen days after the last menstrual period
e. fourteen days before the last menstrual period
A
the last menstrual period
6
Q
developmental events are calculated from
a. ovulation
b. conception
c. the last menstrual period
d. fourteen days after the last menstrual period
e. fourteen days before the last menstrual period
A
fourteen days after the last menstrual period
7
Q
fusion of the male and female pronuclei
a. results in a oocyte forming
b. restores the diploid number of chromosomes
c. occurs before ovulation
d. results in a haploid cell forming
e. results in a total of 23 chromosomes
A
restores the diploid number of chromosomes
8
Q
depolarization of the oocyte plasma membrane occurs when the first sperm attaches to the integrin α6β1. this is called the
a. slow block to polyspermy
b. acrosomal reaction
c. fast block to polyspermy
d. fertilization
e. spermiogenesis
A
fast block to polyspermy
9
Q
fusion of the male and female pronuclei forms the
a. blastocyst
b. morula
c. zygote
d. gastrula
e. trophoblast
A
zygote
10
Q
if the zygote splits into two separate cells
a. identical twins result
b. fraternal twins result
c. dizygotic twinning occurs
d. both cells die
e. paternal twins result
A
identical twins result
11
Q
if a woman ovulates two oocytes and both are fertilized
a. identical twins result
b. fraternal twins result
c. dizygotic twinning occurs
d. both cells die
e. paternal twins result
A
fraternal twins result
12
Q
an embryonic cell that has the potential to develop into a wide range of tissues is called
a. differentiated cell
b. multipotent cell
c. pluripotent cell
d. omnipotent cell
e. totipotent cell
A
pluripotent cell (wide range, plural)
13
Q
an embryonic cell that contains the potential to give rise to any tissue type is called a/an
a. differentiated cell
b. multipotent cell
c. pluripotent cell
d. omnipotent cell
e. totipotent cell
A
totipotent cell (T for Tissue)
14
Q
once the embryonic mass has 12 or more cells, it is called a
a. morula
b. gastrula
c. blastula
d. blastocyst
e. trophoblast
A
morula
15
Q
the single layer of cells that surrounds the blastocele is the
a. morula
b. gastrula
c. blastocyst
d. trophoblast
e. inner cell mass
A
trophoblast
16
Q
when the embryonic mass of cells develops an internal cavity, the mass of cells is called
a. zygote
b. morula
c. blastocyst
d. embryonic disc
e. trophoblast
A
blastocyst
17
Q
the inner cell mass of the blastocyst
a. consists of yolk-filled storage cells
b. contains cells that will form the embryo
c. represents the future placenta
d. will form the zona pellucida
e. contains cells that are discarded
A
contains cells that will form the embryo
18
Q
the placenta and membranes surrounding the embryo develop from the
a. morula
b. blastocyst
c. trophoblast
d. inner cell mass
e. blastocele
A
trophoblast
19
Q
at the time of implantation, the human embryo is in a stage of development known as the
a. fetus
b. zygote
c. morula
d. blastocyst
e. egg
A
blastocyst
20
Q
the placenta plays an important role in
a. implantation
b. onset of lactation
c. beginning of parturition
d. provision of nutrients to the fetus
e. insulating the fetus
A
provision of nutrients to the fetus
21
Q
the time period between fertiliation and implantation is approximately
a. 5 days
b. 7 days
c. 10 days
d. 14 days
e. 21 days
A
7 days
22
Q
which of the following statements about the syncytiotrophoblast is false
a. it forms the developing embryo
b. it is composed of a non-dividing, multinucleated cell
c. it is nonantigenic, so that it triggers no immune response
d. it invades the maternal tissues that compose the endometrium of the uterus
e. it forms lacunae
A
it forms the developing embryo
23
Q
the cytotrophoblast
a. forms the chronionic villi
b. replaces the syncytiotrophoblast
c. remains throughout development
d. forms branches that protrude into the amniotic vacity
e. is not an embryonic part of the placenta
A
forms the chorionic villi
24
Q
the chorionic villi
a. form from branches of the syncytritrophoblast cords
b. increase surface area of the amniotic cavity
c. contribute to the formation of the placenta
d. are necessary for implantation to occur
e. are not part of the placenta formation
A
contribute to the formation of the placenta
25
placenta previa occurs when
a. a normally placed placenta tears away from the uterine wall
b. the placenta is formed too early
c. implantation occurs close to the cervix
d. implantation occurs in the fundus of the uterus
implantation occurs close to the cervix
26
where does implantation normally occur
a. in the fundus area of the uterus
b. in the isthmus area of the uterine tube
c. in the cervix area of the uterus
d. in the infundibulum area of the uterine tube
in the fundus area of the uterus
27
the embryonic disk is initially composed of
a. ectoderm and hypoblast
b. epiblast and mesoderm
c. epiblast and hypoblast
d. hypoblast and yolk sac
e. epiblast and yolk sac
epiblast and hypoblast
28
the embryonic membrane that completely encloses the embryo in a watery sac is the
a. yolk sac
b. amnion
c. allantois
d. chorion
e. ectodermal sac
amnion
29
gastrulation is the process of development that produces the
a. placenta
b. embryonic disk
c. germ layers
d. rudimentary organs
germ layers
30
some epiblast cells migrate and emerge between the epiblast and endoderm as a new germ layer called the
a. yolk sac
b. mesoglia
c. notochord
d. mesoderm
e. primitive streak
mesoderm
31
through what structure do epiblast cells migrate to form the mesoderm
a. lacunae
b. chorionic villi
c. hypoblast
d. primitive streak
primitive streak
32
QUESTION MARK LOOK UP which of the following is derived from ectoderm
a. lens of the eye
b. thymus gland
c. tonsils
d. urinary bladder
e. dermis of skin
lens of the eye
33
which of the following is derived from endoderm
a. brain
b. muscle
c. epidermis of the skin
d. lining of the digestive tract
e. cardiovascular system
lining of the digestive tract
34
which of the following is formed from mesoderm
a. autonomic neurons
b. dermis of the skin
c. adrenal medulla
d. teeth
e. tonsils
dermis of the skin
35
damage to the mesoderm during embryological development would affect the formation of the
a. thyroid
b. brain
c. heart
d. teeth
e. urinary bladder
heart
36
which of the following organ systems is derived from all three germ layers
a. nervous
b. cardiovascular
c. endocrine
d. integumentary
e. skeletal
endocrine
37
which germ layer is most muscle derived from
a. ectoderm
b. mesoderm
c. endoderm
mesoderm
38
which germ layer is the thymus derived from
a. ectoderm
b. mesoderm
c. endoderm
endoderm
39
which germ layer is the thyroid derived from
a. ectoderm
b. mesoderm
c. endoderm
endoderm
40
which germ layer is the epidermis derived from
a. ectoderm
b. mesoderm
c. endoderm
ectoderm
41
which germ layer is tooth enamel derived from
a. ectoderm
b. mesoderm
c. endoderm
ectoderm
42
which germ layer is the cardiovascular system derived from
a. ectoderm
b. mesoderm
c. endoderm
mesoderm
43
which germ layer is the urinary bladder derived from
a. ectoderm
b. mesoderm
c. endoderm
endoderm
44
which germ layer is the brain and spinal cord derived from
a. ectoderm
b. mesoderm
c. endoderm
ectoderm
45
which germ layer are the bones (except facial) derived from
a. ectoderm
b. mesoderm
c. endoderm
mesoderm
46
which germ layer are the tonsils derived from
a. ectoderm
b. mesoderm
c. endoderm
endoderm
47
arrange the following in the sequence in which they form in the embryo
1. neural plate
2. neural tube
3. notochord
4. primitive streak
a. 1,2,3,4
b. 1,3,2,4
c. 4,3,1,2
d. 4,1,3,2
e. 3,4,1,2
4,3,1,2
48
the embryo is most sensitive to outside influences that can cause malformations during the
a. first two weeks after fertilization
b. third to the ninth weeks of development
c. ninth to the sixteenth weeks of development
d. twelfth to the twentieth weeks of development
e. twenty-first to the twenty-sixth week of development
third to the ninth weeks of development
49
which of the following is NOT a possible route for neural crest cells
a. melanocytes
b. autonomic ganglion neurons
c. adrenal cortex
d. sensory ganglia
e. enteric nervous system neurons
adrenal cortex
50
cells of the neuroectoderm become all of the following EXCEPT
a. brain
b. spinal cord
c. postganglionic autonomic neurons
d. posterior pituitary gland
postganglionic autonomic neurons
51
somites give rise to
a. nerves
b. blood
c. glands
d. muscles
e. spinal cord
muscles
52
segments of mesoderm that will form muscles are
a. mesonepros
b. mandibular processes
c. neural tube
d. secrondary palate
e. somites
somites
53
the oropharyngeal and cloacal membranes, when opened, allow the ____ to open to the outside
a. liver
b. skin
c. lungs
d. digestive tract
e. ears
digestive tract
54
which of the following organs develops from evaginations along the early digestive tract
a. heart
b. adrenal medulla
c. lungs
d. nasal cavity
e. kidneys
lungs
55
the pleural and peritoneal cavities of the adult begin as part of the ____ cavity
a. cloacal
b. somatomeric
c. coelomic
d. apical
e. ventral
coelomic
56
the allantois enlarges to form the
a. kidney
b. gonads
c. ureter
d. urinary bladder
e. urethra
urinary bladder
57
arm and legs buds appear at about 28 days from
a. the coelom
b. apical ectodermal ridges
c. somitomeres
d. neural crest cells
apical ectodermal ridges
58
a cleft lip results when
a. the two halves of the secondary palate do not fuse
b. the frontonasal and maxillary processes do not fuse
c. the lateral edges of the nasal placodes do not fuse with the maxillary processes
d. the maxillary processes do not fuse with the mandibular processes
e. none of the above
the frontonasal and maxillary processes do not fuse
59
if the secondary palate does not fuse the result is a
a. cleft palate
b. cleft throat
c. facial cleft
d. cleft lip
e. cleft tongue
cleft palate
60
which of the following structures is NOT invovled in the formation of the face
a. apical ectodermal ridges
b. frontonasal process
c. maxillary processes
d. mandibular processes
apical ectodermal ridges
61
what structure forms the lower jaw
a. mesonephros
b. mandibular processes
c. neural tube
d. secondary palate
e. somites
mandibular processes
62
what structure forms the roof of the mouth
a. mesonephros
b. mandibular processes
c. neural tube
d. secondary palate
e. somites
secondary palate
63
organogenesis is generally completed by day _____ of development
a. 20
b. 30
c. 45
d. 60
e. 75
60
64
which of the following statements concerning development of the integumentary system is true
a. the epidermis is derived from mesoderm
b. the melanocytes are derived from ectoderm
c. nails, hair, and glands develop from the dermis
d. sensory receptors in the skin are derived from the epidermis
e. collagen fibers do not appear until after birth
the melanocytes are derived from ectoderm
65
which of the following statements concerning musculoskeletal system development is true
a. skeletal muscles develop from crest cells
b. myoblasts produce somites
c .the vertebral column develops from somite-derived mesoderm
d. enlargement of muscles after birth is due to an increase in the number of muscle fibers
e. ossification ends before birth
the vertebral column develops from somite-derived mesoderm
66
failure of the neural tube to close in the region of the head results in
a. anencephaly
b. ventricular enlargement
c. cleft palate
d. soft spots on the skull
e. hydrocephaly
anencephaly
67
the central cavity of the neural tube becomes the
a. cerebrum
b. mid-brain
c. cranial cavity
d. ventricles of the brain
e. epidural space
ventricles of the brain
68
what is formed by closure of neural groove
a. mesonephros
b. mandibular processes
c. neural tube
d. secondary palate
e. somites
neural tube
69
the eyes develop as an evagination from the
a. myelencephalon
b. mesencephalon
c. neural crest cells
d. diencephalon
e. telencephalon
diencephalon
70
the olfactory bulbs and nerves develop as an evagination from the
a. myelencephalon
b. mesencephalon
c. neural crest cells
d. diencephalon
e. telencephalon
telencephalon
71
which of the following structures originates as an evagination from the fllor of the pharynx, moves into the neck, and loses its connection with the pharynx
a. pancreas
b. thyroid gland
c. adrenal medulla
d. adenohypophysis
e. parathyroid glands
thyroid gland
72
which gland is formed by an evagination from the floor of the diencephalon
a. anterior pituitary gland
b. posterior pituitary gland
c. thyroid gland
d. adrenal glands
e. pancreas
posterior pituitary gland
73
which gland is derived from both neural crest cells and mesoderm
a. anterior pituitary gland
b. posterior pituitary gland
c. thyroid gland
d. adrenal glands
e. pancreas
adrenal glands
74
which gland originates as two evaginations from the duodenum
a. anterior pituitary gland
b. posterior pituitary gland
c. thyroid gland
d. adrenal glands
e. pancreas
pancreas
75
which gland develops from an evagination of the ectoderm in the roof of the embryonic oral cavity
a. anterior pituitary gland
b. posterior pituitary gland
c. thyroid gland
d. adrenal glands
e. pancreas
anterior pituitary gland
76
the embryonic heart
a. develops from two endothelial tubes that fuse together
b. consists of four chambers
c. has two atria but only one ventricle
d. doesn't beat until just prior to birth
e. has no passages connecting right side to left side
develops from two endothelial tubes that fuse together
77
the opening that connects the right and left atria in the fetal heart is the
a. interatrial septum
b. septum primum
c. septum secundum
d. foramen ovale
e. foramen rotundum
foramen ovale
78
which of the following statements concerning the embryonic circulatory system is true
a. the heart develops from four endothelial tubes
b. blood vessels form from blood islands
c. an opening in the interatrial septum is called the sinus venosus
d. the bulbus cordis becomes the sinoatrial node (the adult pacemaker)
e. there is an opening in the interventricular septum
blood vessels form from blood islands
79
the lungs develop from
a. somitomeres
b. neural crest cells
c. an evagination from the foregut
d. an evagination from the floor of the diencephalon
e. an invagination from the hindgut
an evagination from the foregut
80
the adult kidney develops from the
a. pronephros
b. metanephros
c. mesonephros
d. allantois
e. neonephros
metanephros
81
the common junction of the digestive, urinary, and genital systems is the
a. cloaca
b. coelom
c. allantois
d. hindgut
e. anus
cloaca
82
which of the following sequences is correct
a. mesonephros, pronephros, metanephros
b. metanephros, pronephros, mesonephros
c. pronephros, mesonephros, metanephros
d. pronephros, metanephros, mesonephros
e. mesonephros, metanephros, pronephros
pronephros, mesonephros, metanephros
83
the first functional kidney is the
a. mesonephros
b. pronephros
c. allantois
d. bulbos cordis
e. urorectal septum
mesonephros
84
the gonads appear as the
a. paramesonephrons
b. urogenital folds
c. labioscrotal swellings
d. gonadal ridges
e. gonadal grooves
gonadal ridges
85
cryptorchidism
a. is the failure of the testes to descend into the scrotal sac
b. may be due to excessive amounts of testosterone in the fetus
c. has no effect on fertility
d. results in feminization of the male fetus
e. is the lack of testes
is the failure of the testes to descend into the scrotal sac
86
if neither testosterone nor mullerian-inhibiting hormone is secreted during embryonic development
a. the paramesonephric duct system degenerates
b. thye mesonephric duct system is stimulated
c. internally female reproductive structures form
d. the individual appears as a male
e. internally male reproductive structures form
internally female reproductive structives form
87
the male and female reproductive systems begin as an indifferent stage. if testosterone is present, which of the following occurs
a. the paramesonephric duct forms the vagina
b. the mesonephric ducts form the ductus deferens
c. the mesonephric ducts atrophy
d. the paramesonephric ducts enlarge to form the scrotum
e. the paramesonephric duct atrophies
the mesonephric ducts form the ductus deferens
88
in females, the genital tubercle becomes the
a. uterus
b. ovary
c. clitoris
d. vagina
e. labia
clitoris
89
in males, the urogenital folds close over the urogenital openings and the urethral groove to form the
a. scrotum
b. testes
c. vas deferens
d. penis
e. prostate gland
penis
90
the testes leave the abdominal cavity and reach the scrotum by passing through the
a. urogenital opening
b. inguinal canal
c. cloaca
d. urethra
e. Wolffian ducts
inguinal canal
91
an embryo becomes a fetus about
a. 14 days after fertilization
b. 30 days after fertilization
c. 60 days after fertilization
d. 3 months after fertilization
e. 6 months after fertilization
60 days after fertilization
92
the major difference between an embryo and a fetus is that
a. a fetus can survive outside the mother's womb but an embryo cannot
b. a fetus is smaller than an embryo
c. organ systems are developing in an embryo while all organs are present in a fetus
d. a fetus is a male child while an embryo is a female child
e. none of the above
organ systems are developing in an embryo while all organs are present in a fetus
93
fine, soft hair that covers the fetus is called
a. lanugo
b. fetal hair
c. colostrum
d. vernix caseosa
e. primary hair
lanugo
94
the waxy coat of sloughed epithelial cells that covers the fetus is called
a. lanugo
b. fetal hair
c. colostrum
d. vernix caseosa
e. primary hair
vernix caseosa
95
the type of fetal monitoring that uses sound waves to visualize the developing fetus is
a. fetoscopy
b. untrasound
c. amniocentesis
d. chorionic villi sampling
e. auscultation
ultrasound
96
an infant forn with a gestational age of 254 days (36 weeks) would be considered
a. premature
b. normal maturity
c. postmature
d. immature
e. none of the above
premature
97
one of the major problems as a premature infant may develop is respiratory distress syndrome. this occurs because in a premature infant
a. oxygen transport is impaired
b. surfactant isn't produced
c. the lungs are collapsed
d. there aren't enough RBCs to carry oxygen
e. there is mixing of the arterial and venous blood
surfactant isn't produced (increases surface area)
98
the birth process is called
a. micturition
b. gastrulation
c. organogenesis
d. parturition
e. expulsion
parturition
99
the stage of labor in which the fetus is expelled is
a. first
b. second
c. third
d. fourth
e. fifth
the second stage
100
which of the following events near the end of pregnancy might indicate parturition is near
a. the cervix gradually constricts
b. the uterus begins regular contractions
c. the amniotic sac becomes edematous
d. the fetal heart rate increases to greater than 160 beats per min
e. the cervix skrinks
the uterus begins regular contractions
101
which of the following is correctly matched
a. first stage of labor - baby exits the vagina
b. second stage of labor - ends with cervix dilation to maximum
c. third stage of labor - placenta expelled from uterus
third stage of labor - placenta expelled from uterus
102
before parturition
a. the placenta secretes increased amounts of oxytocin
b. the uterus stretches, causing the release of ACTH from the adenohypophysis
c. there is an increase in the stimulatory effects of progesterone on the uterine muscle
d. prostaglandin synthesis is inhibited
e. fetal glucocorticoids decrease the production of progesterone by the placenta
fetal glucocorticoids decrease the production of progesterone by the placenta
103
onset of labor may result from
a. increased estrogen secretion by the placenta
b. increased glucocorticoid secretion by the mother
c. increased secretion of oxytocin by the fetus
d. increased progesterone secretion by the placenta
e. decreased prostaglandins
increased estrogen secretion by the placenta
104
which of the following conditions might result in stress on a fetus that has nearly completed 9 months of fetal development
a. placental growth greater than fetal growth
b. cramped quarters in the uterus
c. increased O2 supply to the fetus
d. excessive weight gain by the mother
e. hormone fluctuations
cramped quarters in the uterus
105
which of the following will cause contractions of uterine smooth muscle
a. increasing levels of progesterone
b. decreasing levels of estrogen
c. decreasing levels of oxytocini
d. decreasing uterinie stretch
e. increasing levels of oxytocin
increasing levels of oxytocin
106
when stretch receptors in the cervix are stimulated by the continually increasing pressure of the fetus, afferent neurons send impulses to the maternal hypothalamus resulting in
a. increased estrogen production
b. increased oxytocin production
c. increased fetal CRH production
d. increased growth in the size of the placenta
e. decreased oxytocin production
increased oxytocin production
107
which of the following fetal shunts connects the umbilical vein with the inferior vena cava
a. ductus arteriosus
b. umbilical vein
c. umbilical artery
d. ductus venosus
e. foramen ovale
ductus venosus
108
in fetal circulation, the blood containing the highest amount of oxygen is found in the
a. aorta
b. umbilical vein
c. ductus arteriosus
d. umbilical arteries
e. heart
umbilical vein
109
which of the following fetal shunts bypasses the fetal lungs
a. ductus arteriosus
b. ductus venosus
c. umnilical arteries
d. umbilical vein
e. ductus byosus
ductus arteriosus
110
the closed foramen ovale becomes the ____ after birth
a. fossa ovalis
b. ligamentum ovale
c. legamentum venosum
d. legamentum arteriosum
e. valves
fossa ovalis
111
which of the following is mismatched
a. foramen ovale - ligamentum ovale
b. ductus arteriosus - ligamentum arteriosus
c. ductus venosus - ligamentum venosus
d. umbilical vein - ligamentum teres of the liver
e. umbilical arteries - cords of umbilical arteries
foramen ovale - lifamentum ovale
112
a patent ductus arteriosus means that the ______ did not close
a. intraatrial septum
b. intracentricular septum
c. connection between the pulmonary trunk and the aorta
d. connection between the inferior vena cava and the abdominal aorta
e. umbilical arteries and veins
connection between the pulmonary trunk and the aorta
113
which of the following statements concerning the digestive system of a newborn is true
a. the infant may lose 15% to 20% of his body weight in the first week
b. the pH of the stomach is nearly neutral, but increases in acidity after birth
c. the liver of the newborn is functionally mature
d. the ability to digest lactose does not occur until 48 hours after birth
e. all foods can be digested at birth
the pH of the stomach is nearly neutral, but increases in acidity after birth
114
the greenish discharge from the lower digestive tract shortly after birth is called
a. colostrum
b. jaundice
c. bile
d. meconium
e. prolactih
meconium
115
an APGAR score of _____ is considered normal at 1-5 minutes after birth
a. 2
b. 5
c. 9
d. 12
e. 25
9
116
APGAR scores are used to
a. evaluate a newborn's weight
b. asses a newborn's physiological condition
c. measure a newborn's genetic state
d. determine the developmental age of the infant
e. measure the infant
assess a newborn's physiological condition
117
most congenital birth defects are caused by
a. inherited traits
b. lack of oxygen to the fetus
c. viral infections during pregnancy
d. unknown causes
e. none of the above
unknown causes
118
alcohol ingestion by a pregnant woman can cause birth defects in her baby; alcohol is a(an)
a. carcinogen
b. mutagen
c. teratogen
d. oncogene
e. haptogen
teratogen
119
the hormone(s) responsible for preparinig the breasts for lactation during pregnancy is (are)
a. estrogen
b. progesterone
c. oxytocin
d. prolactin
e. both estrogen and progesterone
both estrogen and progesterone
120
the hormone responsible for milk production is
a. estrogen
b. progesterone
c. oxytocin
d. prolactin
e. FSH
prolactin
121
which of the following is involved in stimulating milk letdown
a. increased estrogen levels
b. increased progesterone levels
c. mechanical stimulation of the breasts that cause release of oxytocin
d. secretion of a small amount of milk
e. none of the above
mechanical stimulation of the breasts that cause release of oxytocin
122
colostrum differs from milk in that it contains
a. little fat
b. no antibodies
c. more protein
d. more lactose
e. more fat
little fat
123
an infant who has just started cooing and gurgling in response to smiles and attention from its parents is about _____ months old
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
e. 10
4
124
which of the following characterizes the developmental age of an eight month old infant
a. sits without support
b. rolls from its back to its side
c. smiles in response to people's faces
d. pulls itself up to standing position
e. none of the above
sits without support
125
neonate is the term used to refer to a baby
a. in the 24-48 hours preceding birth
b. in the 24-48 hours after birth
c. during the first month after birth
d. during the first 6 months after birth
e. during the first year after birth
during the first month after birth
126
the earliest period of prenatal development is the _____ period
a. embryonic
b. neonatal
c. germinal
d. infant
e. fetal
germinal
127
the onset of puberty is considered to be the beginning of which life stage
a. early childhood
b. late childhood
c. adolescence
d. young adult
e. middle age
adolescence
128
many of the emotional characteristics of a person are formed during
a. infancy
b. early childhood
c. adolescence
d. adulthood
e. neonatal period
early childhood
129
the onset of puberty is signaled by
a. a growth spurt
b. emotional upheaval
c. attainment of full adult stature
d. the ability to obtain a drivers license
e. a halt to growth
a growth spurt
130
puberty in females occurs _____ than in males
a. earlier
b. later
c. at the same time
earlier
131
muscle strength peaks in a(n)
a. child
b. adolescent
c. young adult
d. middle aged adult
e. elderly adult
young adult
132
which of the following is NOT a change associated with aging
a. loss of neurons
b. loss of skeletal and cardiac muscle tissue
c. decreased cross-linking of collagen
d. decreased ability of the lens in the eye to accomodate
e. arteriosclerosis
decreased cross-linking of collagen
133
a clot or plaque which forms on the inside of blood vessel walls is called a(n)
a. sclerosis
b. arteriosus
c. thrombus
d. emolus
e. plaque
thrombus
134
increased lipid deposits in the tunica intima of large arteries is called
a. atherosclerosis
b. arteriosclerosis
c. a thrombus
d. an emnolus
e. harding of the arteries
atherosclerosis
135
decreased renal filtration that occurs with aging can be the result of
a. increased respiratory effort
b. decreased cardiac output
c. increased fluid volume
d. decreased ADH secretion
e. decreased peripheral resistance
decreased cardiac output
136
premature aging is called
a. progeria
b. lactation
c. purturition
d. Alzhimer's disease
e. dementia
progeria
137
which of the following vitamins are thought to play a role in decreasing the physiologival changes in aging
a. vitamins A and B12
b. vitamins A and B6
c. vitamins E and C
d. vitamins A and D
e. vitamins A and K
vitamins E and C
138
many gerontologist refer to walking as one of the most important anti-aging activities to prolong life. this is because a daily 30-min walk
a. increases blood pressure
b. improves circulation
c. promotes anaerobic metabolism
d. increases urine output
e. increases peripheral resistance
improves circulation
139
autoimmune diseases such as arthritis becomes more common as people get older. "autoimmune" means that the immune system
a. no longer produces antibodies
b. destroys the body's own tissues
c. is incapable of initiating phagocytosis
d. produces T cells but no B cells
e. protects itself
destroys the body's own tissues
140
one reason for the increased incidence of cancer with aging is a decrease in
a. urine output
b. cardiac output
c. RBCs
d. functioning of T lymphocytes
e. functioning neutrophils
functioning of T lymphocytes
141
one component of brain death is defined as
a. loss of reflexes
b. lack of spontaneous movement
c. a flat elextroencephalogram (EEG)
a flat electroencephalogram (EEG)
