lab exam 1 Flashcards
1
Q
what is the blood volume of an average-size adult male
A
5-6 liters
2
Q
what is the blood volume of an average-size adult female
A
4-5 liters
3
Q
what determines whether blood is bright red or a dull brick red
A
the amount of oxygen being carried
4
Q
what is the most numerous leukocyte
A
neutrophil
5
Q
name the 3 granulocytes
A
neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils
6
Q
anucleate formed element, also known as erythrocyte
A
red blood cells (RBC)
7
Q
name the 3 phagocytic leukocytes
A
monocytes, neutrophils, and eosinophil
8
Q
name the agranulocytes (2)
A
lymphocyte, monocyte
9
Q
the precursor cell of platelets
A
megakaryocyte
10
Q
cell fragments
A
platelets
11
Q
involved in destroying parasitic worms
A
eosinophil
12
Q
releases histamine; PROMOTES inflammation
A
basophil
13
Q
produces antibodies
A
lymphocyte
14
Q
transports oxygen
A
RBCs
15
Q
primarily water, noncellular; the fluid matrix of blood
A
plasma
16
Q
exits a blood vessel to develop into a macrophage
A
monocyte
17
Q
the five types of white blood cells
A
Never - Neutrophil
Let - Lymphocytes
Monkeys - Monocytes
Eat - Eosinophil
Bananas - Basophil
18
Q
Blood pathologies: abnormal increase in the number of WBCs
A
leukocytosis
19
Q
Blood pathologies: abnormal increase in the number of RBCs
A
polycythemia
20
Q
Blood pathologies: condition of too few RBCs or of RBCs with hemoglobin deficiencies
A
anemia
21
Q
Blood pathologies: abnormal decrease in the number of WBCs
A
leukopenia
22
Q
why is a differential WBC count more valuable than a total WBC count when trying to determine the specific source of pathology
A
this is because the differential count shows signs/signals of infection
(neutrophil vs eosinophil vs lymphocyte vs monocytes vs basophil)
23
Q
discuss the effect of each of the following factors on RBC count.
long-term effect of athletic training (for example, running 4-5 miles per day over a period of 6-9 months)
A
RBC count will increase because an anthlete would need more oxygen to fuel their larger muscles
24
Q
discuss the effect of each of the following factors on RBC count.
a permanent move from sea level to a high-altitude area
A
increase RBC count because there will be less oxygen at a high altitude, resulting in a need for more RBC to transport the necessary amount of oxygen
25
define hematocrit
the volume percentage of RBC in 100 ml of blood
26
if you had a high hematocrit, would you expect your hemoglobin determination to be high or low, why
high, because hematocrit is the percentage of blood made up of RBC, which include hemoglobin
27
what is an anticoagulant
a substance used to prevent/treat blood clots. blood thinner
28
name 2 anticoagulants used in conducting the hematologic tests
heparin and sodium citrate
29
what is the body's natural anticoagulant
heparin
30
if your blood agglutinates with anti-A but not anti-B sera, your ABO blood type would be
to what ABO blood groupd could you donate blood
from which ABO donor types could you receive blood
A; A and AB; A
31
which ABO blood type is most common
O
32
which ABO blood type is least common
AB
33
what blood type is theoretically considered the universal donor and why
O; it lacks anti-A, anti-B, and anti-Rh antibodies
34
assume the blood of two patients has been typed for ABO blood type
Mr. Adams:
blood drop anti-A serum: no aggulation
blood drop anti-B serum: aggulation
Mr. Calhoon:
blood drop anti-A serum: no aggulation
blood drop anti-B serum: no aggulation
what blood type are each of these individuals
Mr. Adams has type B
Mr. Calhoon has type O-
35
explain why an Rh-negative person does not have a transfution reaction on the first exposure to Rh-postitive blood but DOES have a reaction on the second exposure
on the first exposure there are no anti-Rh antibodies, but the exposure causes anti-Rh antibodies to start forming, causeing a reaction on the second exposure
36
physioEx 11 - act 1
percentage of RBCs in a sample of whole blood
hematocrit
37
physioEx 11 - act 1
lower than normal hematocrit
anemia
38
physioEx 11 - act 1
higher than normal hematocrit
polycythemia
39
physioEx 11 - act 1
consists of WBCs, thin white layer, lies between the heavier RBC layer and lighter yellow plasma
buffy coat
40
physioEx 11 - act 1
men's hematocrit tends to be _____ than women's, with men around _____, and women around _____
higher; 42-52%; 37-47%
41
physioEx 11 - act 1
patient hematocrit in Denver
higher hematocrit, higher altitude, RBCs must carry more oxygen
42
physioEx 11 - act 1
patient hematocrit in Boston
lower hematocrit
43
physioEx 11 - act 2
antigens that determine a person's blood type
agglutinogens
44
physioEx 11 - act 2
antibodies that react with the antigens present on the transfused cells
agglutinins
45
physioEx 11 - act 2
most important when considering transfutions
ABO and Rh antigens
46
physioEx 11 - act 2
found preformed in the blood plasma
antibodies
47
physioEx 11 - act 2
why is AB+ the universal recipient for blood transfusion
they have both A & B antigens on the surface of their RBCs, and their blood serum does not contain antibodies against A, B, or Rh antigens
48
physioEx 11 - act 2
cause the most vigorous and potentially fatal reactions
ABO & Rh agglutinogens
49
physioEx 11 - act 2
agglutination results/indicates (3)
results in potentially life-threatening blood transfusion reaction
results in RBC lysis
indicates the presences of an agglutinogen
50
paternity test
ABO blood groups ------> Alleles
O ---------------> O/O
A ---------------> A/A or A/O
B ---------------> B/B or B/O
AB ---------------> A/B
Rh+ ---------------> D/d or D/D
Rh- ---------------> d/d
51
hemolytic disease of the newborn
mother Rh-
fetus Rh+
1st child no risk
2nd child risk
52
virtual microscopy
neutrophil
many nuclei
53
virtual microscopy
lymphocyte
nucleus fills whole cell
54
virtual microscopy
erythrocyte
RBCs
55
virtual microscopy
platelets
faded fragments within the matrix
56
models of the heart, veins, and arteries
see notes
57
in the route of blood flow, list which structures are deoxygenated blood and oxygenated blood
right atrium, openings of the vena cava, right AV valve, right ventricle, pulmonary semilunar valve, pulmonary trunk, pulmonary veins, left atrium, left AV valve, left ventricle, aortic semilunar valve
deoxygenated blood (6): openings of the vena cava, right artium, right AV valve, right ventricle, pulmonary semilunar valve, pulmonary trunk
oxygenated blood: pulmonary veins, left atrium, left AV valve, left ventricle, aortic semilunar valve
58
list the correct sequence in which blood flows through the following structures of the heart
left atrium, aorta, right atrium, pulmonary vein, inferior vena cava, left ventricle, right ventricle, pulmonary semilunar valve, right atrioventricular valve (tricuspid)
1. inferior vena cava
2. right atrium
3. right atrioventricular valve
4. right ventricle
5. pulmonary semilunar valve
6. pulmonary vein
7. left atrium
8. left ventricle
9. aorta
59
the sinoartrial or SA node is also knwon as the _______ of the heart. once a muscle action potential is initiated by the SA node, the impulse spreads out over both _____, causing them to contract. the action potential is then conducted from the SA node through the ______ node, which then passes along the ______ Bundle. the conduction system then splits into the right and left ______ _______ and finally continues to the Purkinje fibers and the ventricles contract
pacemaker; atria; AV; AV; bundle branches
60
circulatory exchange between mother and fetus
the ______ transports blood rich in oxygen from the mother to the fetus
umbilical vein
61
circulatory exchange between mother and fetus
the _________ returns deoxygenated fetal blood to the placenta
umbilical arteries
62
circulatory exchange between mother and fetus
the _______ is the site of oxygen, nutrient, and waste exchange between fetal and maternal blood
placenta
63
circulatory exchange between mother and fetus
the ___________ is the vessel which connects the pulmonary artery with the aorta, bypassing the fetal lungs; it also atrophies after birth
ductus arteriousus
64
circulatory exchange between mother and fetus
the ___________ is the vessel which permits most blood to bypass the liver, and atrophies after birth
ductus venosus
65
circulatory exchange between mother and fetus
what is the role of the foremen ovale in the fetus
allows blood flow to bypass the lungs
66
define pulse
the alternating surges of pressure in an artery that occur with each contraction and relaxation of the left ventricle
67
describe the procedure to take pulse
place index and middle fingers on the inside of your wrist below base of thumb (radial side)
press lightly to feel your pulse - count beats for 1 min
68
identify the artery palpated at each of the pressure points
wrist
radial artery
69
identify the artery palpated at each of the pressure points
dorsum of the foot
dorsalis pedis
70
identify the artery palpated at each of the pressure points
anterior to the ear (temple region)
superficial temporal
71
identify the artery palpated at each of the pressure points
side of the neck
common carotid
72
under which of these circumstances would counting the pulse for 15 seconds and multiplying by 4 be inaccurate
if the pulse is slow
if the pulse is rapid
if there is background noise
if the pulse is irregular
if the pulse is irregular
73
what does diastolic blood pressure represent
the pressure of blood against the wall of the brachial artery when the ventricles relax
74
view notes to identify waves and interals of an EKG
P wave (atrial depolarization)
T wave (ventricular repolarization)
QRS complex (ventricular depolarization)
Q
R
S
P-R interval
Q-T interval
75
the period of time in which the ventricles of the heart are filling with blood while the myocardium is relaxed is
the diastolic phase
76
the QRS wave of the electrocardiogram represents
ventricular depolarization
77
an implanted electronic pacemaker serves to augment or replace the normal functioning of the
SA node
78
what is an electrocardiogram
the graphic recording of the electrical changes occuring during the cardiac cycle
79
view notes to identify the different EKG readings
normal sinus rhythm
sinus tachycardia
atrial fibrillation
ventricular fibrillation
sinus bradycardia
80
what heart actions correspond with each sound
lub - beginning of ventriculart contraction (systole)
dup - closure of the semilunar valves following ventricular systole
81
how is pulse rate expressed
bpm - beats per minute
82
korotkoff
sound of the heart
83
what can a widened pulse pressure indicate
deteriorating cardiovasculart health
hypertention
84
physioEx 6 act 3
organisms that usually maintain the internal body temperatures in spite of encironmental temperature changes
homeothermic
85
physioEx 6 act 3
general name for the process that maintains the internal body temperature in humans
homeostasis
86
physioEx 6 act 3
electrolytes in a Ringer's solution are required to provide ____________
autorhythmicity
87
physioEx 6 act 3
internal body temperature that is above the normal range
hyperthermic
88
physioEx 6 act 3
increased temp = increased HR
decreased temp = decreased HR
89
physioEx 6 act 3
with no Ringer's solution -----> spontaneous cardiac action potentials ________
would not occur
90
physioEx 6 act 4
acetylcholine is released by _____________, which affects the ______
PNS parasympthetic nervous system; heart
91
physioEx 6 act 4
what do you call a cholinergic drug that worked the same as acetylcholine
an agonist, decrease heart rate
92
physioEx 6 act 4
how does norepinephrine affect heart rate
it increases the rate of depolarization and increases the frequency of action potentials
93
physioEx 6 act 4
3-1 adrenergic binds norepinephrine and epinephrine
94
physioEx 6 act 4
example of an acetylcholine agonist
pilocarpine digitalis; decreases HR (decreased AP's)
95
physioEx 6 act 4
example of an acetylcholine antagonist
atropine epinephrine; increases HR (mimic sympathetic nervous system)
96
physioEx 6 act 4
as force of contraction ______ the HR in individuals ______ with weakened hearts
increases; decreases
97
pericardial sac
98
epicardium
thin, transparent, outer layer
99
myocardium
muscle layer
100
endocardium
inner lining of myocardium
101
auricle of right atrium
102
right atrium
103
openings of the vena cava
superior vena cava
inferior vena cava
104
right AV valve
tricuspid
105
right ventricle
106
chordae tendinae
107
pipillary muscles
108
pulmonary semilunar valve
109
pulmonary trunk
110
pulmonary veins
111
auricle of left atrium
112
left atrium
113
left AV valve
bicuspid
114
left ventricle
115
aortic semilunar valve
116
interventricular septum
