Ch13 Imaging and Angiography Flashcards

(45 cards)

1
Q

What is the orbito-meatal line?

A

A line from the lateral canthus of the eye to the EAM (aka Towne’s view)

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2
Q

What are the Hounsfield units of air, water and dense bone?

A

-1000, 0 and +1000 respectively. Remember that Hounsfield units are a measure of attenuation so no attenuation (air) has negative valves.

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3
Q

What are the Hounsfield units of disc and theca on spinal CT?

A

Disc is 2x that of the theca The theca is 30 and disc is 60.

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4
Q

What are the Hounsfield units of acute blood?

A

60-80

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5
Q

How is a CT perfusion acquired?

A

Areas of interest in the 3 different vascular territories (ACA, MCA, PCA) are selected from a non-enhanced CT. Contrast is then given and scans are repeated at intervals through that slab (2 cm thick). The CBV, CBF, MTT and TTP can be calculated. In stroke the MTT is increased and the CBF is decreased.

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6
Q

What is a Diamox challenge?

A

After an initial CT-perfusion a Diamox (acetazolamide) challenge is performed (1 g) and a scan is repeated after 10 minutes. This acts as a vasodilator and the change in the parameters indicates the extent to which the stenosis resulting in ischaemia is compensated already by vasodilation.

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7
Q

What are the 3 responses to a Diamox challenge?

A

1 - Normal CBF that increases after Diamox 2 - Decreased CBF that increases after Diamox (i.e. retained reserve) 3 - Decreased CBF that does not increase or falls further after Diamox (i.e. no reserve) as a result of a steal phenomenon. **These patients are the ones that will benefit from cerebral revascularisation.

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8
Q

What is the action of carbonic anhydrase?

A

Converts Co2 + H20 to HCO3- and H+ and vice versa. The action of acetazolamide inhibits this. There is a build-up of H+ (acid) which cause vasodilation.

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9
Q

What is bright on T1?

A

Fat, contrast, melanin and subacute blood. Hence WM is brighter as the myelin contains fat.

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10
Q

What is the best sequence for detecting SAH on MRI?

A

FLAIR

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11
Q

How long must breastfeeding be interrupted after gadolinium administration?

A

48 hours

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12
Q

When did aneurysm clips become non-ferrous (MRI safe)?

A

1990

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13
Q

What is the risk of analphylaxis with gadolinium?

A

1 in 1000

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14
Q

What is a potential complication of using Gad in patients with renal failure?

A

Nephrogenic systemic fibrosis - fibrosis of skin, joints and other organs.,

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15
Q

What is a DWI : PWI mismatch?

A

Where is there is a difference between the diffusion weighted (infarcted) and perfusion weighted (ischaemic penumbra) images. This identifies salvageable brain.

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16
Q

What are the peaks on MR Spectroscopy?

A
  1. 5 Myoinostitol
  2. 2 Choline
  3. 0 Creatinine
  4. 0 NAA
  5. 3 Lactate
  6. 0 Lipid
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17
Q

What MR Spectroscopy changes are seen in gliomas?

A

High Cho:Cr ratio (note the higher the Cho the higher the grade)

Low NAA

Higher lactate and lipid peaks

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18
Q

What is suggested by Low NAA with normal Cho:Cr ratio?

A

MS plaque

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19
Q

What does a large inositol MR Spectroscopy peak suggest?

A

Haemangiopericytoma > Meningioma

20
Q

What is the distinction between the centrum semiovale, corona radiata and internal capsule?

A

WM above the lateral ventricles - centrum semiovale

Below ventricles above the putamen - corona radiata

Level of the putamen and GP - internal capsule

21
Q

How is a bone scan performed (SPECT)?

A

Tc-99 label attached to phosphorous which accumulates in areas of increased osteoblastic activity. Used to identify occult sources of infection, bone tumours, Paget’s disease, fractures and pain generators.

22
Q

What are the MR imaging features of an early infarction?

A

Low ADC, Bright on DWI, Low CBF, Low MTT and Low CBV

Note: the ischaemic penumbra will have a low CBF and high CBV. This mismatch suggests mechanical thrombectomy will be beneficial.

23
Q

What is NAA?

A

N-acetyl aspartate

Synthesised in the mitochondria of neurones with unknown function.

24
Q

What is Creatinine a marker of in MR spectroscopy?

A

Metabolic activity

25
What is Choline a marker of in MR spectroscopy?
Cell turnover (found in cell membranes)
26
What is lactiate a marker of in MR spectroscopy?
Anaerobic metabolism (necrotic tumours that have outgrown their blood supply)
27
What is myoinositol a marker of in MR spectroscopy?
It is a sugar found exclusively in glial cells. It is therefore a marker of glial proliferation.
28
What are the diffusion characteristics of an epidermoid?
High DWI and iso ADC compared to the surrounding gray matter
29
How does the restriction patter differ between HGGs and abscesses?
If HGGs the restriction is patchy and DWI is high in the ring-enhancing border and low within the lesion. ADC is high. For abscess, the whole lesion is bright on DWI.
30
What is the radiation source for LINAC e.g. cyberknife, GK and Proton beam?
LINAC = Tungsten target \> X-rays GK = Cobolt-60 decay \> Gamma rays Proton beam = Cyclotron \> Protons
31
In radiotherapy, what is the difference between the clinical target volume, the planning target volume and systematic target volume?
Clinical TV = the volume that is treated with a high dose Planning TV = the volume treated to ensure the CTV is always treated and includes errors and motion compensation Systematic TV = margin added to CTV to account for systematic errors arising from treatment planning
32
What is the Bragg peak?
The deposit of a disproportionate amount of energy in the last millimetres of their path
33
What are the 5Rs of radiobiology?
Repair (of normal cells \> tumour cells) Repopulation (normal cells grow back) Reassortment / redistribution (movement of tumour cells into G2 and M-phase which are more radiosensitive) Reoxygenation (tumour cells overcome acute hypoxia, free-radical can increase making tumour DNA damage more effective) Radiosensitivity
34
What can be offered as salvage therapy for recurrent mets (1-3) after WBRT?
SRS
35
What are the comparable hearing, facial and trigeminal nerve injury rates between surgery an SRS?
Hearing preservation better with SRS longer term. Facial and Trigeminal nerve injury \<5%
36
What is the risk of a secondary neoplasm following SRS?
4 in 10,000 (0.04%)
37
What is the risk of hypopituitarism when SRS is used for pituitary adenomas?
\>50%
38
What is the effect of dopamine agonists on the response to SRS in pituitary adenomas?
They reduce the efficacy so should be stopped before SRS!
39
What dose and tumour distance should be maintained from the optic nerve?
Max 8-10 Gy Tumour should be 3-5 mm from the optic nerve
40
How do you treat the solid and cystic components of a recurrent craniopharyngioma?
Solid = radiosurgery Cystic = Ommaya reservoir and aspiration, Bleomycin / interferon-alpha injected into cyst as a sclerosing agent, bracytherapy (phosphorous-32) Radiosurgery given up-front shows improved tumour control rates in children but not adults, so in adults reserve the RT if the solid component grows. For mixed solid and cystic tumours combine SRS with intracystic radioisotope instillation!
41
What is the difference between SRS and proton beam for clival chordomas?
Similar treatment efficacy but proton beam has less damage to the adjacent brain stem due to the Bragg peak effect
42
What is the first-line treatment of choice for glomus jugulare tumours?
Radiotherapy - local control rates 95-100% at 10 years. Stabilisation or reversal of neurological deficit is seen.
43
What SRS dose can be given to the cochlear, optic chiasm, pituitary, facial nerve, brainstem and spinal cord?
Cochlear \<3.7 Gy Optic nerve 8-10 Gy Facial nerve 12-15 Gy Pituitary 15 Gy Spinal cord 50 Gy
44
What does SRS of the anterior limb of the internal capsule bilaterally treat?
OCD! More likely to do DBS to this target
45
What is SRS to the trigeminal nerve done for?
Trigeminal neuralgia Cluster headache (also treated with posterior hypothalamus and ventral tegmentum DBS!)