Ch9 Hematology Flashcards

(46 cards)

1
Q

In ITP was platelet level results in ICH?

A

<30

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2
Q

What is FFP?

A

Plasma separated from RBCs and platelets (contains all coagulation factors)

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3
Q

What is the dose of FFP?

A

10-15ml/kg

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4
Q

What is cryoprecipitate?

A

FFP is thawed and centrifuged. The precipitate contains fibrinogen, VII, VIII and vWF. This is given in DIC therefore. Dose is 25IU/Kg.

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5
Q

What is prothrombin complex concentrate?

A

Derived from FFP. Contains factors 2, 7, 9 and 10 with protein C and protein S

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6
Q

What is the difference between PTCC and FFP in correcting INR?

A

FFP will not correct INR below 1.3.

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7
Q

What are the risks of anticoagulation in a patient with an incidental cerebral aneurysm?

A

Anticoagulation does not increase the rupture risk but does increase the morbidity / mortality should a rupture occur. Consider the PHASES score for rupture risk and if this is outweighed by the thrombosis risk e.g. CHADSVASC2 score.

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8
Q

Can anticoagulation be administered in patients with brain tumours.

A

Studies have found no increased risk of haemorrhage with anticoagulation but patients should be monitored closely.

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9
Q

How do you treat new onset AF within the first 48 hours?

A

Cardioversion

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10
Q

How do you quantify the risk of stroke in a patient with AF?

A

CHADSVASC2 score (a score of 4 equates to 4% risk per year). Warfarin reduces this risk by 2/3 so risk falls from 4% to 1.3% per year. (CHF, HTN, Age, DM, Stroke, Vasc, Sex)

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11
Q

How do you quantify the risk of haemorrhage in patients with anticoagulation?

A

HAS-BLED score ( a score of 3 equates to a 3% risk per 100 patient years but 4 is 10% per 100 patient years). HAS-BLED score is dependent on hypertension, abnormal liver / renal function, stroke, bleeding predisposition, labile INR, Elderly, Drugs.

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12
Q

When can you re-anticoagulate a patient following a craniotomy?

A

2 weeks, although some studies have shown no increase in risk after 3 days

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13
Q

What is the perioperative anticoagulation management of patients at high risk of thromboembolism (e.g, mechanical heart valve)?

A

Stop warfarin 7 days prior to surgery and given bridging therapy with LMWH (based on British Haematology Society guidelines)

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14
Q

What is phytomenadione?

A

Vitamin K (takes 8 hours to restore coagulation factors following warfarin administration)

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15
Q

Is bridging therapy needed for a patient with a CHADS2 score <4 and no stroke within the last 3 months?

A

NO

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16
Q

When should post-op bridging therapy with LWMH be started?

A

48 hours

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17
Q

How do you reverse warfarin for emergency surgery?

A

Follow local guidelines, dried prothrombin complex (octaplex) dose is 30-40 IU/Kg depending on the INR and Vitamin K 5-10 mg should also be given IV!

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18
Q

How do you reverse heparin?

A

50 mg neutralises 5000 U of heparin

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19
Q

How do platelets adhere to collagen?

A

Through the glycoprotein 1b -

20
Q

How long are dual antiplatelets required after cardiac stenting?

A

3 months for bare metal and 1 year for drug eluting

21
Q

What is the function of heparin?

A

Activates antithrombin 3 preventing prothrombin to thrombin and fibrinogen to fibrin

22
Q

What is the action of fondaparinux?

A

Factor Xa inhibitor

23
Q

How does Dabigatran work?

A

Direct thrombin (factor 2a) inhibitor - stop 72 hours prior to surgery

24
Q

How do rivaroxiban, apixiban and edoxahan work?

A

Factor 10a inhibitors - stop 48 hours prior to surgery

25
How does clopidogrel work?
Prevents binding of ADP to the platelet receptor P2Y, this prevents GPIIa/IIIb action of platelet aggregation.
26
How do abciximab and tirofiban work?
GPIIa/IIIb inhibitor
27
What are the causes of a prolonged APTT preoperatively?
Factor deficiency or lupus anticoagulant. Patients with lupus anticoagulant are PROTHROMBOTIC so start LMWH ASAP post-op!
28
Patient has low fibrin and raised d-dimer. What is the diagnosis?
DIC! PT will also be prolonged and platelets will be low.
29
When is a negative d-dimer useful?
When there is a low clinical probability of PE or when there is a nondiagnostic VQ scan
30
What are the 3 main sites of extramedullary haemopoiesis?
Skull (hair on end appearance in thalassaemia) Vertebral bodies Choroid plexus
31
How do you monitor LWMH function?
Factor Xa levels
32
Which drugs increase INR when on warfarin?
Reduced warfarin clearance through CYP450 pathway: Omeprazole Fluoxetine / fluconazole Valproate / Isoniazid Ciprofloxacin Erythromycin / clarithromycin Acute ETOH abuse
33
Which drugs reduce INR when on warfarin?
Phenytoin Carbamazepine Phenobarbital Rifampacin Chronic ETOH
34
What is the action of abciximab and tirofiban ?
Glycoprotein 2a/3b inhibitor preventing platelet activation
35
What is the action of dypridimole?
Adenosine reuptake inhibitor and phosphodiesterase inhibitor which increases cAMP
36
What is the action of protamine?
Protamine binds heparin making it inert. Heparin activates antithrombin III which then binds factor Xa and stops it from forming clots.
37
How do the NOACs work?
Dabigatran is a direct thrombin inhibitor Apixiban / rivaroxiban are direct factor X inhibitors
38
How does desmopressin stop bleeding in vWF deficiency?
By releasing vWF from platelets
39
What is fundaparinux?
Synthetic pentasaccharide that inhibits factor Xa
40
What is the mechanism behind ondine's curve?
Central opiate hypersensitivity in the chemotactic trigger zone of the ventral medulla. This is controlled by the pontine pneumotaxic and apneustic centres.
41
What is Haemophilia A?
Genetic deficiency in Factor 8; If mild treat with Desmopressin. If moderate or severe treat with factor 8 replacement.
42
What is Haemophilia B?
Genetic deficiency of factor 9 Treat with factor 9 replacement.
43
What is the risk of DVT without coagulation in patients with brain mets or glioma?
20%
44
What is the risk of thromboembolism with a metalic mitral valve?
8% per year
45
What is the risk of a fatal PE in a patient with acute ICH?
25% (risk of ICH recurrence is 5% which is lower than the risk of a IVC filter ~50%)
46
What do the CHADSVASC2 and HASBLED scores tell you?
CHADSVASC2 = risk of VTE in a patient with AF HASBLED = all cause of major haemorrhage