Ch14 Electrodiagnostics Flashcards

(39 cards)

1
Q

What are PLEDs?

A

Periodic lateralizing epileptiform discharges - occur with any acute focal cerebral insult. If bilateral then diagnostic of HSE.

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2
Q

What are the features of PLEDs?

A

Lateralising or focal, periodic, polyphasic spikes and sharp waves. Ipsilateral background slowing/reduction of activity.

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3
Q

What is the diagnosis in a patient with jerks that are associates with high voltage discharges every 4-15 seconds?

A

Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (measles)

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4
Q

What is the diagnosis in a patient with myoclonic jerks in association with bilateral sharp waves 2Hz?

A

CJD

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5
Q

What are the frequencies of alpha, beta, delta and theta waves?

A

alpha 8-12Hz, beta >13Hz, delta <4Hz, theta 4-8Hz. Note gamma is >25 Hz

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6
Q

What are the different types of evoked potentials?

A

Somatosensory evoked potential (SSEPs) - stimulation of peripheral nerves

Visual evoked potentials (VEPs) - flashing lights through goggles

Auditory evoked potentials (AEPs) - auditory clicks

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7
Q

What is a significant change in evoked potentials?

A

>10% increase in the latency

Drop in amplitude of >50%

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8
Q

How can intraoperative SSEPs be used to identify the central sulcus?

A

By placing a strip of the motor and sensory cortex and identifying the site of phase reversal

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9
Q

What causes the peaks on BAER?

A

P1 - Eighth nerve

P2 - Cochlear nucleus

P3 - Olivary complex (superior)

P4 - Lateral lemniscus

P5 - Inferior colliculus

Mnemonic = ECOLI

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10
Q

Interpret this UL SSEP

A

Top trace is over central sulcus (C3) - N19 - primary sensory cortex (+ so downward deflection) and P22 is motor cortex (- so upward deflection)

Middle trace is placed over the cervical region and shows activity at the root entry zone.

Bottom trace is with electrode placed over the brachial plexus (Erb’s point) and shows the stimulation passing through the brachial plexus

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11
Q

Interpret this LL SSEP

A

L5-T12 shows activity in the lumbar plexus (positive deflection P22)

Cv7 (cervical electrode) shows activity in the dorsal columns - N27

Cz - shows P40 activity at the sensory cortex

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12
Q

What waveform shows the occipital cortex activation with VERs?

A

P100

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13
Q

Which nerves are typically stimulated with SSEPs?

A

Median, ulnar and tibial nerves

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14
Q

How are MEPs generated?

A

Transcranial stimulation of the motor cortex causing distal motor responses measured with EMG

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15
Q

What are contraindications to MEPs?

A

Epilepsy

Skull defect

Implanted electronic devices

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16
Q

What actions should be performed if there is an intraoperative change in MEPs or SSEPs?

A

Vitale checklist:

1 - Technical considerations (check connections and contacts etc)

2 - Pause surgery and alert anaesthetist

3 - Anaesthetic optimization with MAP, pCO2, temperature and pH corrections. Check drugs administered (paralytics / inhalational agents)

4 - Surgical considerations - Remove retractors / last surgical step when monitoring was lost e.g. remove spinal screw etc or papaverin if vasospasm

5 - Stagnara wake up test if all else fails to normalise IONM

17
Q

What is the Stagnara wake up test?

A

The anaesthetic is weaned intraoperatively to a point where the patient can obey commands such as moving fingers / toes.

18
Q

What are the 3 phases on an EMG study?

A

Insertional activity

Spontaneous activity - muscle at rest

Volitional activity - during muscle activity

19
Q

What are the spontaneous findings on EMG?

A

At rest the EMG should be silent

Sharp waves and fibrillation potentials occur after denervation (>4 weeks)

Myotonic discharges

Complex repetitive discharges (neuropathic / myopathic disorders)

Fasciculation potentials (ALS)

20
Q

What is the difference between fibrillation potentials and fasciculations?

A

Fibrillation potentials are only found with EMG whilst fasciculations are visible.

21
Q

How are motor unit action potentials measured?

A

During EMG volitional activity. Increased amplitude and duration suggests a LMN problem whilst lower amplitudes suggest a muscle disorder.

With minimal effort reduced recruitment suggests neuropathic process whilst increased early recruitment suggests muscle disorder.

22
Q

Why do disc prolapses not affect the SNAP?

A

As the compression is pre-ganglionic and therefore the cell bodies in the DRG are not affected. There is no Wallerian degeneration of the distal sensory nerve.

23
Q

What is the F-wave?

A

Stimulation of a motor nerve also causes antidromic APs which cause the anterior horn to fire and cause a delayed (much smaller amplitude) orthodromic F-wave. This may be delayed in radiculopathy but is not sensitive.

Normal F-wave <33 ms.

24
Q

What is the H-wave?

A

Is a monosynaptic reflex with stimulation of the sensory nerve causing an orthodromic action potential stimulating the gastrocnemius. This is only useful for S1 root and gives the same information as the ankle jerk reflex.

25
What is the triceps surae?
Two head of gastrocnemius and soleus
26
What does volitional activity during EMG tell you?
Recruitment of muscle units. Slowed in neuropathic processes and fast in myopathic processes.
27
What are polyphasic potentials on EMG?
MUAPs with \>4 phases - seen 6-8 weeks after reinnervation begins. These wave as the firing becomes more synchronous.
28
What are the EMG findings in myotonic dystrophy?
Dive bomber sound due to myotonic discharges (which cause sustain contraction of the muscle)
29
What is the role of EMG in radiculopathy?
When there is weakness and further localizing information is needed or when power cannot be reliably assessed (functional overlay). Can identify a peripheral neuropathy e.g. common peroneal palsy with foot drop etc.
30
What levels does EMG cover in the cervical spine?
C5-T1
31
What are the earliest EMG findings with a neuropathy?
Reduced recruitment with volitional activity (after 3 days)
32
What happens to the SNAP with lumbar radiculopathy?
Normal
33
Which muscle is EMG performed in for investigation of foot drop?
Short head of biceps femoris. This is the first muscle supplied by the common peroneal nerve after if branches from the sciatic nerve just above the popliteal fossa. Abnormality in this muscle suggests a more proximal lesion above the popliteal fossa or root lesion.
34
What do large-amplitude fast-firing motor units suggest?
Decreased recruitment and large motor units suggesting reinnervation after chronic radiculopathy i.e. no on-going compression
35
How can plexopathy be distinguished from radiculopathy?
The involvement of paraspinal muscles. The paraspinals are supplied by the dorsal rami which exit proximally so are involved in root compression but not plexopathy.
36
What are the EMG findings with a root avulsion?
Muscle weakness and sensory loss with normal SNAPs (as the lesion is proximal to the DRG)
37
What is the Canterbury grading scale for CTS?
0 - normal 1 - very mild, only detected on two sensitive tests 2 - mild, SNCV \<40 m/s with DML\<4.5 ms 3 - moderate, DML 4.5-6.5 with preserved SNAP 4 - severe, DML 4.5-65 with absent SNAP 5 - very severe, DML\>6.5 with absent SNAP 6 - Absent SNAP with CMAP\<0.2mV
38
What are the sensitive tests required for Grade 1 on the Canterbury scale?
lumbrical/interossei DML comparison Median to ulnar latency comparison or median to radial CV comparison Inching study across the carpal tunnel
39
Comment on these NCS results
DML between 4.5-6.5 with SNAPs present = Moderate CTS on the Canterbury scale