Ch48 Tumours of the skull Flashcards

(36 cards)

1
Q

What features of a bone lesion suggest malignancy?

A

Irregular margins, no sclerosis and multiple lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the most common primary bone tumour of the skull?

A

Osteoma - round sclerotic tumours arising from the outer table of the skull. Hot on bone scans.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is Gardner’s syndrome?

A

Multiple osteomas, colon polyps and soft tissue tumours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the two types of haemangioma?

A

Cavernous and capillary (very rare). Treat with excision or cement vertebroplasty if in the spine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the x-ray / CT appearance of a haemangioma?

A

Trabecular pattern. If radial then has a sunburst appearance. Sclerotic margins in 1/3,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are dermoid / epidermoid cysts?

A

Benign ectodermal inclusion cysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the difference between a teratoma and a dermoid?

A

Teratomas contain 2 or more germ cell layer tissue derivatives e.g. teeth, dermoids only contain ectoderm. Whilst Epidermiods contain squamous epithelium and keratin only.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is this midline lesion?

A

Skull dermoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is this lesion?

A

Langerhans cell histiocytosis

Appears as a punched out lytic lesion skull xray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Where do chodomas arise?

A

Clivus and sacrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What cells are characteristic of a chordoma?

A

Physaliphorous cells (contain intracellular mucin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are chordomas remnants of?

A

Notochord (which normally forms the intervertebral discs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the recurrence rate of chordomas?

A

85% so aggressive radiotherapy or proton beam therapy is employed.

10% metastasise (lung, liver and bone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the MRI features of a chordoma?

A

Bright on T2, dark on T1 and no enhancement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What % of primary bone tumours are chordomas?

A

50%

M>F

Usually sacrococcygeal but can be in C2.

Limited by presacral fascia so do not normally invade the rectum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the treatment for sacrococcygeal chordoma?

A

En-bloc excision (Sacrectomy)

High dose radiotherapy / proton beam more effective

17
Q

What chemotherapy is used for chordomas?

A

Imatinib aka Glivex (tyrosine kinase inhibitor of the mTOR pathway). Stabilises the disease in 70% Ref: Hindi et al 2015

18
Q

What conditions cause diffuse thickening of the skull?

A

Hyperostosis frontalis interna

Fibrous dysplasia

Osteopetrosis

Paget’s disease

19
Q

Diagnosis?

A

Hyperostosis frontalis interna

20
Q

Diagnosis?

A

Fibrous dysplasia

21
Q

Diagnosis?

A

Paget’s disease

22
Q

Diagnosis?

A

Osteopetrosis

23
Q

What is the median survival of a chordoma?

24
Q

What is the classical feature of hyperostosis frontalis interna?

A

The midline bone at the insertion of the falx is spared.

More common in Females (9:1)

Associated with acromegaly, hyperprolactinaemia, hyperphosphataemia and DISH.

25
How do you investigate someone with suspected hyperostosis frontalis interna?
GH / Prolactin / ALP / Ca / Parathyroid levels Skull Xray or CT
26
How is hyperostosis frontalis interna treated?
If needs treating, then excision and cranioplasty
27
What is fibrous dysplasia?
A non-neoplastic condition where bone is replaced with expansile fibrous connective tissue. Risk of malignant transformation \<1%.
28
What sites are commonly affected by fibrous dysplasia?
Skull, face, proximal femur and ribs
29
What is McCune-Albright syndrome?
Polyostosic fibrous dysplasia, precocious puberty and cafe au lait spots
30
What is this X-ray finding?
Shepherd's crook deformity, associated with fibrous dysplasia of the prox femur
31
What are the 3 patterns of involvement of fibrous dysplasia?
1. Mono-ostotic 2. Poly-ostotic 3. Part of McCune Albright syndrome (polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, precious puberty and cafe au lait spots)
32
What are the 3 forms of fibrous dsyplasia?
Cystic, Sclerotic and mixed
33
What are the reasons to treat fibrous dysplasia?
Cranial nerve-related compression (visual loss, diplopia, hearing loss, trigeminal neuralgia and facial weakness) Cosmesis Pathological fractures (long bones / maxilla etc)
34
What imaging studies do you request for fibrous dysplasia?
Skeletal survey, CT head and dental films (OPG)
35
What is the natural history of fibrous dysplasia?
Slow growth which does not usually progress after skeletal maturity is reached so if possible wait until age 10 /12 years before treatment. Rapid growth can occur with GH excess and this should be managed aggressively.
36
What are the medical treatment options for fibrous dysplasia?
Calcitonin Bisphosphonates Treat GH excess