Chapter 14 Common Health Problems of Laboratoy Animals Flashcards
1
Q
Wild-caught animals are likely to carry what kind of ectoparasites?
A
Mites, Ticks, Fleas
2
Q
Fleas do not infect reptiles.
A
False
3
Q
The use of antibiotics that are mainly effective against gram positive organisms should be avoided in guinea pigs.
A
True
4
Q
What are signs of an animal with malocclusion?
A
- Wetness of the chin and forepaws
- Weight loss
- Excess salivation
5
Q
An early sign of infestation with mites, ticks, and fleas is:
A
Excess scratching
6
Q
What is the common name for a gastic trichobezoar?
A
Hairball
7
Q
How is rabies most often transmitted?
A
Bite from an infected animal
8
Q
Once clinical signs are observed, rabies is almost always fatal>
A
True
9
Q
Among all animals used in research, which are at the greatest risk for contracting rabies?
A
Wild-caught animals
10
Q
Treatment for diarrhea often includes anticholinergic and antisecretory drugs.
A
True
11
Q
What clinical signs would suggest that young mice may have epizootic diarrhea of infant mice (EDIM)?
A
Yellow stains around the base of the tail
12
Q
Which system is primarily affected by Mycoplasma pulmonis?
A
Respiratory
13
Q
Idiopathic ulcerative dermatitis is caused by protozoan infestation.
A
False, the exact cause has not been determined
14
Q
Heliobacter spp. are most commonly diagnosed with which technique?
A
Polymerase chain reaction.
15
Q
All pinworm infections in rodents can be detected by the anal tape test.
A
False
16
Q
What are the characteristics of epizootic diarrhea of infant mice (EDIM) that could affect research results?
A
Reduced weight gain
Greater susceptibility to other infections
Increased mortality
17
Q
Which agent has been identified as the cause of scaly skin disease in athymic nude mice?
A
Corynebacterium bovis
18
Q
An immunodeficient mouse that has contracted mouse noroviurs may have pneumonia, hepatits, and meningitis.
A
True
19
Q
Infection with Mycoplasma pulmonis can result in a severe head tilt.
A
True
20
Q
Mouse parvovirus causes severe diarrhea.
A
False, it is always subclinical
21
Q
B57BL/6 and B57BL/10 mice are the strains most likely to be affected by idiopathic ulcerative dermatitis.
A
True
22
Q
Although rarely seen anymore, Mycoplasma pulmonis can be exacerbated by stress due to overcrowding.
A
True
23
Q
The most common method used to detect the presence of mouse hepatitis virus (MHV) in a colony is serology testing of sentinels and colony animals.
A
True
24
Q
Adult mice infected with epizootic diarrhea of infant mice (EDIM) have watery, yellow stools.
A
False
25
Mice infected by the mouse hepatitis virus:
Can cause diarrhea and death in infant mice
The infection can contaminate cell lines and transplantable tumors
Most outbreaks are hard to recognize because the animals show no clear clinical signs
26
Sialodarcyoadenitis is which type of virus
Coronavirus
27
Characteristics of Mouse parvovirus:
It can remain present in the animal's tissues as a latent infection
It is not easily eliminated from a colony by cessation of breeding
Embryo rederivation is the preferred method of eliminating the virus from a colony.
28
The female Syphacia pinworm lays its eggs on the perineum: the Aspiculuris tetraptera lays its eggs in the animal's colon.
True
29
Mycoplasma pulmonis is rarely seen among laboratory rats.
True
30
Pinworm eggs are easy to destroy by chemicals or dessication.
False
31
Helicobacter hepaticus causes inflammatory bowel disease in SCID mice.
False, Helicobacter bilus causes inflammatory bowel disease in SCID mice.
32
Syphacia spp. can be detected by finding eggs on the perineum of the affected animal
True
33
Bacterial pneumonia in guinea pigs is often associated with Bordetella bronchiseptica and Streptococcus pneumoniae.
True
34
Sore nose in gerbils is caused by which kind of pathogen?
Bacteria
35
Which is the best method of preventing bumblefoot?
Use a clean, dry substrate.
36
What causes coccidiosis?
Protozoa
37
Pododermatitis is also known by what name?
Bumblefoot
38
What is the best method of controlling pasturellosis in rabbits?
Purchase Pasturella-free rabbits
39
Pasteurellosis is spread by which routes of transmission?
- Aerosol
| - Direct contact
40
Increased porphyrin secretions from the Harderian glands or high humidity causes what problem in gerbils?
Nasal dermatitis
41
Tyzzer's disease is effectively treated with sulfa drugs.
False
42
Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus (LCMV) is a zoonotic organism found in mice and hamsters.
True
43
What is the best way to prevent canine distemper in ferrets?
Vaccination
44
What are clinical signs associated with Aleutian disease in ferrest?
- Weight loss
- Tremors
- Lethargy
45
How does aplastic anemia develop in female ferrets?
If intact females are not allowed to breed, estrogen levels remain high and the imbalance affects the bone marrow.
46
In which organ of the body are insulinomas found in ferrets?
Pancreas
47
Where are Dirofilaria immitis (heartworms) found in a dog's body?
Right atrium and pulmonary artery
48
Canine parvovirus is an acute infection affecting which part of the gastrointestinal system?
Small intestine
49
How is heartworm infection spread?
Mosquitoes
50
What can contribute to the development of infectious tracheobronchitits in dogs?
- High density indoor housing
- High humidity
- Cold temperatures
51
What type of drugs are used in heartworm treatment?
- Antibiotic
- Anthelminthic
- Glucocorticoid
52
An ELISA test can be used to diagnose heartworm infection in dogs.
True
53
Canine parvovirus is found only in very young animals
False
54
Otitis externa in dogs is always caused by a bacterial infection.
False
55
Canine distemper virus often causes fatal respiratory infections in ferrets as well as dogs.
True
56
Cleaning and drying the ear canal should always be done for dogs with externa otitis.
True
57
Dogs suffering with parvovirus typically have a temperature of at least 40 degrees Celsius.
False, puppies usually have a high body temperature, but older dogs do not.
58
What is the condition in cats characterized by frequent, painful, or difficult urination; hematuris; and straining?
Feline lower urinary tract disease
59
Excessive grooming in cats can lead to which of the following?
Gastic trichobezoars
60
Otitis externa in cats may be associated with infestation by what arthropod?
Notoedres cati
61
Medication that raises the pH of the urine is used to treat feline lower urinary tract disease
False
62
All personal having contact with nonhuman primates should be vaccinated against which zoonotic contagious disease?
Measles
63
Which human virus is a retrovirus that is said to have its origins in nonhuman primates?
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
64
An employee who works with nonhuman primates and has been exposed to measles outside of the facility should notify the animal facility supervisor as soon as possible.
True
65
To test nonhuman primates for tuberculosis, the tuberculin is injected intradermally in which part of the body?
Upper eyelid
66
A bite kit in a facility housing primates should contain which of the following components?
- Wound cleaning instructions
- Disinfectant
- Viral culture swabs
- Sample collection tubes
67
Nonhuman primates are high susceptible to which zoonotic respiratory disease?
Tuberculosis
68
In most cases, nonhuman primates contract tuberculosis through contact with?
Infected humans
69
Intradermal tuberculin testing is used to test nonhuman primates for tuberculosis
True
70
Which zoonotic viral disease often remains asymptomatic in infected macaques and can be fatal in humans?
B virus
71
Radiographs are generally not useful in diagnosing tuberculosis in nonhuman primates.
True
72
How is rumen stasis generally treated?
Administration of warmed saline and electrolytes
73
Which ruminants present the greatest risk of transmitting Q-fever to humans?
pregnant or postpartum females
74
Q-fever is only found in sheep.
False
75
Coxiella burnetii is the causative agent for which disease?
Q-fever
76
Q-fever spreads mainly by inhalation of aerosol.
True
77
In rumen stasis, a change in the pH of the rumen results in putrefaction of the feed.
True
78
Humans with Q-fever usually have conjunctivitis and blisters around their nose and mouth.
False, Q fever humans may be asymptomatic or there may be mild symptoms resembling influenza
79
Contagious ecthyma is a zoonotic disease that can be life threatening to humans.
False
80
To reduce the chance of contracting orf, which precaution should always be taken by personnel handling sheep?
Wear gloves
81
Orf usually affects humans on their:
hands
82
Pasteurellosis may cause septicemia, an infection of the bloodstream.
True
83
Laminitis is a condition affecting the:
Hooves
84
Coxiella burnetii can easily be eliminated from an animal facility by regular disinfection of the area where ruminants are kept.
False
85
What is a common cause of rumen stasis?
Sudden change in the diet
86
What are the symptoms that are associated with an infection with Pasteurella multocida?
- Septicemia
- Mastits
- Respiratory disease
87
Orf is also known as contagious erythermia.
False, Orf is also known as contagious ecthyma
88
Which health problem would cause a pig to appear oblivious to its surroundings and to have seizures?
Salt toxicity
89
Porcine circovirus may be transmitted by the aerosol, fecal-oral, and contact routes.
True
90
What is the cause of malignant hypothermia in swine?
Gene mutation
91
Ich is caused by which pathogen?
Ichthypothirius multifilis
92
What disease causes lethargy and excessive mucus and white spots on the skin of the fish?
Ich
93
Cutaneous capillariasis can be treated successfully with bactericidal antibiotics
False, it can be treated with anthelmintics
94
Chytridiomycosis can lead to a loss of the righting reflex in affected amphibians.
True
95
Atabrine and sea salt baths are used in the treatment of velvet disease in fish.
True
96
A bacterial septiceimia that occurs frequently in frogs and that can cause erosion of the toes, feet, and jaws is called:
Red leg
97
An infection with Pseudocapillaroides xenopi is called:
cutaneous capillariasis
98
What pathogen causes velvet disease?
Piscinoodinium pillulare
99
What aquatic species disease is caused by a fungus?
Chytridiomycosis
100
What fish disease is also known as fin rot?
Bacterial gill disease
101
What agent is associated with red leg in amphibians?
Aeromonoas hydrophila
102
The difference between hard and soft bloat in amphibians is where the excess fluid is held in the body.
True, hard bloat, the fluid is in the body cavity; soft bloat, the fluid is within the body tissues
103
Xenopus with hard bloat can be successfully treated with Epsom salt baths.
False
104
Many wild frogs and salamanders have died due to chytridiomycosis.
True
105
Which fish disease can be successfully treated using atabrine and sea salts?
Velvet disease
106
What is the most common disease of freshwater fish maintained in aquaria in institutional settings?
Microporidiosis
107
Which mouse viral infection is considered the most widespread in facilities in the United States and Canada?
Mouse norovirus
108
The causative agent for idiopathic ulcerative dermatitis is:
unknown
109
Which zoonotic agent can be harbored by hamsters for an extended period of time, often without clinical signs?
Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus
110
A goat that is staggering and kicking their belly most likely has which condition?
Grain overload
111
What type of medication may help eliminate signs of coccidiosis?
Sulfa drugs
112
In the rabbit, clinical signs that include nasal discharge and ocular discharge which may stain the forelegs, abscesses, and genital infections may indicate which disease?
Pasteurellosis
113
What is a clinical sign of coccidiosis?
Altered liver function
114
Guinea pigs housed on wire floors may have inflamed, swollen, and painful feet due to infection with which organism?
Staphylococcus aureus
115
Which symptoms are characteristic of microsporidiosis in fish?
Emaciation and spinal curvature
116
Which disease in fish is caused by a protozoan species?
Ich
117
Which tissue type is used to test for mouse parvovirus?
Lymph node
118
What is a major agent involved in feline respiratory disease?
Viral rhinotracheitis
119
What is the most common disease of freshwater fish maintained in aquaria in institutional settings?
Microsporidiosis
120
Aplastic anemia can be caused by which of the following in female ferrets?
Bone marrow suppression from high estrogen levels
121
What treatment may successfully treat aplastic anemia in ferrets?
Ovariohysterectomy
122
What disease found in fish can cause nonhealing granuloma ulcers on the skin in humans?
Mycobacteriosis
123
What disease is characterized by fish rubbing their sides and flipping around in the corners of the tank?
Velvet disease
