Chapter 15 Diagnostic Techniques Flashcards

1
Q

Which term means “the determination of the nature and cause of a disease, injury, or congenital defect”?

A

Diagnosis

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2
Q

Which term means “to predict the outcome of a disease”?

A

Prognosis

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3
Q

Where are endoparasites most commonly found in laboratory animals?

A

In the intestinal tract

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4
Q

What samples can be used to find endoparasites in the body?

A

Feces
Blood
Sputum

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5
Q

Which test is a quick method, though not very accurate, for detecting endoparasites?

A

Direct fecal smear

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6
Q

What signs might be an indication that an animal has ectoparasites?

A

Itching
Skin lesions
Hair loss

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7
Q

Testing with a fecal analysis kit does not require centrifugation.

A

True

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8
Q

Direct smear is the primary method used to detect protozoan parasites in an animal

A

True

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9
Q

Ectoparasites leave a dead body as it cools.

A

True

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10
Q

By which method are most endoparasites detected?

A

Fecal examination

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11
Q

Fecal flotation is used to determine if and/or are present in the sample

A

Parasite eggs; coccidial oocytes

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12
Q

Mites in fur samples are visible by eye.

A

False

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13
Q

To detect endoparasites by fecal flotation, sugar may be mixed with the fecal specimen.

A

True

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14
Q

Serological tests are used to determine the type of organisms present in a skin scraping sample.

A

False: PCR is used to determine the type of organisms present in a skin scraping sample.

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15
Q

The fecal flotation test requires a larger sample than the one needed for the direct smear.

A

True

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16
Q

An animal may need to be sedated to swab its ear to check for ear mites.

A

True

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17
Q

PCR is more sensitive than a tape test for the detection of pinworm species

A

True

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18
Q

Hematology can assist in the diagnosis of what health problems:

A

Dehydration
Infection
Anemia

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19
Q

Lymphocyctes are produced by the:

A

lymph nodes

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20
Q

A white blood cell count includes quantification for all types of white blood cells.

A

False

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21
Q

What function is served by basophils?

A

Initiation of inflammatory response.

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22
Q

Hemoglobin is the:

A

oxygen-carrying component of red blood cells

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23
Q

A hematocrit is used to determine:

A

packed cell volume

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24
Q

What best describes plasma?

A

The liquid portion of unclotted blood

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25
What test provides information on blood cell morphology?
Peripheral blood smear
26
In most species, which type of white blood cells are most numerous?
Neutrophils/heterophils
27
The neutrophil to lymphocyte ratio varies among healthy animals of different species.
True
28
The enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is a test used to quantify antibodies or antigens in the research laboratory.
True
29
Serology is testing of serum for the presence or absence of:
antibodies
30
What is indicated by the red top tubes usually used for serum chemistry testing?
Use of serum for the tests
31
Even at proper temperatures, serum samples cannot be used after 6 weeks of freezer storage.
False
32
In most institutions, a generic antibody test is preformed as an initial screen to quickly identify which antibodies are present in the blood.
False
33
Serum chemistry tests help the veterinarian determine which organ is affected in a sick animal.
True
34
When measuring antibody titer, the lower the titer, the less antibody is present.
True
35
Serum should be stored at -18 to 0 degrees Celsius
False
36
Urinalysis can aid in the diagnosis of disease other than those of the urinary system.
True
37
To examine the urinary sediments, the urine should be left undisturbed for several hours before being stained.
False
38
Paper strips used to evaluate urine samples are known as:
dipsticks
39
The measurement of specific gravity is expressed with no units (like mg or ml)
True
40
The best way to obtain a sterile urine sample is to use a catheter inserted into the urethra of the animal.
False
41
A higher urine specific gravity indicates that the urine is less concentrated.
False
42
Why can't viruses be co-identified with bacteria if inoculated on the same agar plate?
Viruses do not grow on artificial media
43
Fungal diseases cannot be diagnosed by culturing a sample because they don't grow in culture.
False
44
Viruses can be cultured in?
Cell culture
45
Microbial pathogens are usually identified after being inoculated into nutrient media and left to grow.
True
46
If a sample contains both bacteria and fungi, what is true?
Bacteria grow faster in the culture.
47
Samples obtained for microbiological analyses should be treated with antibiotics before being inoculated on nutrient media.
False
48
Most bacteria can be identified based on their growth pattern on agar plates.
False
49
What is the term for the examination of an animal after it's death?
Necropsy
50
A case history is the complete list of findings obtained during necropsy.
False
51
An examination of the animal's cage should be part of the development of the case history of the animal being necropsied
True
52
To preserve tissues for further examination, what is the usual ratio of tissue to fixative used by weight?
1 to 20
53
What items of personal protective equipment should be worn by personnel working with radiation?
Film badge Thyroid shield Lead apron and gloves Goggles
54
Contrast media are used to change the way organs are seen on a radiograph
True
55
For a ventrodorsal view, which part of the animal do the X-rays strike first?
The ventral surface
56
Thermal control is important during diagnostic imaging to prevent the introduction of artifact.
True
57
in bioluminescence, a fluorophore is oxidized and produces a light signal.
False, luciferin is oxidized and produces a light signal
58
Fluorescent imaging may use a genetically modified animal to express a that emits a colored light that can used to measure biological changes.
Fluorophore
59
What imaging technique allows the observation of metabolic processes as they occur?
Positron emission tomography (PET)
60
During magnetic resonace imaging (MRI), what happens to the hydrogen atoms after they realign with the magnetic field?
They emit a radiofrequency wave that is recorded as an image.
61
What diagnostic imaging technique allows real time moving images to be observed?
Fluoroscopy
62
What are some dangers when working with diagnostic imaging techniques?
Strong magnetic fields Toxic contrast media Ionizing radiation
63
Thermal imaging can be affected by what factor?
Room temperature
64
X-rays cannot penetrate the body but the electrons they produce can.
False
65
What imaging modality uses molecules that produce a certain light wavelength when exposed to ultraviolet light?
Fluorescence
66
Dense areas of the body absorb the most X-rays.
True
67
Fluorescence imaging is also known as fluoroscopy.
False
68
Infrared radiation is emitted from all objects.
True
69
Leukocytes generally make up what percentage of the total blood volume?
1%
70
Radioactive isotopes can be attached to which molecule in positron emission tomography?
Glucose
71
An example of contrast medium is:
Gadolinium
72
What does the specific gravity of urine measure?
Kidney's ability to concentrate the urine
73
What is a major advantage of fluoroscopy over standard radiography?
It takes moving pictures
74
Thermographic cameras measures what sort of radiation?
Infrared
75
Leukocytes generally make up what percent of the total blood volume?
1%
76
Neutrophils/Heterophils
make up 45% to 75% of the total WBC count.
77
Monocytes
3% to 5% of total WBC count
78
Band cells
immature forms of neutrophils/heterophils. Recognized by their unsegmented nucleus. An increased number of these cells means that the body is making more neutrophils to attack an infection.
79
Lymphocytes
- produced by lymph nodes - 25% to 40% - A large number might indicate the presence of an acute infection or leukemia.
80
Easinophils
2% to 5% | Large concentration of these cells indicates an allergic reaction or the presence of parasites.
81
Basophils
1% of WBC count | -Help initiate the body's inflammatory response
82
Platelets (thrombocytes)
- no nucleus | - source of clotting factors.