Unit 3 and 4 Review Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Miconazole is what type of drug?

A

Antifungal

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2
Q

Which type of research would be particularly affected if ferrets in a study had Aleutian disease?

A

Immunological

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3
Q

If active scavenging is used, the scavenging system is connected to which part of the re breathing system?

A

Pop-off valve

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4
Q

When speaking of multimodal drug therapy, “modal” refers to different modes of:

A

action

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5
Q

What do depressed levels of neutrophils usually indicate?

A

Active viral infection

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6
Q

Which group of worms are generally elongate, cylindrical, and non-segmented?

A

Nematodes

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7
Q

What causes most of the illness of pasteurellosis in ruminants?

A

A baceterial endotoxin

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8
Q

Leukocytes generally make up what percentage of the total blood volume?

A

1%

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9
Q

Which disease in fish can be successfully treated with repeated dilute formalin baths?

A

Ich

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10
Q

Which method is used to diagnose coccidiosis in rabbits?

A

Fecal flotation

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11
Q

What is the typical treatment for a ruminant with a severely distended, bloated abdomen

A

Surgical incision of the rumen

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12
Q

Which drug is a dissociative agent?

A

Ketamine

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13
Q

The term “slow virus” is often used to describe which organism?

A

Prion

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14
Q

Which type of virus is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?

A

Retrovirus

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15
Q

Which antibiotics have the potential to cause inner ear and kidney toxicity?

A

Aminoglycosides

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16
Q

For which of the following conditions are cephalosporins often used?

A

Conditions that have shown resistance to other antibiotics

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17
Q

In a study testing the effects of different types of analgesia on wound healing:1) some mice are housed closer to a refrigerator that is known to cause cages on a rack to vibrate; 2) one treatment group is composed only of female mice who weigh less than males; and 3) one investigator coding the severity of wounds over times believes that only one of the analgesia types is effective. If a significant effect is found when the data is analyzed, it could be the result of a(n):

A

nonexperimental variable.

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18
Q

Which rodent should be fasted overnight if it is to be intubated?

A

Guinea pig

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19
Q

In which species is atropine not effective to reduce salivation under anesthesia?

A

Rabbits

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20
Q

Which swine disease can be prevented by vaccination?

A

Staphylococcus hyicus

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21
Q

What is the definition of virulence?

A

The degree of pathogenicity of an organism

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22
Q

Pseudocapillaroides xenopi is what type of organism

A

Nematode

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23
Q

Which antibiotics are used to treat infections with parasitic protozoa, such as Amoeba, Giardia, and Trichomonas?

A

Nitroimidazoles

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24
Q

Which of the following is a type of acquired immune response?

A

Antigen-mediated

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25
What is an antibody titer?
The greatest dilution of blood sample with a positive result when exposed to the antigen
26
When using rebreathing anesthesia systems, which of the following reaches the animal's lungs?
A mixture of fresh and exhaled gases
27
Which is the stage when a protozoan parasite actively multiplies?
Trophozoite
28
Which of the following is a type of interferon?
Beta
29
Toxocara canis is which type of parasite?
Ascarid
30
Which of the following is an example of histopathology?
Thin slices of tissue are fixed, stained, and examined under the microscope.
31
The presence of antibodies against a pathogen is known as:
seroconversion.
32
The genus of roundworms known as whipworms is a member of which group of helminths ?
Nematodes
33
The four processes by which a drug is handled by the body — absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion — are the focus of which discipline?
Pharmacokinetics
34
Which action will NOT be taken at the end of our study if the p-value of our statistical test is less than 0.05?
Conclude that there is no significant difference between groups.
35
Which cells are the first to recognize the presence of bacterial antigens and release chemical signals to immune cells in other locations?
Phagocytes
36
The volume of the rebreathing bag in an anesthesia system should be how many times the animal's tidal volume?
4
37
Which cell lineage is affected in XID mice?
B cell
38
An anesthetic log should be kept for each animal. How often should vital parameters be recorded?
Every 10-15 minutes
39
Which factor is an advantage of barbiturate agents?
Time to loss of consciousness
40
Which of the following is NOT characteristic of feline respiratory disease?
A harsh dry cough
41
Which type of virus is orf?
Poxvirus
42
Which disease found in fish can cause nonhealing granuloma ulcers on the skin in humans?
Mycobacteriosis
43
In the recognition stage of an immune response, which of the following encounter an antigen-presenting cell?
B lymphocyes
44
What is the most abundant immunoglobulin found in the serum of mammals?
IgG
45
Which of the following is a way that a secondary immunodeficiency disease can be acquired?
Poor nutrition
46
Scrapie in sheep is believed to be caused by which infectious agent?
Prions
47
Dirofilaria immitis is the cause of:
Heart worm disease
48
Bioluminescent imaging requires a light signal from which molecule?
Luciferin
49
What is the best way to determine the amount of nitrous oxide left in a tank?
Weigh the tank
50
What is an example of a contrast medium?
Gadolinium
51
What makes rabbits prone to blockages caused by hairballs?
Small pyloric lumen
52
In what technique is the x-ray beam rotated 360 degrees around the patient to allow precise locations of leasions?
Comeputed tomography
53
What disease in fish is caused by a protozoan species?
Ich
54
What drug is often combined with benzodiazepine tranquilizers to induce a dissociative state and provide pain relief and sedation?
Ketamine
55
Pseudocapillarioides xenopi is what type of organism?
Nematode
56
What is NOT a function of interferons?
Attenuation (reduction) of the immune response of surrounding cells
57
Parasite of which group are generally flat, have oral suckers, and have larval forms that hatch in water?
Trematodes
58
Gentamicin and kanamycin are examples of which type of antibiotics?
Aminoglycosides
59
What cells are the first to recognize the presence of bacterial antigens and release chemical signals to immune cells in other locations?
Phagocytes
60
What is the least likely to cause intestinal inflammation in mice or rats?
Mycoplasma spp
61
Hard bloat in Xenopus is caused by what?
Bacterial infection
62
What characteristic is TRUE about heminths?
They have differentiated organs
63
What does an ultrasonic Doppler flow detector measure?
Blood pressure
64
A hamster was treated with penicillin to treat an infection caused by a gram-positive organism. The animal died the morning after the treatment. What is the cause of death that you should immediately consider?
A toxin secreated by Clostridium difficile killed the animal.
65
The secretion of antibodies occurs during which step of the acquired immune response?
Response
66
Species from the genera Giardia are memebers of what group of protozoan parasites?
Flagellates
67
To examine mucus scrapped from the skin of an aquatic species, what substance is used to prepare the slide?
Tank water
68
What term would you use to describe the effect of a combination of a phenothiazine tranquilizer and an anesthetic?
Additive
69
What enzyme can be found in tears, saliva, and nasal secretions and destroys bacteria?
Lysozyme
70
What component of the innate immune system coats the surface of invading organisms to facilitate their attack by the macrophages?
Complement proteins
71
What is the role of cytokines?
They transmit information about the presence of a foreign substance.
72
What cells have a similar role to macrophages in presenting the antigen to other cells.
Dendritic cells
73
The secretion of antibodies occurs during which step of the acquired immune response?
Response
74
The major histocompatibility complex proteins (MHC) are found on the surface of which cells?
T cells
75
What cells are the first to recognize the presence of bacterial antigens and release chemical signals to immune cells in other locations?
Phagocytes
76
What nematode has the unique characteristic of not producing eggs?
Filaria
77
Parasites of which group are generally flat, have oral suckers, and have larval forms that hatch in water?
Trematodes
78
What type of drug is NOT part of heartworm treatment?
Antifungal
79
What is NOT characteristic of feline respiratory disease?
A harsh dry cough
80
What is the most common sign of infection with B virus?
Oral lesions or ulcers
81
What is the typical treatment for a ruminant with a severely distended, bloated abdomen?
Surgical incision of the rumen
82
Pseudocapillaroides xenopi is what type of organism?
Nematode
83
What disease may result in the sudden death of large numbers of fish in the aquaria?
Gas bubble disease
84
What is the most common disease of freshwater fish maintained in aquaria in institutional settings?
Microsporidiosis
85
What method is most commonly used for the detection of pinworm species?
Cellophane tape test
86
To examine mucus scraped from the skin of an aquatic species, what substance is used to prepare the slide?
Tank water
87
The buffy coat in the hematocrit tube can be collected and used to determine which of the following?
Morphology of the white blood cells
88
What do high concentrations of neutrophils usually indicate?
Active bacterial infection
89
In which technique is the x-ray beam rotated 360° around the patient to allow precise location of lesions?
Computed tomography
90
What technique uses a radioisotope to provide images of in vivo biological processes?
Positron emission tomography
91
Tamoxifen is an example of a drug whose efficacy is dependent upon which factor?
Time of day
92
What does the term "drug spectrum" refer to?
The type of organisms it is effective against
93
Gentamicin and kanamycin are examples of which type of antibiotics?
Aminoglycosides
94
A hamster was treated with penicillin to treat an infection caused by a gram-positive organism. The animal died the morning after the treatment. What is a cause of death that you should immediately consider?
A toxin secreted by Clostridium difficile killed the animal.
95
What term would you use to describe the effect of a combination of a phenothiazine tranquilizer and an anesthetic?
Additive
96
Yohimbine is which type of drug?
Alpha-2 adrenergic antagonist
97
What is a serious complication associated with the use of the anesthetic tribromoethanol?
Intestinal ileus
98
What measure is unnecessary when using an open-drop chamber to anesthetize an animal?
Ensure that enough oxygen is delivered to sustain the animal's metabolic needs.
99
What reflex is not a good indicator of anesthetic depth in rodents?
Palpebral
100
In which species does the administration of morphine frequently induce vomiting and defecation?
Dogs
101
What phrase best defines "bias" in research?
Influence on study data by investigators or conditions
102
What action will NOT be taken at the end of our study if the p-value of our statistical test is less than 0.05?
Conclude that there is no significant difference between groups