Chpt 10 & 17 Flashcards
(306 cards)
1
Q
Microscopic fiber leading from the cell body that carries the nervous impulse along a nerve cell _____
A
axon
2
Q
large, interlacing network of nerves ______
A
plexus
3
Q
outer region of the largest part of the brain (cerebrum); composed of gray matter.
A
cerebral cortex
4
Q
glial cell that transports water and salts between capillaries and nerve cells
A
astrocyte
5
Q
glial cell that produces myelin
A
oligodendroglial cell
6
Q
collection of spinal nerves below the end of the spinal cord at the level of the second lumbar vertebra _____
A
cauda equina
7
Q
fatty tissue that surrounds the axon of a nerve cell ______
A
myelin sheath
8
Q
dura mater (definition)
A
outermost meningeal layer surrounding the brain and spinal cord
9
Q
CNS
A
brain and spinal cord
10
Q
PNS
A
nerves outside the brain and spinal cord; cranial, spinal and autonomic nerves.
11
Q
arachnoid membrane
A
middle meningeal membrane surrounding the brain and spinal cord
12
Q
hypothalamus
A
part of the brain below the thalamus; controls sleep, appetite, body temp and secretions from the pituitary gland.
13
Q
synapse
A
space through which a nerve impulse is transmitted from a nerve cell to another nerve cell or to a muscle or gland cell.
14
Q
sympathetic nerves
A
autonomic nerves that influence body functions involuntarily in terms of stress.
15
Q
medulla oblongata
A
part of the brain just above the spinal cord that controls breathing, heartbeat and the size of blood vessels.
16
Q
pons
A
part of the brain anterior to the cerebellum and between the medulla and upper parts of the brain; connects these parts of the brain.
17
Q
cerebellum
A
posterior part of the brain that controls muscular coordination and balance
18
Q
thalamus
A
part of the brain below the cerebrum; relay center that conducts impulses between the spinal cord and the cerebrum
19
Q
ventricles of the brain
A
canals in the interior of the brain that are filled with CSF
20
Q
brainstem
A
lower portion of the brain that connects the cerebrum with the spinal cord (includes the pons and medulla)
21
Q
cerebrum
A
largest part of the brain; controls voluntary muscle movement, vision, speech, hearing, thought, memory.
22
Q
ganglion
A
collection of nerve cell bodies outside the brain and spinal cord.
23
Q
pia mater
A
innermost meningeal membrane
24
Q
motor nerves
A
carry messages away from (efferent) the brain and spinal cord to muscles and glands
25
sensory nerves
carry messages toward (afferent) the brain and spinal cord from receptors
26
sulci
grooves in the cerebral cortex
27
subarachnoid space
contains CSF
28
gyri
elevations in the cerebral cortex
29
parenchymal cell
essential cell of the nervous system; a neuron
30
glial cells
connective and supportive (stromal) tissue
31
disease of the brain
encelopathy
32
epidural hematoma
collection of blood above the dura mater
33
leptomeningitis
inflammation of the pia and arachnoid membranes
34
anencelopathy
condition of absence of a brain
35
poliomyelitis
inflammation of the gray matter of the spinal cord
36
meningeal
pertaining to the membranes around the brain and spinal cord
37
radiculopathy
disease of nerve roots (of spinal nerves)
38
myelomeningocele
hernia of the spinal cord and meninges
39
vagal
pertaining to the 10th cranial nerve
40
intrathecal
pertaining to within a sheath through the meninges and into the sub arachnoid space
41
meningioma
tumor of the meninges
42
glioma
tumor of the neuroglial cells (brain tumor)
43
subdural hematoma
mass of blood below the dura mater (outermost meningeal membrane)
44
dyslexia (definition)
reading disorder
45
ataxia (definition)
condition of decreased coordination
46
hyperesthesia
condition of increased sensation
47
narcolepsy
seizure of sleep; uncontrollable compulsion to sleep
48
aphasia
difficulty with speech
49
motor ataxia
inability to perform a task
50
hemoparesis
weakness in the right or left half of the body
51
causalgia
severe burning pain due to nerve injury
52
paraplegia
paralysis in the lower part of the body
53
fainting
syncope
54
neurasthenia
nervous exhaustion (lack of strength) and fatigue.
55
analgesia
lack of sensitivity to pain
56
motor aphasia
difficulty in speaking ( patient cannot articular words but can understand speech and knows what he/she wants to say)
57
paresis
weakness and partial loss of movement
58
quadriplegia
paralysis in all four extremities (damage is to the cervical part of the spinal cord)
59
asthenia
no strength (weakness)
60
comatose
pertaining to coma (loss of consciousness in which a patient cannot be aroused)
61
paresthesia
condition of abnormal sensations (prickling, tingling, burning)
62
hypalgesia
diminished sensation to pain
63
dyskinesia
impairment to the ability to perform voluntary movements
64
migraine
recurrent vascular headache with severe pain of unilateral onset and photobia (sensitivity to light)
65
multiple sclerosis
destruction of the myelin sheath (demyelination) and it's replacement by hard plaques
66
epilepsy
sudden, transient disturbances of brain function cause seizures
67
myelomeningocele (definition)
the spinal column is imperfectly joined (split vertebra occurs), and part of the meninges and spinal cord can herniate out of the spinal cavity.
68
amyotropic lateral sclerosis
atrophy of muscles and paralysis caused by damage to motor neurons in the spinal cord and brain stem.
69
Huntington disease
patient displays bizarre, abrupt, involuntary, dance-like movements, as well as decline in mental function
70
hydrocephalus
CSF accumulates in the head (in the ventricles of the brain)
71
Myesthenia gravis
loss of muscle strength due to the inability of a NT (Ach) to transmit impulses from nerve cells to muscle cells.
72
parkinson disease
Degeneration of nerves in the basal ganglia occurring in later life, leading to tremors, shuffling gait, and muscle stiffness; dopamine is deficient in the brain
73
Alzheimer disease
deterioration of mental capacity (dementia); autopsy shows cerebral cortex atrophy, widening of cerebral sulci, and microscopic neurofibrillary tangles.
74
astrocytoma
tumor of neurological glial brain cells (astrocytes)
75
pyogenic meningitis
inflammation of the meninges (bacterial infection with pus formation)
76
tourette syndrome
involuntary spasmotic twitching movements (tics), uncontrollable vocal sounds and inappropriate words
77
cerebral contusion
bruising of brain tissues as a result of a direct trauma to the head
78
cerebrovascular accident (CVA)
disruption of normal blood supply to the brain ; stroke or cerebral infarction
79
cerebral concussion
traumatic brain injury caused by blow to the head
80
herpes zoster
neurologic condition caused by infection with herpes zoster virus; blisters form along the course of peripheral nerves.
81
cerebral embolus
blockage of a blood vessel in the cerebrum caused by material from another part of the body that suddenly occludes the vessel.
82
cerebral thrombosis
blockage of a blood vessel in the cerebrum caused by for formation of a clot in the vessel
83
cerebral hemorrhage
collection of blood in the brain (can cause a stroke
84
cerebral aneurysm
widening of a blood vessel (artery) in the cerebrum; can lead to burst and lead to CVA
85
HIV encephalopathy
brain disease (dimentia and encephalitis) caused by infection with AIDS virus
86
Describe what happens in an MRI of the brain
use of magnetic waves to create an image (in frontal, transverse or sagittal plane) of the brain.
87
Describe what happens in a stereotactic radiosurgery with a gamma knife
an instrument (stereotactic) is fixed onto the skill and locates a target by 3-D measurement; gamma radiation or proton beams are used to treat deep brain lesions.
88
lack of nerve strength
neurasthenia
89
inability to speak
aphasia
90
inability to perform purposeful actions
apraxia
91
condition of insensitivity to pain
analgesia
92
condition of loss of sensation
anesthesia
93
sensations of tingling, numbness, or "pins and needles"
paresthenia
94
lack of coordination
ataxia
95
excessive movement
hyperkinesia
96
abnormal, involuntary, spasmodic movements
dyskinesia
97
developmental reading disorder
dyslexia
98
partial paralysis
paresis
99
electroencephalography (EEG)
procedure to diagnose abnormal electrical activity of the brain
100
positron emission tomography (PET)
radioactive materials, such as glucose, are taken up by the brain, and images are recorded
101
Magnetic resonance imagine (MRI)
diagnostic procedure that allows excellent visualization of the soft tissue in the brain.
102
cerebrovascular accident (CVA)
stroke; embolus, hemorrhage, or thrombosis
103
transient ischemic attack (TIA)
neurologic symptoms and/or signs due to temporary interference of blood supply to the brain
104
cerebralspinal fluid (CSF)
this fluid is analyzed for abnormal blood cells, chemicals and protein.
105
Maria had such severe headaches that she could find relief only with strong analgesics. Her condition of ______ was debilitating
migraine
106
Paul was in a come after his high-speef car accident. His physicians were concerned that he has suffered a (palsy, myelomenigocele, contusion and subdural hematoma)
contusion and subdural hematoma
107
Dick went to the emergency department complaining dizziness, nausea, and headache. The physician, suspecting increased ICP, prescribed corticosteroids, and Dick's symptoms disappeared. They returned, however, when the steroids were discontinued. A/an ______ revealed a large brain lesion. It was removed surgically and determined to be a/an (embolus, glioblastoma multiforme, migraine)
MRI, glioblastoma multiform
108
Dorothy felt weakness in her hands and numbness in her arm, and noticed blurred vision, all signs of ______ . Her physician requested ______ to assess any damage to the cerebral blood vessels and possible stroke.
TIA, MRA
109
To rule out bacterial (epilepsy, encephalomalacia, meningitis), Dr. Phillips, a pediatrician, requested that a/an (EEG, PET scan, LP) be performed on the febrile (feverish) child.
meningitis, LP
110
part of the brain that controls sleep, appetite, temperature, and secretions of the pituitary gland.
hypothalamus
111
pertaining to fainting
syncopal
112
abnormal tingling sensations
esthesias
113
slight paralysis
paresis
114
inflammation of a spinal nerve root
radiculitis
115
inability to speak correctly
aphasia
116
movements and behavior that are not purposeful
apraxia
117
lack of muscular coordination
ataxia
118
paralysis on half the body
hemiplegia
119
paralysis in lower half of the body
paraplegia
120
paralysis in all four limbs
quadriplegia
121
nervous exhaustion and fatigue
neurasthenia
122
phacoemulsification with IOL; OS is procedure for
IOL = intraocular lens
OS- = left eye
cataracts
123
blepharoplasty is the procedure for
ptosis of the eyelid skin
124
sclera buckle is the procedure for
retinal detachment
125
vitrectomy is the procedure for
diabetic retinoplasty
126
radical mastoidectomy is the procedure for
chronic infection of a bone behind the ear
127
keratoplasty is the procedure for
scarred and torn cornea
128
cochlear implant is the procedure for
severe deafness
129
laser photocoagulation of the macula is the procedure for
macular degeneration
130
incision and drainage of hordeolum is the procedure for
chronic stye
131
conjunctiva
Delicate membrane lining the eyelids and covering the anterior of the eyeball
132
cornea
Fibrous layer of clear tissue that extends over the anterior portion of the eyeball
133
sclera
Tough, white outer layer of the eyeball
134
choroid
Vascular layer of the eyeball that is continuous with the iris
135
ciliary body
Contains muscles that control the shape of the lens and secrete aqueous humor
136
lens
transparent structure behind the iris and in front of the vitreous humor; it refracts light rays onto the retina.
also biconvex
137
retina
contains sensitive cells called rods and cones that transform light energy into nerve impulses.
138
vitreous humor
jelly-like material behind the lens that helps maintain the shape of the eyeball
139
The region at the back of the eye where the optic nerve meets the retina is the ______
optic disc
140
The normal adjustment of the lens (becoming fatter) to bring an object into focus for near vision on the retina is ______
accommodation
141
a yellowish region on the retina lateral to the optic disc is the ______
macula
142
The tiny pit or depression in the retina that is the region of clearest vision is the ______
fovea centralis
143
the bending of light rays by the cornea, lens, and fluids of the eyes is ______
refraction
144
The point at which the fibers of the optic nerve cross the brain is the ______
optic chiasm
145
The ______ is the area behind the cornea and in front of the lens and iris. It contains the aqueous humor.
anterior chamber
146
The posterior, inner part of the eye is the ______
fundus
147
space and fluid in front of the eye
anterior chamber and aqueous humor
148
space and soft, jelly-like material in the posterior of the eye
vitreous chamber and vitreous humor
149
retina
light-sensitive inner nerve cell layer; rods and cones
150
optic nerve fibers
cranial nerve
151
relay center of the brain
thalamus
152
visual region of the brain
cerebral cortex (occipital lobe)
153
anisocoria
condition of pupils of unequal size (anis/o = unequal)
154
cycloplegic
pertaining to paralysis of the ciliary muscles
155
palpebral
pertaining to the eyelid
156
mydriasis
condition of enlargement of the pupil
157
miosis
condition of constriction of the pupil
158
papilledema
swelling in the region of the optic disc
159
photobia
condition of sensitivity ("fear of") light
160
scotoma
blind spot; area of darkened (diminished) vision surrounded by clear vision.
161
inflammation of an eyelid
blepharitis
162
inflammation of a tear gland
dacryadenitis
163
inflammation of the cornea
keratitis
164
prolapse of the eyelid
blepharoptosis
165
pertaining to within the eye
intraocular
166
fibrous layer of clear tissue over the front of the eyeball has a defect resulting from infection
corneal ulcer
167
inflammation of the vascular layer of the eye (iris, ciliary body, and choriod)
uveitis
168
condition of dry eyes
xerophthalmia
169
absence of vision in half of the visual field
hemianopsia
170
absence of the lens of the eye
aphakia
171
amblyopia
decreased (dim) vision; lazy eye
172
hyperopia
farsightedness
173
presbyopia
decreased vision at near; resulting from old age
174
myopia
nearsightedness
175
nyctalopia
night blindness; decreased vision at night
176
diplopia
double vision
177
astigmatism
defective curvature of the lens and cornea leading to blurred vision
178
In the myopic eye either the eyeball is too ______ or the refractive power of the lens is too ______ , so that the image is blurred and comes to a focus in ______ of the retina. They type of lens used to correct this is a/an ______ lens.
long, strong, front, concave
179
In the hyperopic eye, the eyeball is too ______ or the refractive power of the lens is too ______ , so that the image is blurred and focused in ______ of the retina. They type of lens used to correct this is a/an ______ lens.
short, weak, back, convex
180
retinal microaneurysms, hemorrhages, dilation of retinal veins, ad neovascularization occur secondary to an abnormal endocrine condition
diabetic retinopathy
181
2 layers of the retina separate from each other
retinal detachment
182
clouding of the lens caused by decreased vision
cataract
183
loss of central vision caused by deterioration of the macula of the retina
macular degeneration
184
localized, purulent infection of a sebaceous gland in the eyelid
hordeolum (stye)
185
small, firm, cystic mass on the eyelid; formed as a result of chronic inflammation of a sebaceous gland
chalazion
186
pigmented scarring forms throughout the retina
retinitis pigmentosa
187
repetitive rhythmic movements of one or both eyes
nystagmus
188
dacry/o
tears
189
kerat/o
cornea
190
palpebr/o
eyelid
191
cor/o
pupil
192
phac/o
lens
193
phak/o
lens
194
scot/o
darkness
195
OU
both eyes
196
VA
visual acuity
197
VF
visual field
198
IOL
intraocular lens
199
IOP
intraocular pressure
200
PERRLA
pupils equal, round, reactive to light and accommodation
201
ultrasonic vibrations break up the lens, and it is aspirated from the eye
phacoemulsification
202
measurement of the tension or pressure within the eye; glaucome test
tonometry
203
high-energy light radiation beams are used to stop retinal hemorrhaging
laser photocoagulation
204
a laser removes corneal tissue (sculpts it) to correct myopia
LASIK
205
a structure of a silicone band to the sclera to correct retinal detachment
scleral buckle
206
removal (and replacement) of diseased fluid in the chamber behind the lens of the eye
vitrectomy
207
corneal transplant surgery
keratoplasty
208
labyrinth
cochlea and organs of equilibrium (semicircular canals and vestibule)
209
semicircular canals
organ of equilibrium in the inner ear
210
auditory (eustachian) tube
passageway between the middle ear and the throat
211
stapes
3rd ossicle (little bone) of the middle ear
212
organ of Corti
region of the cochlea that contains the auditory receptors
213
perilymph & endolymph
auditory fluids circulating within the inner ear
214
cerumen
wax in the external auditory meatus
215
vestibule
central cavity of the inner ear that connect the semicircular canals and the cochlea
216
oval window
delicate membrane between the middle and inner ears
217
tympanic membrane
eardrum
218
instrument to examine the ear
otoscope
219
removal of the 3rd bone of the middle ear
stapedectomy
220
pertaining to the auditory tube and throat
salpingopharyngeal
221
flow of pus from the ear
otopyorrhea
222
instrument to measure hearing
audiometer
223
incision of the eardrum
myringotomy (tympanotomy)
224
surgical repair of the eardrum
myringoplasty (tympanoplasty)
225
small ear
microtia
226
inflammation of the middle ear
otitis media
227
vertigo
sensation of irregular or whirling motion either of oneself or external objects
228
Meniere disease
disorder of the labyrinth marked by elevation of ear fluids and pressure with the cochlea (tinnitus, vertigo and nausea result)
229
otosclerosis
hardening of the bony tissue of the ossicles of the middle ear
230
tinnitus
noise (buzzing and ringing) in the ears
231
cholesteatoma
collection of skin cells and cholesterol in a sac with in the middle of the ear.
232
suppurative otitis media
inflammation of the middle ear with bacterial infection and pus collection.
233
acoustic neuroma
benign tumor arising from the acoustic nerve in the brain
234
AS
left ear
235
AD
right eat
236
ENG
electronystagmography; a test of balance
237
EENT
ears, eyes, nose , throat
238
ENT
ears, nose, throat
239
PE tube
pressure-equlalizing tube; ventilating tube placed in the ear drum.
240
before her second birthday, Sally had so many episodes of (vertigo, otosclerosis, suppurative otitis media) that Dr. Sills recommended the placement of PE tubes
suppurative otitis media
241
68 year old Bob experienced blurred vision in the central portion of his visual field. After exam of his (cornea, retina, sclera) his ________ diagnosed his condition as (glaucma, iritis, macular degeneration). The doctor explained that the form of this condition was atrophic or (dry, wet), causing photoreceptor rods and cones to die.
retina, ophthalmologist, macular degeneration, dry
242
cerebellopontine
pertaining to the pons and cerebellum
243
coma
deep sleep
244
comatose
pertaining to deep sleep
245
ependymal cell
glial cell that lines membranes within the brain and spinal cord and help form CSF
246
absence seizure
seizure consisting of momentary clouding of consciousness and loss of awareness of surroundings
247
stroma
connective and supporting tissue of an organ. The glial cells are the stromal tissue of the brain.
248
aura
prodromal symptoms. peculiar symptoms that precede onset of an epileptic seizure or migraine
249
cerebral palsy
paralysis caused by loss of oxygen (hypoxia) or blood flow to the cerebrum during pregnancy or prenatal period.
250
computed tomography (CT)
computerized x-ray technique that generates multiple imaged of the brain and spinal cord. Contrast material may be injected to highlight abnormalities and that contrast leaks through the BBB.
251
doppler ultrasound studies
sound waves detect blood flow in the carotid and intracranial arteries.
252
embolus
clot of material that travels through the blood stream and suddenly blocks a vessel.
253
ictal event
pertaining to a sudden, acute onset, as with the convulsions of an epileptic seizure
254
palliative
relieving symptoms but not curing them
255
palsy
paralysis (partial or complete loss of motor function)
256
positron emission tomography (PET) scan
radioactive glucose is injected and then detected in the brain to image the metabolic activity of cells
257
spina bifida
congenital defects in the lumbar spinal column caused by imperfect union of vertebral parts (neural tube defect). Basically lumbar vertebrae don't form correctly.
258
tonic-clonic seizure
major convulsive seizure marked by sudden loss of consciousness, stiffening of muscles, and twitching jerking movements.
259
comat/o
deep sleep (coma)
260
cry/o
cold
261
lex/o
word/phrase
262
olig/o
scanty
263
pont/o
pons
264
spin/o
spine
265
syncop/o
to cut off/ to cut short
266
tax/o
order/ coordination
267
thec/o
sheath (refers to the meninges)
268
para-
near/ beside
269
-ose
full of/ pertaining to
270
glioblastoma multiforme
brain tumor; malignant astrocytoma
271
cerebral angiography
X-ray imaging of the arterial blood vessels in the brain after injection of contrast material
272
tuning fork test
test of ear conduction using a vibration source (tuning fork)
273
acous/o
hearing
274
ambly/o
dull/ dim
275
audi/o
hearing (the sense of hearing)
276
audit/o
hearing
277
aur/o
ear
278
auricul/o
hearing
279
glauc/o
gray
280
AFP
alpha feto protein
281
AVM
arteriovenous malformation
282
CT
computer tomography
283
EEG
electroencephalography
284
MRA
magnetic resonance angiography
285
MRI
magnetic resonance imaging
286
PET
positron emission tomography
287
TBI
traumatic brain injury
288
TIA
transient ischemic attack
289
tPA
tissue plasminogen activator
290
mi/o
smaller; less
291
mydr/o
widen/ enlarge
292
phot/o
light
293
salping/o
eustachian tube, auditary tube
294
scler/o
sclera, hard
295
-acusis
hearing
296
-cusis
hearing
297
-opia
vision
298
-opsia
vision
299
drunsen
extracellular debris
300
extropion
outward sagging and eversion of the eyelid, leading to improper lacrimation and corneal drying and ulceration
301
entropion
outward sagging of the eyelid, causing lashed to rub against the eye, corneal abrasion may result
302
enucleation
removal of a entire eyeball
303
exudates
fluid leaking from the blood. appear in retina as yellow-white spots as a result of diabetes
304
floaters
black spots or filmy shapes. people with retinal detachment experience this
305
photopsia
brights flashed of light. people with retinal detachment often experience this
306
xanthelasma
raised yellowish plaque on eyelid caused by lipid disorder
