Clinical Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

More than ___ of the glomeruli of both kidneys must be non-functional before serum chemistry changes occur.

A

70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is creatinine?

A

byproduct of muscle metabolism, and filtered out almost entirely by glomeruli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When do you see an increase of creatinine?

A

with a lock of functional glomeruli in the kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does BUN stand for?

A

blood urea nitrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is BUN?

A

end product of protein metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

BUN is excreted primarily by what?

A

kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does serum amylase do?

A

breaks down starches and glycogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does serum lipase do?

A

breaks down long chain of fatty acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What can an increase in bilirubin cause?

A

jaundice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is ALT?

A

liver cells breaking down (alanine amino transferase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is AP?

A

alkaline phosphatase, cancer/liver in dog

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Urine is ___ water.

A

95%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

If you want to preserve urine, it’s _ drop of ___ formalin in 1 oz urine.

A

1, 40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the function of the kidney?

A) filtration and elimination of metabolic waste
B) regulation of water and electrolyte balance
C) conservation of nutrients such as glucose and amino acids
D) all of the above

A

all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Glycosuria usually is a sign of which kidney disease?

A

diabetes mellitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What cells are seen in higher quantities when urine is collected through a catheter?

A

epithelial transitional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following crystals tend to be found in acidic urine?

A) amorphous urates
B) calcium oxalates
C) struvite
D) calcium carbonate

A

amorphous urates and calcium oxalates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Why is normal fresh equine urine cloudy?

A

mucus and calcium carbonate cyrstals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What do virulence factors help bacteria to do?

A

invade the host, cause disease, evade host defenses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are invasion factors?

A

surface components that allow the bacterium to invade host cells can be encoded on plasmids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are siderophores?

A

iron-binding factors that allow some bacteria to compete with the host for iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Define bacteriology.

A

the study of bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Define virology.

A

the study of non-cellular organisms called viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Mycology.

A

the study of fungi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Define protozoology.

A

the study of protozoa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Define algology.

A

the study of algae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Where do heterotrophics obtain energy from?

A

an organic source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Where do autotrophs get energy from?

A

an inorganic source

29
Q

What is the most common source of energy for bacteria?

A

glucose

30
Q

Most bacteria require about _____ moisture in the medium to grow.7-10%

A

7-10%

31
Q

Lipids are only utilized by a few what?

A

bacteria

32
Q

Microaerophilic.

A

grow best at O2 levels less than air

33
Q

What is the optimum pH for most pathogenic bacteria?

A

6.5-7.5

34
Q

How do bacteria reproduce?

A

binary fission

35
Q

Of the epithelial cells that may be present in urine sediment, which is the smallest?

A

renal

36
Q

This crystal is most likely to be found in alkaline urine.

A) uric acid
B) cystine
C) leucine
D) triple phosphate

A

triple phosphate

37
Q

Casts found upon urinalysis are formed in the ___.

A

renal tubules

38
Q

Uroliths or calculi are composed of various ____.

A

minerals

39
Q

Creatine is a byproduct of:

A

muscle metabolism

40
Q

T/F. Some chemistry results may be altered by hemolysis.

A

true

41
Q

Once the Abaxis “rotors” have been removed from the foil packets they must be used within the next ____.

A

15 minutes

42
Q

Upon testing, the dog’s PCV was found to be below normal value. This would indicate a deficit in the ____.

A

red cell volume

43
Q

Red cell parasites would commonly contribute to a condition of _______ anemia.

A

regenerative

44
Q

T/F. Blood coagulation is a relatively simple process. As long as platelets are available in normal values, the animal’s blood will clot in a timely manner.

A

false

45
Q

T/F. A lipemic serum sample may falsely lower some test results.

A

true

46
Q

ALT or AST. If you could only run one test for determining liver function, which would be most helpful?

A

ALT

47
Q

Blood cell “indices” are useful calculations in situations of ____.

A

anemia

48
Q

A ____ count is helpful when assessing bone marrow response for erythrocyte production.

A

reticulocyte

49
Q

When a blood urea nitrogen test is ordered, the veterinarian wants to evaluate ____ function.

A

kidney

50
Q

A sweet or fruity odor associated with a urine sample might indicate ____.

A

ketones

51
Q

The specific gravity of polyuric animals tends to be ___.

A

low

52
Q

An animal that is polyuric and polydipsic may have this disease.

A

diabetes

53
Q

Hepatic disease or bile duct obstruction may elevate _____ levels.

A

bilirubin

54
Q

Small numbers of _______ cells are normally present in voided urine.

A

transitional

55
Q

What is the normal range for urine pH in a canine?

A

5.5-7.5

56
Q

T/F. PT results using the VSPro give value to the intrinsic elements of coagulation.

A

false

57
Q

Oil droplets found upon microscopic examination of urine may be due to ___.

A

a lubricated catheter

58
Q

During which stage of the estrus cycle of the bitch is the owner most likely to detect the dog is in heat?

A

proestrust

59
Q

This leukocyte may be elevated in number when an animal has parasites.

A

eosinophil

60
Q

This leukocyte may be elevated in number with a chronic condition like TB.

A

monocyte

61
Q

This leukocyte may be elevated in number with inflammation or infection.

A

neutrophil

62
Q

The high dry objective on our microscopes have a total magnification of ___X normal size.

A

400

63
Q

To grade as “very good” a bull must meet the criteria of no more than ____ primary abnormalties.

A

10

64
Q

Sperm morphology considered abnormalities of the ___ as primary.

A) head
B) midpiece
C) tail
D) all of the above

A

all of the above

65
Q

T/F. Bull sperm morphology must be evaluated on 10X.

A

false

66
Q

T/F. The “InPouch TF” test is specific for T. foetus in cattle.

A

false

67
Q

T/F. “Trich” is a reportable disease.

A

true

68
Q

Why is testing of bulls greater than 4 years of age more difficult?

A

organisms harbored in penile crypts