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Exits > Radiology > Flashcards

Radiology Flashcards

1
Q

What are routine views of the canine/feline carpus?

A

lateral and dorsopalmar

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2
Q

What are additonal views of the canine/feline carpus?

A

lateral flexed, medial oblique, lateral oblique, stressed, lateral horizontal beam

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3
Q

Which view of the canine/feline carpus are comparisons common?

A

lateral flexed

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4
Q

Which view of the canine/feline carpus is weight bearing?

A

lateral horizontal beam

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5
Q

When looking at the lateral view of the carpus, which leg is closest to the cassette?

A

the affected limb

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6
Q

Why are oblique views helpful?

A

some injuries are difficult to detect radiologically on the standard projections

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7
Q

What is often very helpful for obtaining quality radiographs of the vertebral column?

A

heavy sedation or general anesthesia

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8
Q

What can happen if taking radiographs made without anesthesia of the cervical vertebrae?

A

false narrowing of the intervertebral disc spaces can result from muscle spasm and poor positioning

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9
Q

Why is a grid always used to increase the detail and contrast of the radiograph when doing cervical vertebrae radiographs?

A

the patient is anesthetized and motion is not usually a factor

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10
Q

How many vertebrae should you collimate down to per x-ray? Why?

A

3-4. To avoid distortion and false narrowing of the vertebral spaces.

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11
Q

What are routine views of the canine/feline cervical vertebrae?

A

lateral and VD view

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12
Q

What are additional views of canine/feline vertebrae?

A

flexed lateral and extended laterals, lateral obliques, DV, open mouth VD

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13
Q

What is the purpose of a lateral oblique view of the cervical vertebrae?

A

localize a lesion observed on the lateral and/or VD projection

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14
Q

What are advantages of intraoral film?

A

small, flexible, inexpensive

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15
Q

Why does intraoral film have a foil backing?

A

to absorb exit radiation and reduce back scatter and scatter

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16
Q

Direct exposure film is mainly used for what?

A

extremeties, dental, avian, small exotics or dental radiographs where high detail is needed

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17
Q

What is an overbite?

A

upper jaw longer than lower jaw

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18
Q

What is an underbite?

A

lower teeth longer (protrudes) in front of upper jaw (teeth)

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19
Q

Teeth that are mobile should always be _______.

A

radiographed

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20
Q

Should you do dental radiographs before and after extractions?

A

yes

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21
Q

Open mouth lateral dental views are used to what?

A

evaluate the dental arcade and jaw structures

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22
Q

How do you keep upper and lower arcades away from each other?

A

use radiolucent mouth gag/speculum

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23
Q

When taking a mandible x-ray, how should the patient be placed?

A

dorsal recumbency with front limbs extended caudally

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24
Q

What can LVTs NOT do when it comes to dentals?

A

no removal of multi rooted teeth in small animals, no removal of any equine teeth, no root canals

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25
Q

What are the three basic components of a dental x-ray machine?

A

x-ray tube head, adjustable arm, control panel

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26
Q

The tube head is what?

A

where the anode and cathode are located and is where the x-rays are produced

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27
Q

Where is the anode and cathode located?

A

tube head

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28
Q

What does PID stand for?

A

positioning indicating device

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29
Q

What does the PID do?

A

helps collimate the x-rays and provide less scatter radiation while the image is being produced

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30
Q

What are the 3 types of imagine receptors in veterinary medicine?

A

film, digital, phosphor plates

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31
Q

What type film is most commonly used in vet med?

A

D

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32
Q

What are advantages of the phosphor plates over DR?

A

ease of use, versatility, multiple plate sizes available, no cord to limit movement, easier to place in mouth

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33
Q

What are advatnages of phosphor plates over film?

A

no chemicals as with film, faster than developing manually or even with autoprocessor

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34
Q

A dental study calls for a minimum of how many views?

A

8-12

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35
Q

What two techniques are used for dental radiographs?

A

parallel, bisecting angle

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36
Q

The parallel technique is used to obtain images of the what?

A

mandibular fourth pre-molars and molar teeth in dogs/cats

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37
Q

How do you correct foreshortening?

A

increasing the angle between the sensor and the beam

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38
Q

What are routine views of a femur radiograph?

A

lateral, craniocaudal (AP) (VD extended)

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39
Q

What are alternative views of a femur radiograph?

A

cross table projection or horizontal beam view

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40
Q

When taking a femur radiograph, what leg is closest to the cassette?

A

affected limb

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41
Q

What should the field of view in a femur radiograph contain?

A

hipjoint, femur, stifle joint

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42
Q

The femur not running parallel can cause what?

A

foreshortening of the limb

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43
Q

When x-raying the lumbar vertebrae, how many vertebrae should you collimate to?

A

2-3

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44
Q

What are routine views of the metatarsus-phalanges?

A

lateral, dorsoplantar or plantardorsal

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45
Q

What are standard views of the canine/feline stifle joint?

A

medial lateral lateral, caudocranial

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46
Q

What are alternative views of the canine/feline stifle joint?

A

craniocaudal, skyline projection of patella

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47
Q

What are routine views of the canine/feline tarsus?

A

lateral, platarodorsal

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48
Q

What is an alternate view of the canine/feline tarsus?

A

dorsoplantar

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49
Q

What are routine views of thorax radiographs?

A

right lateral, left lateral, DV and VD

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50
Q

What are alternative views of thorax radiographs?

A

horizontal beam, lateral, VD, DV

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51
Q

What is the field of view on thorax radiographs?

A

thoracic inlet to diaphragm (8th-13th rib)

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52
Q

With thorax radiographs, why is it important to extend the forelegs cranially?

A

so the heart can be seen

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53
Q

When should you use a grid?

A

if area is over 10cm

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54
Q

For good visualization of internal soft tissue structures, you should have ___ kvp and ____ mas.

A

high, low

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55
Q

When taking a thorax radiograph, where should you center the beam?

A

at the heart (6th rib)

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56
Q

When taking a thorax radiograph, when should you take the radiograph?

A

at peak respiration to allow complete visualizaton of lung tissue

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57
Q

What is the preferred view for pneumothorax?

A

DV

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58
Q

What is the recommended view for evaluating lung fields?

A

VD

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59
Q

What is the best view for viewing the accessory lung lobes?

A

VD

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60
Q

What thorax view is contraindicated for animals in respiratory distress?

A

VDd

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61
Q

Which lateral view (R or L) gives a more accurate view of cardiac silhouette?

A

right

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62
Q

What thorax view is used to confirm presence of fluid or free air in thoracic cavity?

A

standing lateral horizontal beam

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63
Q

What are routine views for tibia/fibula radiographs?

A

lateral, caudocranial

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64
Q

Which side of the limb is a marker usually placed on for a tibia/fibula x-ray?

A

cranial

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65
Q

What are the two primary computerized imaging choices?

A

converted radiography (CR) or direct digital radiography (DR)

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66
Q

With the CR, how long do you have to scan the plate?

A

24 hours

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67
Q

What are the two basic categories of contrast media?

A

positive and negative

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68
Q

What are the routes of administering contrast media?

A

IV, orally, urinary catheter, enema

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69
Q

What is the most commonly used negative contrast agent?

A

air

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70
Q

Negative contrast agents appear what?

A

radiolucent (dark colored)

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71
Q

Examples of negative contrast agents.

A

air, oxygen, carbon dioxide, carbonated beverages

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72
Q

Which negative contrast agent is more likely to cause an embolism?

A

air

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73
Q

Which negative contrast agent is a fire hazard?

A

oxygen

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74
Q

What studies are negative contrast agents used for?

A

stomach, upper and lower GI, bladder

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75
Q

How are negative contrast agents administered?

A

stomach tube, enema, urinary catheter

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76
Q

What are the two major types of positive contrast agents?

A

barium sulfate, iodine compound

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77
Q

What are the two types of iodine compound contrast agents?

A

water-soluble, viscous/oily agents

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78
Q

Positive contrast agents appear as what?

A

radiopaque (appear white)

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79
Q

What are positive contrast agents used for?

A

to fill or outline a hollow organ, injected into blood vessels

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80
Q

What studies are positive contrast agents used for?

A

stomach, GI tract, urinary bladder, excretion evaluation, vascular supply

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81
Q

What is the most commonly used positive contrast agent?

A

barium sulfate

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82
Q

What is the contrast agent of choice to visualize foreign bodies?

A

barium sulfate

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83
Q

Which positive contrast agent is never administered IV?

A

barium

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84
Q

What positive contrast agent do you want to avoid if you suspect a rupture?

A

barium

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85
Q

How is barium administered?

A

orally, stomach tube, enema

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86
Q

What happens if barium is accidentally aspirated into the trachea?

A

usually cleared by coughing, if reaches the small bronci and alveoli, can result in drowning

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87
Q

What is radiopaque iodine excreted by?

A

the kidneys

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88
Q

If you use radiopaque iodine in dehydrated patients, what does it do?

A

increases dehydration

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89
Q

Which iodine cannot be administered intravascular?

A

oily/viscous iodine

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90
Q

What is a double contrast study?

A

uses both negative and positive contrast media

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91
Q

What is a common combination for a double contrast study?

A

barium and air

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92
Q

A double contrast study provides what?

A

a good distention, optimal mucosal detail

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93
Q

What does a double contrast study avoid?

A

masking small anomalies by large volume of positive-contrast media

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94
Q

What contrast studies are included in the GI section?

A

esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, gall bladder

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95
Q

What is an esophography also known as?

A

barium swallow

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96
Q

what is a barium swallow also known as?

A

esophography

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97
Q

What does a barium swallow look at?

A

function and morphology

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98
Q

What does a gastrography look at?

A

stomach - size, shape, position, foreign objects and morphology

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99
Q

What does an upper GI study look at?

A

stomach and small intestine (small intestine preferred) - foreign objects, torsions, perforation

100
Q

What does a lower GI study include?

A

large intestine, barium enema (rectum colon and cecum)

101
Q

What does a cholecystography look at?

A

bile ducts and gall bladder

102
Q

What does a urinary system study look at?

A

kidneys, bladder, ureters, urethra

103
Q

When doing a kidney study, what do you look at?

A

renal collection system, kidney structure and collection

104
Q

How is a kidney study done?

A

intravenous pyelogram (IVP), and intravenous urogram (IVU)

105
Q

What is a cystography looking at?

A

urinary bladder

106
Q

What is a pneumocystogram?

A

urinary bladder with negative-contrast technique (usually air)

107
Q

What study looks at the urethra?

A

retrograde urethrogram, urethrography, urethrogram

108
Q

What happens with a urethrogram?

A

contrast medium is voided from urinary bladder

109
Q

What does an angiocardiography look at?

A

intravenous - vascular system and chambers of the heart

110
Q

What does an arthrography look at?

A

joint space and joint capsules

111
Q

What does a celiogram look at?

A

abdominal cavity and integrity of diaphragm

112
Q

What does a fistulography look at?

A

depth, extent and origin of fistulous tract

113
Q

When does a lymphography look at?

A

lymphatic vessels and lymph nodes

114
Q

What does a pneumoperitoneography look at?

A

abdominal viscera, peritoneal cavity

115
Q

What does a myelography look at?

A

subarachnoid space surrounding the spinal cord

116
Q

What does a sialography look at?

A

salivary glands and ducts

117
Q

Why should you avoid using atropine when doing GI studies?

A

slow intestinal transit time

118
Q

Take ___ or ___ before a contrast study.

A

prelims, surveys

119
Q

Define cystography.

A

radiographic study of the bladder utilizing a contrast agent

120
Q

What are indications of a cystography?

A

hematuria, crystalluria, bacteruria

121
Q

Define dysuria.

A

painful or difficult urination

122
Q

When were x-rays first discovered and by who?

A
  1. Wilheml Konrad Roentgen
123
Q

What does RAD stand for?

A

radiation absorbed dose

124
Q

What does REM stand for/

A

radiation equivalent man

125
Q

What is 1 thousandth of a REM?

A

mrem

126
Q

How many REMs is 1 sievert?

A

100

127
Q

How many REMs is 1 Gray?

A

100

128
Q

100REM is how many Grays?

A

1

129
Q

100REM is how many Sieverts?

A

1

130
Q

What is mrem?

A

1 thousandths of a REM

131
Q

What 2 agencies set allowable standards for occupational exposures to radiation?

A

The Nuclear Regulatory Commission and state regulatory agencies

132
Q

What can acute radiation exposure cause?

A

prompt of delayed effects, hand/finger burns may occur, no immediate pain or heat, no immediate observable reaction

133
Q

What does acute radiation exposure usually refer to?

A

a large dose received in a short amount of time

134
Q

What are signs of acute radiation injuries?

A

hair loss, redness/selling, fluid-filled pockets, ulceration/necrosis

135
Q

What are signs of somatic injuries?

A

cancer, cataracts, blood, CNS, sterility

136
Q

Can radiation cause temporary/permanent infertility?

A

yes

137
Q

When is the fetus most sensitive to radiation?

A

first 2 weeks

138
Q

What are 3 main sources of exposure?

A

tube head, scatter, primary beam

139
Q

1 RAD = ___ = ___

A

1REM = 1R

140
Q

What does MPD stand for?

A

maximum permissible dose

141
Q

What is the MPD for non-occupationally exposed civilians per year?

A

0.1 REM or 100 rems

142
Q

What is the MPD for occupationally exposed civilians per year?

A

5REMS

143
Q

What is the equation to figure out lifetime MPD?

A

5(n-18)

144
Q

What should you check x-ray machines for yearly?

A

calibration, leaks, sufficient filtration, proper input voltage, accuracy of timers, collimation, machine exposure factors

145
Q

What are disadvantages of automatic processing over manual tanks?

A

must change chemicals and clean machine more often, use more chemicals, chemicals more expensive, less leeway in chemical temperatures

146
Q

What is the steps of tanks?

A

developer, fix, wash, dryer

147
Q

What kind of automatic processors are less expensive?

A

hot water

148
Q

What kind of radiographs have a higher KVP setting?

A

abdominal

149
Q

Why is a grid necessary for areas of dense tissue?

A

to maintain image clarity

150
Q

When doing a scapula x-ray, which side needs to be down?

A

affected side

151
Q

How many kvp does 1 inch equal?

A

2

152
Q

What does mHz stand for?

A

megahertz

153
Q

What are uses of ultrasonography?

A

guide biopsy needles and diagnostic aid

154
Q

What are some disadvantages of ultrasonography?

A

can’t penetrate gas/bone, fat animal attenuates beam fast, some heat generation as waves create movement of tissue they hit

155
Q

What does attenuate mean?

A

lower/decrease power

156
Q

What are some common frequences of transdcers used in ultrasonography?

A

3.5mHz, 5.0 mHz, 7.5 mHz

157
Q

Define anechoic.

A

no ecoes come back

158
Q

What color of area is an anechoic area?

A

dark

159
Q

What mode is used in opthalmic ultrasound?

A

A-mode

160
Q

Acoustic impedence is determined by what?

A

material density and velocity of sound propagation through the material

161
Q

Lower frequency sound beams provide greater what?

A

tissue penetration

162
Q

What can reverberation echoes appear as?

A

columns of parallel lines

163
Q

When do reverberation echoes occur?

A

when beam hits gas or air

164
Q

When does shadowing occur with ultrasound?

A

with inadequate sound beam through transmission

165
Q

What does the CR scanner do?

A

converts radiograph to digital image

166
Q

What are the 3 types of x-ray machines?

A

portable, mobile, stationary

167
Q

What are four types of basic dental x-ray machines?

A

standard table-top, stationary unit, portable, hand-held unit

168
Q

Which pelvis view will require the greatest increase in technique?

A) double lateral
B) lateral
C) frog leg
D) VD extended

A

double lateral

169
Q

Which VD view of the pelvis is best for trauma cases because you do not have to apply much pull to the legs?

A

frog leg

170
Q

For which pelvis view must you rotate the femurs so that the patellas are centered?

A

VD extended

171
Q

A pelvis view is much underexposed. What technique change is needed?

A

double the mAs

172
Q

When doing an OFA hip dysplasia study, which other study is often performed?

A

flexed lateral elbow comparisons

173
Q

T or F. Hip laxity is associated with hip dysplasia.

A

True

174
Q

Which view of the pelvis requires increasing 6-8 kvp over what a canine extremity technique chart indicates?

A

double lateral

175
Q

When manually developing radiographs, the temperature of which tank is most critical when determining the length of time to develop the film?

A

developer

176
Q

Over developing a radiograph will cause:

A) increased radiographic density with poor contrast
B) decreased radiographic density with poor contrast
C) good radiographic density with poor contrast
D) uneven development of the radiograph

A

increased radiographic density with poor contrast

177
Q

A radiograph that initially looks fine by with time becomes faded and brown is the result of what/

A

too little time in the final wash

178
Q

Control of bacterial, fungal and algal growth in hand-processing tanks is accomplished by cleaning the tanks with:

A) 1% chlorine bleach
B) 1% iodine compound
C) mild dish soap
D) 409
E) any good disinfectant
A

1% chlorine bleach

179
Q

Where in the developing process are the sensitized silver bromide and halide crystals changed into black metallic silver?

A

developer

180
Q

Where is the developing process are the unexposed silver halide crystals cleared from the film’s emulsion

A

fix

181
Q

What mistake in the darkroom might be the cause of an exposed radiograph to be “clear” after the developing process is complete?

A

emerging the film into the fix tank first

182
Q

Where in the darkroom are the cassettes loaded and unloaded?

A

dry bench

183
Q

A lateral view of the third phalanx is made with the x-ray beam positioned how?

A

parallel to the ground and perpendicular to the cassette

184
Q

What device can be used to protect the assistant during a lateral view of the distal phalanx?

A) cassette tunnel
B) wood block with slot to hold cassette
C) cassette holder with a clamp and long handle
D) Both “B” and “C” are correct

A

Both “B” and “C” are correct

185
Q

You are preparing to take an x-ray of a rat. The machine does not have a “rat” technique chart. What machine settings should you use?

A

use the log book settings for a similar sized animal

186
Q

Which of the following femur views would be considered an additional or alternative view rather than a routine view?

A) lateral
B) craniocaudal
C) anterior posterior
D) ventrodorsal extended
E) cross table horizontal beam
A

cross table horizontal beam

187
Q

T/F. When taking a posterior-anterior view of the femur, because of the structure of the femur, it is sometimes difficult to position the femur so that it runs parallel to the cassette. The femur NOT running parallel can cause foreshortening of the limb, altering the true length and shape of the bone.

A

True

188
Q

T/F. For the lateral view of the femur a foam pad can be placed under the proximal tibia to alleviate any rotation of the femur.

A

True

189
Q

T/F. For the femur radiograph collimate the field of view to include the hip joint, femur and stifle joint.

A

True

190
Q

Which view of the navicular bone will have the least amount of distortion due to machine positioning?

A

lateromedial projection

191
Q

When taking the lateral view of the navicular bone, the lower edge of the cassette should be positioned where?

A

an inch or so lower than the sole of the hoof

192
Q

When positioning for a dorsoproximal-palmarodistal (upright pedal) view of the navicular bone, the primary beam runs where?

A

parallel to the floor

193
Q

What are the four routine views needed to study the distal sesamoids?

A

dorso-palmer 45 degrees, dorso-palmer 65 degrees, flexor, lateral

194
Q

What of the below is NOT a standard view taken for navicular x-rays?

A) DP at 45 degree angle
B) DP at 65 degree angle
C) DP
D) Lateral
E) Flexor
A

DP

195
Q

Which of the views listed is taken with the horse standing on the cassette (protected in a holder of course) and the beam enters from the posterior side of the horse’s leg?

A) DP at 45 degree angle
B) DP at 65 degree angle
C) DP
D) Lateral
E) Flexor
A

flexor

196
Q

A lateral view of the navicular is made with the beam where?

A

parallel to the ground and perpendicular to the cassette

197
Q

T/F. For a left lateral avian view, the left wing and limb are positioned caudally to the right wing and leg.

A

False.

198
Q

When preparing to perform a navicular study of a horse with shoes, what should you do?

A

with permission, remove the shoe, clean and pack the hoof

199
Q

Which view of the navicular requires that the horse lean forward to stretch the leg out away from the navicular?

A

Flexor

200
Q

Which view of the navicular has 3 different methods that may be used for positioning?

A

dorso palmer

201
Q

In order to prevent an air artifact superimposed over the area of interest when radiographing the equine foot, which of the following materials works the best to pack the sole of the hoof with?

A

play-doh

202
Q

The two standard views for the canine or feline stifle include what?

A

mediolateral and caudocranial

203
Q

On which view will object to film distance cause some magnification and distortion?

A) Lateral
B) Lateral-medial
C) Skyline
D) Caudal-cranial
E) craniocaudal
A

Skyline

204
Q

Which canine/feline stifle view(s) may be taken utilizing a horizontal x-ray beam?

A

sunrise and caudal cranial

205
Q

What type of tape is NOT acceptable to use across the beak of a bird if the head is in the path of the beam?

A

adhesive tape

206
Q

T/F. For a tarsal radiograph the field of view will include the entire radius and ulna, tarsus and metatarsals.

A

False

207
Q

For the plantar dorsal view of the tarsus, the patient is placed in ____ recumbency with the affected limb extended caudally.

A

sternal

208
Q

Some rabbits can be momentarily “hypnotized” by:

A) covering the eyes and stroking the ventral midline
B) covering the eyes
C) stroking the ventral midline
D) covering the eyes and stroking along the back
E) none of the above

A

covering the eyes and stroking the ventral midline

209
Q

What oxygen flow rate is used with a 3-gallon chamber?

A

3000 ml/min

210
Q

When using a chamber for induction the patient is placed in the chamber and given straight oxygen for how many minutes?

A

5

211
Q

When using chamber induction and isoflurance, you start the anesthetic at what?

A

0.5% and then increased by 0.5% every 30 seconds

212
Q

What is the maximum setting that should be used with isoflurane when using a chamber?

A

4%

213
Q

T/F. When evaluating the depth of anesthesia in the rat or other small mammal, you need to take the respiration rate while the patient is on straight oxygen, as soon as they are unconscious and every few minutes during the procedure.

A

True

214
Q

During recovery the rat or other small mammal should be placed where?

A

in the oxygen chamber until able to walk

215
Q

T/F. To aid in obtaining a diagnostic radiograph, the horse much be standing squarely.

A

true

216
Q

T/F. Removing the horse shoe is important when imaging through the fetlock joint utilizing a lateral view.

A

False

217
Q

T/F. Proper foot preparation including packing the sole of the hoof is important when imaging through the fetlock joint utilizing a lateral to medial view.

A

False

218
Q

T/F. The cassette used for equine radiographs should not be handheld during exposure.

A

True

219
Q

The distal phalanx (coffin bone) could also be referred to as the what?

A

3rd phalanx

220
Q

For which study does the hoof need to be cleaned and packed with radiolucent material?

A

dorsopalmer view of the coffin and navicular bones

221
Q

When working in radiology, remember to always wear what?

A

lab jacket, lead apron, lead gloves

222
Q

Film badges are normally worn where?

A

on top of the lead apron at the neck area

223
Q

T/F. AAHA recommends that minors and owners do NOT assist with radiographs.

A

True

224
Q

When using film badges as the dosimeter, how often should the badges be changed?

A

depends on the number of x-rays taken

225
Q

What is the name of the device used to measure radiation exposure to personnel?

A

dosimeter

226
Q

For a whole body study of the rat or guinea pig the measurement with the caliper is taken where?

A

over the widest part of the patient being x-rayed and read in centimeters

227
Q

T/F. For a rat or guinea pig whole body study, dorsoventral view using the vertical beam, one method of restraint is to place the patient in a light weight cardboard box and place the box on the cassette to take the radiograph.

A

True

228
Q

T/F. For the dorsoventral view of the guinea pig, both the left and right side of the guinea pig should be identified.

A

True

229
Q

For the comfort of the patient, which view should be performed utilizing a horizontal beam?

A

lateral

230
Q

T/F. Magnification and distortion can be reduced by keeping the object to film distance as small as possible.

A

True

231
Q

T/F. When utilizing a horizontal beam, the x-ray beam and patient should be centered on the cassette.

A

True

232
Q

For a simple non-painful procedure, what dose of Dexdomitor would be administered to a 6kg cat? (0.02 ml/kg)(0.5 mg/ml)

A

6 kg x 0.02 ml = 0.1 ml

0.1 ml

233
Q

What does of Dexdomitor would be administered to a 30 lb dog? (0.02 ml/kg)(0.5 mg/ml)

A

30 lb / 2.2 kg = 13.64 kg

  1. 64 kg x 0.02 =
  2. 2 ml
234
Q

What dose of reversal agent would be administered to a 10kg dog? Dexdom = (0.02 ml/kg)(0.5 mg/ml)

A

10 kg x 0.02 =

0.2 ml of reversal agent

235
Q

What is the reversal agent for Dexdomitor?

A

Antisedan

236
Q

By which route is the reversal agent for Dexdomitor administered?

A

IM

237
Q

At a dose of 20 mcg/kg and a concentration of 10 mg/ml, how many ml of Dormosedan will be administered to a 1200 lb horse?

A

1) 1200 / 2.2 = 545.45 kg
2) 545.45 kg x 20 mcg = 10909 mcg
3) 10909 mcg / 1000 mg = 10.9 mg
4) 10.9 mg / 10 mg = 1.09

= 1 ml of Dormosedan

238
Q

At a dose of 10 mcg/kg and a concentration of 10 mg/ml, how much Detomidine would you administer to a 980 lb horse?

A

1) 980 / 2.2 = 445.45 kg
2) 445.45 kg x 10 mcg = 4454.5 mcg
3) 4454.5 mcg / 1000 mg = 4.4 mg
4) 4.4 mg / 10 = 0.4

= 0.4 ml of Detomidine

239
Q

If you calculated the dose of Detomidine to be 4.89 mg and you administered 0.4 ml, how many mg was administered?

A

4.89 / 10 = 4

= 4 mg was administered

240
Q

At a dose of 20 mcg/kg and a concentration of 10 mg/ml, how many ml of Dormosedan will be administered to a 700 kg horse?

A

1) 700 kg x 20 mcg = 14000
2) 14000 mcg / 1000 mg = 14 mg
3) 14 mg / 10 mg = 1.4

= 1.4 ml of Dormosedan

241
Q

Barium will kill a patient if given __.

A

IV

242
Q

Is megaesophagus more common in cats or dogs?

A

dogs

243
Q

Accurate technique charts will help decrease what?

A

the number of retakes

244
Q

What technique chart is used when kvp cannot be adjusted in small increments?

A

variable mAs

245
Q

What are some errors of vertical angulation?

A

elongation, increase angle of tube head, foreshortening, angle is too steep, decrease angle of tube

Exits (12 decks)

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