Radiology Flashcards
(245 cards)
1
Q
What are routine views of the canine/feline carpus?
A
lateral and dorsopalmar
2
Q
What are additonal views of the canine/feline carpus?
A
lateral flexed, medial oblique, lateral oblique, stressed, lateral horizontal beam
3
Q
Which view of the canine/feline carpus are comparisons common?
A
lateral flexed
4
Q
Which view of the canine/feline carpus is weight bearing?
A
lateral horizontal beam
5
Q
When looking at the lateral view of the carpus, which leg is closest to the cassette?
A
the affected limb
6
Q
Why are oblique views helpful?
A
some injuries are difficult to detect radiologically on the standard projections
7
Q
What is often very helpful for obtaining quality radiographs of the vertebral column?
A
heavy sedation or general anesthesia
8
Q
What can happen if taking radiographs made without anesthesia of the cervical vertebrae?
A
false narrowing of the intervertebral disc spaces can result from muscle spasm and poor positioning
9
Q
Why is a grid always used to increase the detail and contrast of the radiograph when doing cervical vertebrae radiographs?
A
the patient is anesthetized and motion is not usually a factor
10
Q
How many vertebrae should you collimate down to per x-ray? Why?
A
3-4. To avoid distortion and false narrowing of the vertebral spaces.
11
Q
What are routine views of the canine/feline cervical vertebrae?
A
lateral and VD view
12
Q
What are additional views of canine/feline vertebrae?
A
flexed lateral and extended laterals, lateral obliques, DV, open mouth VD
13
Q
What is the purpose of a lateral oblique view of the cervical vertebrae?
A
localize a lesion observed on the lateral and/or VD projection
14
Q
What are advantages of intraoral film?
A
small, flexible, inexpensive
15
Q
Why does intraoral film have a foil backing?
A
to absorb exit radiation and reduce back scatter and scatter
16
Q
Direct exposure film is mainly used for what?
A
extremeties, dental, avian, small exotics or dental radiographs where high detail is needed
17
Q
What is an overbite?
A
upper jaw longer than lower jaw
18
Q
What is an underbite?
A
lower teeth longer (protrudes) in front of upper jaw (teeth)
19
Q
Teeth that are mobile should always be _______.
A
radiographed
20
Q
Should you do dental radiographs before and after extractions?
A
yes
21
Q
Open mouth lateral dental views are used to what?
A
evaluate the dental arcade and jaw structures
22
Q
How do you keep upper and lower arcades away from each other?
A
use radiolucent mouth gag/speculum
23
Q
When taking a mandible x-ray, how should the patient be placed?
A
dorsal recumbency with front limbs extended caudally
24
Q
What can LVTs NOT do when it comes to dentals?
A
no removal of multi rooted teeth in small animals, no removal of any equine teeth, no root canals
25
What are the three basic components of a dental x-ray machine?
x-ray tube head, adjustable arm, control panel
26
The tube head is what?
where the anode and cathode are located and is where the x-rays are produced
27
Where is the anode and cathode located?
tube head
28
What does PID stand for?
positioning indicating device
29
What does the PID do?
helps collimate the x-rays and provide less scatter radiation while the image is being produced
30
What are the 3 types of imagine receptors in veterinary medicine?
film, digital, phosphor plates
31
What type film is most commonly used in vet med?
D
32
What are advantages of the phosphor plates over DR?
ease of use, versatility, multiple plate sizes available, no cord to limit movement, easier to place in mouth
33
What are advatnages of phosphor plates over film?
no chemicals as with film, faster than developing manually or even with autoprocessor
34
A dental study calls for a minimum of how many views?
8-12
35
What two techniques are used for dental radiographs?
parallel, bisecting angle
36
The parallel technique is used to obtain images of the what?
mandibular fourth pre-molars and molar teeth in dogs/cats
37
How do you correct foreshortening?
increasing the angle between the sensor and the beam
38
What are routine views of a femur radiograph?
lateral, craniocaudal (AP) (VD extended)
39
What are alternative views of a femur radiograph?
cross table projection or horizontal beam view
40
When taking a femur radiograph, what leg is closest to the cassette?
affected limb
41
What should the field of view in a femur radiograph contain?
hipjoint, femur, stifle joint
42
The femur not running parallel can cause what?
foreshortening of the limb
43
When x-raying the lumbar vertebrae, how many vertebrae should you collimate to?
2-3
44
What are routine views of the metatarsus-phalanges?
lateral, dorsoplantar or plantardorsal
45
What are standard views of the canine/feline stifle joint?
medial lateral lateral, caudocranial
46
What are alternative views of the canine/feline stifle joint?
craniocaudal, skyline projection of patella
47
What are routine views of the canine/feline tarsus?
lateral, platarodorsal
48
What is an alternate view of the canine/feline tarsus?
dorsoplantar
49
What are routine views of thorax radiographs?
right lateral, left lateral, DV and VD
50
What are alternative views of thorax radiographs?
horizontal beam, lateral, VD, DV
51
What is the field of view on thorax radiographs?
thoracic inlet to diaphragm (8th-13th rib)
52
With thorax radiographs, why is it important to extend the forelegs cranially?
so the heart can be seen
53
When should you use a grid?
if area is over 10cm
54
For good visualization of internal soft tissue structures, you should have ___ kvp and ____ mas.
high, low
55
When taking a thorax radiograph, where should you center the beam?
at the heart (6th rib)
56
When taking a thorax radiograph, when should you take the radiograph?
at peak respiration to allow complete visualizaton of lung tissue
57
What is the preferred view for pneumothorax?
DV
58
What is the recommended view for evaluating lung fields?
VD
59
What is the best view for viewing the accessory lung lobes?
VD
60
What thorax view is contraindicated for animals in respiratory distress?
VDd
61
Which lateral view (R or L) gives a more accurate view of cardiac silhouette?
right
62
What thorax view is used to confirm presence of fluid or free air in thoracic cavity?
standing lateral horizontal beam
63
What are routine views for tibia/fibula radiographs?
lateral, caudocranial
64
Which side of the limb is a marker usually placed on for a tibia/fibula x-ray?
cranial
65
What are the two primary computerized imaging choices?
converted radiography (CR) or direct digital radiography (DR)
66
With the CR, how long do you have to scan the plate?
24 hours
67
What are the two basic categories of contrast media?
positive and negative
68
What are the routes of administering contrast media?
IV, orally, urinary catheter, enema
69
What is the most commonly used negative contrast agent?
air
70
Negative contrast agents appear what?
radiolucent (dark colored)
71
Examples of negative contrast agents.
air, oxygen, carbon dioxide, carbonated beverages
72
Which negative contrast agent is more likely to cause an embolism?
air
73
Which negative contrast agent is a fire hazard?
oxygen
74
What studies are negative contrast agents used for?
stomach, upper and lower GI, bladder
75
How are negative contrast agents administered?
stomach tube, enema, urinary catheter
76
What are the two major types of positive contrast agents?
barium sulfate, iodine compound
77
What are the two types of iodine compound contrast agents?
water-soluble, viscous/oily agents
78
Positive contrast agents appear as what?
radiopaque (appear white)
79
What are positive contrast agents used for?
to fill or outline a hollow organ, injected into blood vessels
80
What studies are positive contrast agents used for?
stomach, GI tract, urinary bladder, excretion evaluation, vascular supply
81
What is the most commonly used positive contrast agent?
barium sulfate
82
What is the contrast agent of choice to visualize foreign bodies?
barium sulfate
83
Which positive contrast agent is never administered IV?
barium
84
What positive contrast agent do you want to avoid if you suspect a rupture?
barium
85
How is barium administered?
orally, stomach tube, enema
86
What happens if barium is accidentally aspirated into the trachea?
usually cleared by coughing, if reaches the small bronci and alveoli, can result in drowning
87
What is radiopaque iodine excreted by?
the kidneys
88
If you use radiopaque iodine in dehydrated patients, what does it do?
increases dehydration
89
Which iodine cannot be administered intravascular?
oily/viscous iodine
90
What is a double contrast study?
uses both negative and positive contrast media
91
What is a common combination for a double contrast study?
barium and air
92
A double contrast study provides what?
a good distention, optimal mucosal detail
93
What does a double contrast study avoid?
masking small anomalies by large volume of positive-contrast media
94
What contrast studies are included in the GI section?
esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, gall bladder
95
What is an esophography also known as?
barium swallow
96
what is a barium swallow also known as?
esophography
97
What does a barium swallow look at?
function and morphology
98
What does a gastrography look at?
stomach - size, shape, position, foreign objects and morphology
99
What does an upper GI study look at?
stomach and small intestine (small intestine preferred) - foreign objects, torsions, perforation
100
What does a lower GI study include?
large intestine, barium enema (rectum colon and cecum)
101
What does a cholecystography look at?
bile ducts and gall bladder
102
What does a urinary system study look at?
kidneys, bladder, ureters, urethra
103
When doing a kidney study, what do you look at?
renal collection system, kidney structure and collection
104
How is a kidney study done?
intravenous pyelogram (IVP), and intravenous urogram (IVU)
105
What is a cystography looking at?
urinary bladder
106
What is a pneumocystogram?
urinary bladder with negative-contrast technique (usually air)
107
What study looks at the urethra?
retrograde urethrogram, urethrography, urethrogram
108
What happens with a urethrogram?
contrast medium is voided from urinary bladder
109
What does an angiocardiography look at?
intravenous - vascular system and chambers of the heart
110
What does an arthrography look at?
joint space and joint capsules
111
What does a celiogram look at?
abdominal cavity and integrity of diaphragm
112
What does a fistulography look at?
depth, extent and origin of fistulous tract
113
When does a lymphography look at?
lymphatic vessels and lymph nodes
114
What does a pneumoperitoneography look at?
abdominal viscera, peritoneal cavity
115
What does a myelography look at?
subarachnoid space surrounding the spinal cord
116
What does a sialography look at?
salivary glands and ducts
117
Why should you avoid using atropine when doing GI studies?
slow intestinal transit time
118
Take ___ or ___ before a contrast study.
prelims, surveys
119
Define cystography.
radiographic study of the bladder utilizing a contrast agent
120
What are indications of a cystography?
hematuria, crystalluria, bacteruria
121
Define dysuria.
painful or difficult urination
122
When were x-rays first discovered and by who?
1895. Wilheml Konrad Roentgen
123
What does RAD stand for?
radiation absorbed dose
124
What does REM stand for/
radiation equivalent man
125
What is 1 thousandth of a REM?
mrem
126
How many REMs is 1 sievert?
100
127
How many REMs is 1 Gray?
100
128
100REM is how many Grays?
1
129
100REM is how many Sieverts?
1
130
What is mrem?
1 thousandths of a REM
131
What 2 agencies set allowable standards for occupational exposures to radiation?
The Nuclear Regulatory Commission and state regulatory agencies
132
What can acute radiation exposure cause?
prompt of delayed effects, hand/finger burns may occur, no immediate pain or heat, no immediate observable reaction
133
What does acute radiation exposure usually refer to?
a large dose received in a short amount of time
134
What are signs of acute radiation injuries?
hair loss, redness/selling, fluid-filled pockets, ulceration/necrosis
135
What are signs of somatic injuries?
cancer, cataracts, blood, CNS, sterility
136
Can radiation cause temporary/permanent infertility?
yes
137
When is the fetus most sensitive to radiation?
first 2 weeks
138
What are 3 main sources of exposure?
tube head, scatter, primary beam
139
1 RAD = ___ = ___
1REM = 1R
140
What does MPD stand for?
maximum permissible dose
141
What is the MPD for non-occupationally exposed civilians per year?
0.1 REM or 100 rems
142
What is the MPD for occupationally exposed civilians per year?
5REMS
143
What is the equation to figure out lifetime MPD?
5(n-18)
144
What should you check x-ray machines for yearly?
calibration, leaks, sufficient filtration, proper input voltage, accuracy of timers, collimation, machine exposure factors
145
What are disadvantages of automatic processing over manual tanks?
must change chemicals and clean machine more often, use more chemicals, chemicals more expensive, less leeway in chemical temperatures
146
What is the steps of tanks?
developer, fix, wash, dryer
147
What kind of automatic processors are less expensive?
hot water
148
What kind of radiographs have a higher KVP setting?
abdominal
149
Why is a grid necessary for areas of dense tissue?
to maintain image clarity
150
When doing a scapula x-ray, which side needs to be down?
affected side
151
How many kvp does 1 inch equal?
2
152
What does mHz stand for?
megahertz
153
What are uses of ultrasonography?
guide biopsy needles and diagnostic aid
154
What are some disadvantages of ultrasonography?
can't penetrate gas/bone, fat animal attenuates beam fast, some heat generation as waves create movement of tissue they hit
155
What does attenuate mean?
lower/decrease power
156
What are some common frequences of transdcers used in ultrasonography?
3.5mHz, 5.0 mHz, 7.5 mHz
157
Define anechoic.
no ecoes come back
158
What color of area is an anechoic area?
dark
159
What mode is used in opthalmic ultrasound?
A-mode
160
Acoustic impedence is determined by what?
material density and velocity of sound propagation through the material
161
Lower frequency sound beams provide greater what?
tissue penetration
162
What can reverberation echoes appear as?
columns of parallel lines
163
When do reverberation echoes occur?
when beam hits gas or air
164
When does shadowing occur with ultrasound?
with inadequate sound beam through transmission
165
What does the CR scanner do?
converts radiograph to digital image
166
What are the 3 types of x-ray machines?
portable, mobile, stationary
167
What are four types of basic dental x-ray machines?
standard table-top, stationary unit, portable, hand-held unit
168
Which pelvis view will require the greatest increase in technique?
A) double lateral
B) lateral
C) frog leg
D) VD extended
double lateral
169
Which VD view of the pelvis is best for trauma cases because you do not have to apply much pull to the legs?
frog leg
170
For which pelvis view must you rotate the femurs so that the patellas are centered?
VD extended
171
A pelvis view is much underexposed. What technique change is needed?
double the mAs
172
When doing an OFA hip dysplasia study, which other study is often performed?
flexed lateral elbow comparisons
173
T or F. Hip laxity is associated with hip dysplasia.
True
174
Which view of the pelvis requires increasing 6-8 kvp over what a canine extremity technique chart indicates?
double lateral
175
When manually developing radiographs, the temperature of which tank is most critical when determining the length of time to develop the film?
developer
176
Over developing a radiograph will cause:
A) increased radiographic density with poor contrast
B) decreased radiographic density with poor contrast
C) good radiographic density with poor contrast
D) uneven development of the radiograph
increased radiographic density with poor contrast
177
A radiograph that initially looks fine by with time becomes faded and brown is the result of what/
too little time in the final wash
178
Control of bacterial, fungal and algal growth in hand-processing tanks is accomplished by cleaning the tanks with:
```
A) 1% chlorine bleach
B) 1% iodine compound
C) mild dish soap
D) 409
E) any good disinfectant
```
1% chlorine bleach
179
Where in the developing process are the sensitized silver bromide and halide crystals changed into black metallic silver?
developer
180
Where is the developing process are the unexposed silver halide crystals cleared from the film's emulsion
fix
181
What mistake in the darkroom might be the cause of an exposed radiograph to be "clear" after the developing process is complete?
emerging the film into the fix tank first
182
Where in the darkroom are the cassettes loaded and unloaded?
dry bench
183
A lateral view of the third phalanx is made with the x-ray beam positioned how?
parallel to the ground and perpendicular to the cassette
184
What device can be used to protect the assistant during a lateral view of the distal phalanx?
A) cassette tunnel
B) wood block with slot to hold cassette
C) cassette holder with a clamp and long handle
D) Both "B" and "C" are correct
Both "B" and "C" are correct
185
You are preparing to take an x-ray of a rat. The machine does not have a "rat" technique chart. What machine settings should you use?
use the log book settings for a similar sized animal
186
Which of the following femur views would be considered an additional or alternative view rather than a routine view?
```
A) lateral
B) craniocaudal
C) anterior posterior
D) ventrodorsal extended
E) cross table horizontal beam
```
cross table horizontal beam
187
T/F. When taking a posterior-anterior view of the femur, because of the structure of the femur, it is sometimes difficult to position the femur so that it runs parallel to the cassette. The femur NOT running parallel can cause foreshortening of the limb, altering the true length and shape of the bone.
True
188
T/F. For the lateral view of the femur a foam pad can be placed under the proximal tibia to alleviate any rotation of the femur.
True
189
T/F. For the femur radiograph collimate the field of view to include the hip joint, femur and stifle joint.
True
190
Which view of the navicular bone will have the least amount of distortion due to machine positioning?
lateromedial projection
191
When taking the lateral view of the navicular bone, the lower edge of the cassette should be positioned where?
an inch or so lower than the sole of the hoof
192
When positioning for a dorsoproximal-palmarodistal (upright pedal) view of the navicular bone, the primary beam runs where?
parallel to the floor
193
What are the four routine views needed to study the distal sesamoids?
dorso-palmer 45 degrees, dorso-palmer 65 degrees, flexor, lateral
194
What of the below is NOT a standard view taken for navicular x-rays?
```
A) DP at 45 degree angle
B) DP at 65 degree angle
C) DP
D) Lateral
E) Flexor
```
DP
195
Which of the views listed is taken with the horse standing on the cassette (protected in a holder of course) and the beam enters from the posterior side of the horse's leg?
```
A) DP at 45 degree angle
B) DP at 65 degree angle
C) DP
D) Lateral
E) Flexor
```
flexor
196
A lateral view of the navicular is made with the beam where?
parallel to the ground and perpendicular to the cassette
197
T/F. For a left lateral avian view, the left wing and limb are positioned caudally to the right wing and leg.
False.
198
When preparing to perform a navicular study of a horse with shoes, what should you do?
with permission, remove the shoe, clean and pack the hoof
199
Which view of the navicular requires that the horse lean forward to stretch the leg out away from the navicular?
Flexor
200
Which view of the navicular has 3 different methods that may be used for positioning?
dorso palmer
201
In order to prevent an air artifact superimposed over the area of interest when radiographing the equine foot, which of the following materials works the best to pack the sole of the hoof with?
play-doh
202
The two standard views for the canine or feline stifle include what?
mediolateral and caudocranial
203
On which view will object to film distance cause some magnification and distortion?
```
A) Lateral
B) Lateral-medial
C) Skyline
D) Caudal-cranial
E) craniocaudal
```
Skyline
204
Which canine/feline stifle view(s) may be taken utilizing a horizontal x-ray beam?
sunrise and caudal cranial
205
What type of tape is NOT acceptable to use across the beak of a bird if the head is in the path of the beam?
adhesive tape
206
T/F. For a tarsal radiograph the field of view will include the entire radius and ulna, tarsus and metatarsals.
False
207
For the plantar dorsal view of the tarsus, the patient is placed in ____ recumbency with the affected limb extended caudally.
sternal
208
Some rabbits can be momentarily "hypnotized" by:
A) covering the eyes and stroking the ventral midline
B) covering the eyes
C) stroking the ventral midline
D) covering the eyes and stroking along the back
E) none of the above
covering the eyes and stroking the ventral midline
209
What oxygen flow rate is used with a 3-gallon chamber?
3000 ml/min
210
When using a chamber for induction the patient is placed in the chamber and given straight oxygen for how many minutes?
5
211
When using chamber induction and isoflurance, you start the anesthetic at what?
0.5% and then increased by 0.5% every 30 seconds
212
What is the maximum setting that should be used with isoflurane when using a chamber?
4%
213
T/F. When evaluating the depth of anesthesia in the rat or other small mammal, you need to take the respiration rate while the patient is on straight oxygen, as soon as they are unconscious and every few minutes during the procedure.
True
214
During recovery the rat or other small mammal should be placed where?
in the oxygen chamber until able to walk
215
T/F. To aid in obtaining a diagnostic radiograph, the horse much be standing squarely.
true
216
T/F. Removing the horse shoe is important when imaging through the fetlock joint utilizing a lateral view.
False
217
T/F. Proper foot preparation including packing the sole of the hoof is important when imaging through the fetlock joint utilizing a lateral to medial view.
False
218
T/F. The cassette used for equine radiographs should not be handheld during exposure.
True
219
The distal phalanx (coffin bone) could also be referred to as the what?
3rd phalanx
220
For which study does the hoof need to be cleaned and packed with radiolucent material?
dorsopalmer view of the coffin and navicular bones
221
When working in radiology, remember to always wear what?
lab jacket, lead apron, lead gloves
222
Film badges are normally worn where?
on top of the lead apron at the neck area
223
T/F. AAHA recommends that minors and owners do NOT assist with radiographs.
True
224
When using film badges as the dosimeter, how often should the badges be changed?
depends on the number of x-rays taken
225
What is the name of the device used to measure radiation exposure to personnel?
dosimeter
226
For a whole body study of the rat or guinea pig the measurement with the caliper is taken where?
over the widest part of the patient being x-rayed and read in centimeters
227
T/F. For a rat or guinea pig whole body study, dorsoventral view using the vertical beam, one method of restraint is to place the patient in a light weight cardboard box and place the box on the cassette to take the radiograph.
True
228
T/F. For the dorsoventral view of the guinea pig, both the left and right side of the guinea pig should be identified.
True
229
For the comfort of the patient, which view should be performed utilizing a horizontal beam?
lateral
230
T/F. Magnification and distortion can be reduced by keeping the object to film distance as small as possible.
True
231
T/F. When utilizing a horizontal beam, the x-ray beam and patient should be centered on the cassette.
True
232
For a simple non-painful procedure, what dose of Dexdomitor would be administered to a 6kg cat? (0.02 ml/kg)(0.5 mg/ml)
6 kg x 0.02 ml = 0.1 ml
| 0.1 ml
233
What does of Dexdomitor would be administered to a 30 lb dog? (0.02 ml/kg)(0.5 mg/ml)
30 lb / 2.2 kg = 13.64 kg
13. 64 kg x 0.02 =
0. 2 ml
234
What dose of reversal agent would be administered to a 10kg dog? Dexdom = (0.02 ml/kg)(0.5 mg/ml)
10 kg x 0.02 =
| 0.2 ml of reversal agent
235
What is the reversal agent for Dexdomitor?
Antisedan
236
By which route is the reversal agent for Dexdomitor administered?
IM
237
At a dose of 20 mcg/kg and a concentration of 10 mg/ml, how many ml of Dormosedan will be administered to a 1200 lb horse?
1) 1200 / 2.2 = 545.45 kg
2) 545.45 kg x 20 mcg = 10909 mcg
3) 10909 mcg / 1000 mg = 10.9 mg
4) 10.9 mg / 10 mg = 1.09
= 1 ml of Dormosedan
238
At a dose of 10 mcg/kg and a concentration of 10 mg/ml, how much Detomidine would you administer to a 980 lb horse?
1) 980 / 2.2 = 445.45 kg
2) 445.45 kg x 10 mcg = 4454.5 mcg
3) 4454.5 mcg / 1000 mg = 4.4 mg
4) 4.4 mg / 10 = 0.4
= 0.4 ml of Detomidine
239
If you calculated the dose of Detomidine to be 4.89 mg and you administered 0.4 ml, how many mg was administered?
4.89 / 10 = 4
= 4 mg was administered
240
At a dose of 20 mcg/kg and a concentration of 10 mg/ml, how many ml of Dormosedan will be administered to a 700 kg horse?
1) 700 kg x 20 mcg = 14000
2) 14000 mcg / 1000 mg = 14 mg
3) 14 mg / 10 mg = 1.4
= 1.4 ml of Dormosedan
241
Barium will kill a patient if given __.
IV
242
Is megaesophagus more common in cats or dogs?
dogs
243
Accurate technique charts will help decrease what?
the number of retakes
244
What technique chart is used when kvp cannot be adjusted in small increments?
variable mAs
245
What are some errors of vertical angulation?
elongation, increase angle of tube head, foreshortening, angle is too steep, decrease angle of tube
