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Exits > Surgical Prep > Flashcards

Surgical Prep Flashcards

1
Q

What are some advantages of shorter surgery times?

A

less patient cooling, decreased chance of infection, fewer drugs used, less cost to clinic/owner

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2
Q

External pressure may control what?

A

internal bleeding

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3
Q

Epinephrine is a common hemostatic agent in what surgeries?

A

dental and ocular surgery

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4
Q

What does electrocautery do?

A

coagulates tissue and vessel edges to control bleeding

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5
Q

Define ligation.

A

tie know around the vessel with suture

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6
Q

Louis Pasteur is credited with what?

A

developing what is now known as pasteurization after demonstrating that fluid heated briefly to kill bacterial did not spoil

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7
Q

Define resident bacteria.

A

non-pathogenic bacteria located on the skin that also inhabit hair follicles, sebaceous, and sweat glands

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8
Q

Define transient bacteria.

A

mostly pathogenic bacteria, those that we pick up by simply touching any object in the environment

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9
Q

Define endogenous-direct transfer.

A

bacterial contamination of the host with its own bacterial flora

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10
Q

When does endogenous direct transfer occur?

A

when the bacteria from a body system inadvertently come in contact with the surrounding tissue, either from a break in aspetic technique or do to spillage

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11
Q

Define endogenous-indirect transfer.

A

transfer of bacteria via the bloodstream from a distant site in the body to the freshly created surgical wound

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12
Q

What are characteristics of an ideal surgical site scrub sgent?

A

non-irritating, non-staining, quick acting, bactericidal for all bacteria, residual effect of approximately one hour

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13
Q

How often should you change masks?

A

frequently (every two hours if needed)

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14
Q

What is an EKG?

A

measure of electrical activity of the myocardium

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15
Q

T wave is usually ____ in Lead 2.

A

positive

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16
Q

What is the R-R interval used to detect?

A

rhythm versus arrhythmia

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17
Q

A prolonged P-R interval indicates what?

A

first degree heart block

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18
Q

What is a first degree heart block indicated by?

A

prolonged P-R interval

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19
Q

Delayed impulse SA through AV node indicates what?

A

first degree heart block

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20
Q

What indicates a second degree heart block?

A

P without a QRS

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21
Q

Having a P without a QRS indicates what?

A

second degree heart block

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22
Q

How are the atria and ventricles acting in a third degree heart block?

A

independently

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23
Q

What happens in 3rd degree heart block?

A

impulse through AV node blocked

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24
Q

In what heart block is there no relationship between P waves and QRS complexes?

A

third

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25
Q

When speaking of an EKG, what are early signs of trouble?

A

tachycardia, bradycardia, premature ventricular contraction, 1st degree heart block, 2nd degree heart block

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26
Q

What does 4 VPC in a row mean?

A

ventricular tachycardia

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27
Q

What does change in polarity of the T wave mean?

A

hypoxia

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28
Q

What does the height and duration of P check?

A

the atrium at depolarization

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29
Q

The height of P is looking at what atrium?

A

right

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30
Q

What duration of P is looking at what atrium?

A

left

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31
Q

What does the height of R and duration of QRS check?

A

the ventricle at depolarization

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32
Q

The height of R looks at what ventricle?

A

left

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33
Q

What duration of QRS looks at what ventricle?

A

right

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34
Q

What is 60 cycle interference?

A

a very even sawtooth line

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35
Q

What kind of finish does a lower quality surgical instrument have?

A

shiny

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36
Q

Why do you want to keep contaminated (bloody) instruments moist?

A

so blood doesn’t dry on the instruments

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37
Q

When washing instruments, what kind of soap should you wash them with?

A

neutral pH soap

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38
Q

What do abrasive or chlorine based products promote in surgical instruments?

A

corrosion and pitting

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39
Q

Instruments have a protective coating of what to extend their usefulness as properly functioning devices?

A

chromium oxide

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40
Q

How does an ultrasonic cleaner work?

A

uses high frequency sound waves to clean by producing bubbles that collapse and cause scrubbing action

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41
Q

Tissue damage causes what?

A

inflammation

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42
Q

What does “wind up” mean?

A

nerve pain has involved spinal cord

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43
Q

Why should you control pain?

A

avoid “wind up”, increased survival with pain management, chronic pain can result from failure to control acute pain adequately at time of incident

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44
Q

What does pain cause?

A

stress, suppressed immune system (decreased healing), anorexia, increased protein catabolism, increased GI disturbances, increased vasoconstriction, adrenal exhaustion

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45
Q

What does constant stress do to the adrenals?

A

it depletes them and their ability to respond

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46
Q

What are some signs of pain in dogs?

A

abnormal sitting/lying, restless/limp, aggressive/dull, tense abdominal muscles, vocal, increased RR/expiratory grunt, bulged eyes, dilated pupils, decreased appetite/decreased grooming, lick/bite affected area, won’t lie down

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47
Q

What are some signs of pain in cats?

A

grumpier, purr, aggressive/frantic, vocal, withdraw to back of cage/withdraw from human contact, don’t use litter box,, decreased eating, decreased grooming/excess grooming, failure to jump/stiff gait/uneven gait

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48
Q

Long-term NSAID use is recommended in treatment of what?

A

osteoarthritis problems in addition to weight loss and exercise

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49
Q

Define agonist.

A

affinity for receptor and causes an effect

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50
Q

Define antagonist.

A

affinity for receptor and blocks agonist from producing effect. May reverse effect of agonist.

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51
Q

What is the most common use of acupuncture?

A

pain management

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52
Q

Acupuncture points are connected through what?

A

pathways that are called meridians or channels

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53
Q

What is moxibustion acupuncture?

A

dried leaves of Artemisia vulgaris (mugwort) are burned in stick form and moved slowly over the acupuncture point or touch to inserted needle

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54
Q

What is aquapuncture?

A

inject solution into acupuncture point. benefit is from pressure on point caused by solution or stimulation of nerve by solution

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55
Q

What is electroacupuncture used for?

A

paralysis or paresis, severe and chronic painful conditions, or conditions that aren’t responsive to dry needling

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56
Q

What do you do in electroacupuncture?

A

pass electrical energy through acupuncture points via electrical device connected to inserted needles

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57
Q

When would you use implantation acupuncture?

A

hip dysplasia in young dogs, coxofemoral arthritis, epilepsy in older dogs

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58
Q

What are 4 uses for cold laser acupuncture?

A
  1. stimulate acupuncture points
  2. enhance healing of wounds and burns
  3. treat acutely inflamed joints
  4. animals sensitive to needling
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59
Q

How does cold laser acupuncture work?

A

stimulate acupunture points with intense light therapy to promote positive physiologic changes within cells

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60
Q

What happens with microcurrent therapy?

A

machine generated microcurrent of electricity is used on acupuncture points or directly over areas of pain or muscle spasm

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61
Q

What do lasers commonly use?

A
  • visible red helium-neon (HeNe)

- invisible infrared (IR) gallium-arsenide (GaAs) and gallium-aluminum-arsenide (GaA1As)

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62
Q

Laser light is usually what?

A

polarized (waves in same plane), small divergence (nearly parallel beam), high mean output power (MOP many watts are put out)

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63
Q

What are biological effects of atherapeutic laser?

A

accelerated cell division, increased leukocyte phagocytosis, stimulation of fibroblasts and collagen formation, degranulation of mast cells

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64
Q

Define peptide.

A

2 or more amino acids joined togehter

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65
Q

When clipping, how much around the incision site do you want to clip?

A

2-5 inches wide

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66
Q

What are disadvantages of a general scrub in the patient?

A

drying, cooling

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67
Q

What are advantages of a general scrub in the patient?

A

cuts through dirt and fat, thoroughly removes soap, disinfectant

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68
Q

Why should you use heavy blankets to keep a patient warm?

A

heavy blankets may compromise a patient’s respiratory capabilities

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69
Q

A heating source is required when a patient’s temperature is below what?

A

98 degrees

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70
Q

What are disadvantages of a water circulating blanket?

A

water leaks

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71
Q

What are advantages of a water circulating blanket?

A

safe, not as expensive, replaceable pieces and parts

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72
Q

Define sterilization.

A

use of a process to rid an object of all living microbes

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73
Q

What are the most common ways of sterilization?

A

heat, radiation, filters, ethylene oxide

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74
Q

What are examples of ways you could use steam to sterilize?

A

autoclave, pressure cooker

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75
Q

What is the most common method of sterilizing surgical instruments and supplies?

A

autoclave

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76
Q

What is an autoclave?

A

a self locking machine that sterilizes with steam under pressure

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77
Q

How many degrees does it take to achieve 15 lb pressure?

A

250

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78
Q

High pressure also ensures saturation of what in the autoclave?

A

wrapped surgical packs

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79
Q

What is the purpose of packaging and wrapping times for sterilization ?

A

to provide an effective barrier against contamination during storage, once the items have been sterilized

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80
Q

Why do you need to sterilize cotton, wool, or pads wrapped in paper or cotton bags?

A

to prevent the multi-purpose valve and the autoclave openings form becoming clogged with remnants of the material

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81
Q

What is “flashing”?

A

when an instrument is autoclave unwrapped for a shorter period of time

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82
Q

When is “flashing” often used?

A

when a critical instrument is dropped

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83
Q

What are the autoclave settings for “flashing”?

A

270 degrees F, 20 lbs pressure, 3 minutes, unwrapped

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84
Q

Where is autoclave tape located on a pack?

A

the outside of packs

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85
Q

Where should sterility indicators be?

A

on the inside of specific packs

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86
Q

What do biological sterilization indicators contain?

A

spores that are supplied in closed containers

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87
Q

What indicator is the most accurate sterilization indicators?

A

biological indicators

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88
Q

What are the two types of autoclaves?

A

gravity air-displacement autoclaves, high-vacuum sterilizers (prevacuum sterilizers)

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89
Q

What does proper sterilization depend on?

A

proper operation of the sterilizer, proper preparation of the packs, proper loading of the sterilizer

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90
Q

What is the most common type of autoclaves in veterinary clinics?

A

gravity air-displacement sterilizer

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91
Q

Which autoclave requires distilled water placed in the bottom of the sterilizers and then heated electrically?

A

gravity air-displacement sterilizer

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92
Q

What are the four steps of a high-vacuum sterilizer?

A

conditioning phase, sterilization phase, high-vacuum exhaust, drying cycle

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93
Q

What should you do daily with the autoclave?

A

wipe down all outside surfaces and the door gasket with mild detergent, water and soft cloth or sponge, wipe out inside of chamber at the end of each day

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94
Q

What kind of autoclave maintenance should you do every 1-4 weeks?

A

clean chamber, water reservoir and air jet

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95
Q

What is dry heat used for?

A

instruments made of tightly fitting movable parts that cannot be disassembled

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96
Q

What else is dry heat good for?

A

petroleum jelly, mineral oil and powders

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97
Q

What is ethylene oxide?

A

a flammable, explosive liquid that becomes an effective sterilizing agent when mixed with carbon dioxide or Freon

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98
Q

What can be safely sterilized with ethylene oxide?

A

endoscopes, cameras, plastics, power cables, laser equipment, ultrasound equipment, filters

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99
Q

What items can you not sterilize with ethylene oxide?

A

food, drugs, liquids, acrylics, some pharmaceutical products

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100
Q

What can ethylene oxide cause?

A

dizziness, headaches, nausea, abortions, cancer

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101
Q

What is boiling good for?

A

disinfecting but not sterilization

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102
Q

Define antiseptic.

A

a chemical used to inhibit or prevent the growth of microbes on living tissue

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103
Q

Define disinfectants.

A

a chemical used to inhibitor prevent the growth of microbes on inanimate objects

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104
Q

What do sanitizers do?

A

reduce the number of microbes to a safe level

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105
Q

What do sterilizers and germicides do?

A

eliminate all microbes

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106
Q

Antiseptics are designed for application to what?

A

animate surfaces (living tissue)

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107
Q

What are types of disinfectants?

A

phenols, alcohols, quaternary ammonia compounds, halogens, chlorhexidine

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108
Q

What is a phenol compound?

A

disinfectant

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109
Q

Phenol compounds are popular for what?

A

housekeeping and disinfection

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110
Q

Most phenol compounds are too toxic for what?

A

use on living tissue

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111
Q

Phenol disinfectants are commonly found in what?

A

mouth washes, scrub soaps and surface disinfectants

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112
Q

What are phenols effective against?

A

gram positive bacteria and enveloped viruses

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113
Q

Phenols maintain their activity in the presence of what?

A

organic material (such as pus)

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114
Q

What are phenols not effective against?

A

spores, fungus, gram negative bacteria, naked viruses

115
Q

Phenol-Hexachlorophene is used for what?

A

pre-op hand scrub

116
Q

Phenol-Hexachlorophene’s use has declined because of what?

A

causes skin irritation, some evidence indicating hat it might be teratrogenic and neurottoxins

117
Q

Liquid chmicals used for sterilization must be what?

A

noncorrosive to the items being sterilized

118
Q

Chlorine compounds are most valuable for disinfection of what?

A

water

119
Q

What are chlorine compounds destructive to?

A

metals

120
Q

Chlorine compounds are effective against what?

A

parvo, kennel cough, fungus, etc

121
Q

T or F. Iodine is corrosive to metals.

A

true

122
Q

What is iodine effective against?

A

bacteria, bacteria spores, viruses, fungi, protozoa, yeas

123
Q

What are iodophors?

A

iodine in aqueous solutions

124
Q

What is tincture of iodine used to treat?

A

thrush in horses, pyometra

125
Q

What are alcohols used for?

A

topical disinfectants, presurgical wipe, instrument soak, ear cleaning

126
Q

What should you not use alcohols on?

A

open wounds, reddened skin, infected areas

127
Q

What is alcohol effective against?

A

bacteria (gram + and -), enveloped viruses, fungi and spores, yeast

128
Q

What are alcohols ineffective against?

A

bacterial spores, naked viruses

129
Q

Alcohols do not work in the presence of what?

A

organic material

130
Q

Why shouldn’t you use alcohol on open wounds?

A

painful, denatures proteins (kills more tissue and delays healing)

131
Q

What is chlorhexidine effective against?

A

highly bactericidal, viruses, fungi, yeast

132
Q

Chlorhexidine is very tissue what?

A

friendly

133
Q

When should you not use peroxides?

A

if the wound is open and showing sings of infections, if wound will be sutured shut, if wound is quite deep

134
Q

What happens with radiation sterilization?

A

high energy ionizing radiation destroys micoorganisms

135
Q

Why would you use radiation sterilization?

A

instruments that can’t be sterilized by heat or chemicals, food products, suture, gloves, disposable equipment

136
Q

What are common sources of radiation for radiation sterilization?

A

electron beam and Cobalt-60

137
Q

Define filtration.

A

the use of a filter to separate particulate material from liquids or gases

138
Q

Gas plasma effectively what?

A

sterilizes most heat and moisture sensitive medical devices and surgical instruments

139
Q

What does an autoclave sterilize?

A

heat, steam, pressure

140
Q

List 5 items that ethylene oxide might be used for.

A

laser, endoscopic equipment, ultrasound equipment, fluids, filters, gloves, sharp instruments dulled by steam and heat

141
Q

List 2 places filters might be used to trap bacteria before it reaches the patient.

A

IV line, syringe

142
Q

What is a waterless scru?

A

an antiseptic provides rapid broad spectrum coverage by killing 99% of bacteria without soap or water

143
Q

How can you use a waterless scrub?

A

surgeon’s scrub before surgery instead of timed scrub, antiseptic for health care personnel, surgeon’s scrub before surgery for additional scrubs after the timed scrub is done the first time

144
Q

What are maternal reasons for dystocia?

A

uterine inertia, insufficient cervical dilation, birth canal narrow

145
Q

What are fetal reasons for dystocia?

A

oversized, faulty presentation

146
Q

What can oxytocin prevent?

A

breeding back

147
Q

If you give oxytocin with an undilated cervix or malpositioned pup, what can it do?

A

rupture uterus

148
Q

What are the three goals of a C-section?

A

viable young, undepressed dam, return to own environment ASAP

149
Q

What are benefits of a C-section?

A

live pups/kittens/dam

150
Q

What are some complications of a C-section?

A

fetal depression, dead pups/kittens/dam, hemorrhage/shock, infection

151
Q

With a c-section, where is the incision made?

A

body of uterus, dorsal surface

152
Q

What kind of anesthesia does ocular surgery?

A

deep

153
Q

When doing ocular surgery,how wide around the eye should you clip and prep?

A

3-4 inches

154
Q

Define enucleation.

A

removal of an organ or other mass intact from its supporting tissues

155
Q

What does lateral subconjunctival enucleation involve?

A

involves a lateral canthotomy and a subconjunctival approach to the glove, extraocular muscles and optic nerve

156
Q

What is transpalpebral enucleation?

A

removal of eyelids, conjunctiva and extraocular muscles along with eyeball

157
Q

What is the branch of surgery dealing with the preservation and restoration of the function of the skeletal system, its articulations and associated structures; particularity associated with the correction of deformities of the musculoskeletal system?

A

orthopedics

158
Q

What are benefits of onychectomy?

A

decrease mutilation of owner/furniture

159
Q

How long after surgery do you take off declaw bandages?

A

12-24 hours

160
Q

How long before declaw bandage removal do you give torbugesic?

A

20 mins before

161
Q

What are complications of a declaw?

A

excess bleeding, infection, bone protrudes, regrowth of nail, chronic lameness, self trauma

162
Q

With declaws, what age of cat tends to bleed more?

A

older cats

163
Q

T or F. Some breeds require dewclaws present and more = better.

A

true

164
Q

Are orthopedics usually considered an emergency?

A

no

165
Q

Define reduction.

A

bringing the ends together

166
Q

Where should you clip for a thoracic surgery?

A

axilla to umbilicus or pubis

167
Q

What are indications of trouble in a thoracic surgery?

A

dyspnea, anxious, sudden death

168
Q

What are noabsorbable sutures?

A

sutures that cannot be absorbed by the body cells and fluids in which they are embedded during the healing process

169
Q

If nonabsorbable sutures are used as buried sutures, what happens?

A

they become surrounded or encapsulated in fibrous tissue and remain as innocuous foreign bodies

170
Q

What are absorbable sutures?

A

sutures that are absorbed or digested by the body cells and tissue fluids in which they are embedded during and after the healing process

171
Q

When are absorbable sutures used?

A

in tissues that heal rapidly to adequate strentgh

172
Q

What is natural sutures made from?

A

animal or plant materials

173
Q

How are natural sutures broken down?

A

by phagocytosis and this initiates inflammation

174
Q

What are synthetic sutures made from?

A

man-made polymers

175
Q

Why were synthetic sutures developed?

A

to avoid variation of resorptive rates in inflammed environments

176
Q

Do synthetics cause less tissue reaction than natural fibers?

A

yeah

177
Q

How is synthetic suture broken down?

A

by enzymatic hydrolysis (which doesn’t cause tissue inflammation)

178
Q

What does monofilament suture avoid?

A

avoids capillary action

179
Q

Does monofilament suture have low or high surface friction?

A

low

180
Q

Does monofilament suture have “memory”

A

yes

181
Q

Do monofilament sutures have poor knot security?

A

yes

182
Q

What is multifilament suture?

A

small elements braided or twisted together

183
Q

What does many multifilament sutures cause?

A

tissue reaction, harboring of bacteria if contaminated, allows “wicking” or “capillary action”, increased friction

184
Q

What does “wicking” or “capillary action” cause?

A

fluids to travel along filament and can cause contamination

185
Q

When should you not use multifilament suture?

A

hollow organs, when part of suture will be exposed to contamination

186
Q

Why would you not use multifilament suture in hollow organs?

A

bacteria in lumen will travel to peritoneal/pleural cavity

187
Q

Is silk absorbable or non-absorbable?

A

non-absorbable

188
Q

Is silk natural or synthetic?

A

nature

189
Q

Silk suture has what?

A

frequent tissue reaction or “spitting” of suture from the wound

190
Q

Is silk monofilament or multifilament?

A

braided or twisted multifilament

191
Q

Is cotton absorbable or non-absorbable?

A

non-absorbable

192
Q

Is cotton natural or synthetic/

A

natural

193
Q

What does cotton lose with each autoclaving?

A

tensile strength

194
Q

Is linen absorbable or non-absorbable?

A

non-absorbable

195
Q

Is linen natural or synthetic?

A

natural

196
Q

Examples of synthetic non-absorbable suture.

A

nylon, stainless steel, prolene, Webpro

197
Q

What is a problem with synthetic non-absorbable suture?

A

tendency for the knots to come untied

198
Q

Is nylon absorbable or non-absorbable?

A

non-absorbable

199
Q

Is nylon natural or synthetic?

A

synthetic

200
Q

Why is nylon preferred over silk for face and lip areas?

A

silk too often causes tissue reactions, which causes more scarring

201
Q

Can you use nylon in contaminated wounds and skin?

A

yes

202
Q

What kind of filament is nylon?

A

mono and multi

203
Q

Examples of nylon suture.

A

Polyweb, Braunamid white

204
Q

Is stainless steel absorbable or non-absorbable?

A

non-absorbable

205
Q

Does stainless steel have good knot security?

A

yes

206
Q

What can multifilament stainless steel cause?

A

may fragment and cause sinus tracts

207
Q

What would you use stainless steel suture in?

A

rib closure, tendon repair, skin to decrease licking, peritoneal suture line in some cases

208
Q

What are some forms of stainless steel suture?

A

suture, michelle clips, hemoclips, staples

209
Q

What is plain catgut?

A

raw guy that has been gauzed, polished, sterilized and packaged

210
Q

What is chromic catgut?

A

undergone various intensities of tanning w/ one of the salts of chromic acid to delay tissue absoprtion time

211
Q

What does tanning do?

A

takes out all moisture and fat to make more stable

212
Q

Chromic catgut has an increased rate of absorption in what kind of environment?

A

infected

213
Q

What does chromic catgut often cause? Why?

A

excessive tissue reaction because it’s broken down by phagocytosis and this causes inflammation.

214
Q

What is cyanoacrylate glue/

A

tissue adhesives used for treatment of minor woundsa dn abrasions, vascular and opthalmic surgery and hemostasis

215
Q

How does bovine collagen trigger clot formation?

A

platelet aggregation and release of coagulation factors

216
Q

Collagen’s hemostatic capabilities are inactivated by what?

A

autoclaving

217
Q

What is bone wax?

A

a non-absorbable agent that is used during orthopedic and neurologic surgery to control bleding from bone

218
Q

What does bone wax function as?

A

a mechanical plug when pressed into bleeding bony surfaces

219
Q

Drains should not what?

A

enter or exit at the incision line

220
Q

When suturing, the best cosmetic effect is obtained by using numerous simple interrupted sutures placed how far apart?

A

1/8”

221
Q

The distance of the needle bite from the wound edges should be equal to what?

A

the distance between sutures

222
Q

What is an interrupted suture?

A

a solitary stitch or suture with a knot

223
Q

What is a continuous suture?

A

several bites of suture taken to close a longer area with only a knot at the beginning and at the end of the line of stitches

224
Q

What is a simple suture?

A

a single pass through tissue is made on each side of the incision

225
Q

What is a mattress suture?

A

one the pattern is tied, the stitch pattern has two entrance/exit holes on each side of the incision so a mass of tissue is incorporated into the stitch on each side

226
Q

What does evert mean?

A

cut edge rolls away from the body

227
Q

What does invert mean?

A

cut edge rolls into the incision

228
Q

What does apposing mean?

A

cut edges just come together with no rolling in or out

229
Q

Examples of apposing suture patterns.

A

simple interrupted, simple continuous

230
Q

Examples of everting suture patterns.

A

horizontal mattress, vertical mattress, continuous mattress

231
Q

What are disadvantages of a horizontal mattress pattern?

A

difficult to apply without causing eversion, incarcerates blood supply if tight

232
Q

What are advantages of a horizontal mattress pattern?

A

small amount of suture material used, rapid to do, tension type suture

233
Q

What are advantages of a vertical mattress pattern?

A

tension suture, stronger than horizontal mattress, very little eversion

234
Q

What are disadvantages of a vertical mattress pattern?

A

more suture material used, slow

235
Q

When is a continuous mattress pattern used for skin closure?

A

continuous suture is okay, having a little eversion is okay, increased tension is needed

236
Q

Examples of inverting suture patterns used for skin or hollow organs.

A

lembert, halstead

237
Q

What is the gambee suture pattern used for?

A

to close anatomoses on GI tract rather than inverted suture by some surgeons

238
Q

What are advantages of the gambee suture pattern?

A

minimal stenosis, minimal adhesions, minimal wicking (leakage), minimal infections

239
Q

What does tension on tissues cause?

A

tear tissues, compromises blood supply

240
Q

What is a quill?

A

vertical mattress with everting characteristics used to incorporate rubber, plastic, or gauze tube in external loop on each side of incision

241
Q

What is a stent?

A

incorporate sterile gauze sponge roll in a large simple interrupted suture that presses sponge on previously sutured incision

242
Q

What may excessive pressure with a stent cause?

A

necrosis

243
Q

What are some causes of dehiscence?

A

excessive licking of site, infection, suture tearing, blunt trauma

244
Q

Suture reactions are increased in what species?

A

cats

245
Q

Benefits of castration.

A

decreased aggression, decreased roaming, decreased unwanted pups, decreased trauma, decreased disease, decreased adenocarcinoma of rectal area, decreased prostate problems when females in area in heat

246
Q

How long may it take for improvements from a castration to show up?

A

6 months

247
Q

What is scrotal ablation?

A

when the scrotum is removed for cosmetic or disease reasons

248
Q

What are benefits of a cat castration?

A

creased aggression, decreased spraying, decreased roaming, decreased urine odor, decreased over population

249
Q

What prevents herniation post-op with a rat castration?

A

fat pads

250
Q

What is another word for laparotomy?

A

celiotomy

251
Q

What is another word for celiotomy?

A

laparotomy

252
Q

How would you clip for a laparotomy?

A

wide clip from sternum to pubis

253
Q

Do you blot or wipe bleeding?

A

blot

254
Q

What are 3 parts of a needle?

A

shank (body), eye, point

255
Q

Shape and size of needle is selected for use by?

A

thickness of tissue being sutured, depth or incision, personal preference

256
Q

Where are taper-point needles most often used?

A

in deep tissue where a leak would be a problem, when a sealed suture line is needed

257
Q

Are taper point needles used on the skin?

A

no

258
Q

What is the least traumatic kind of needle?

A

blunt

259
Q

Loopuyt’s needle is popular for what?

A

livestock procedures

260
Q

Define glycosaminoglycan.

A

carbohydrate that balances the water content in cartilage, which is crucial to normal function

261
Q

What is often used in a dog spay to assist ligation of ovary area?

A

carmalts

262
Q

What is often used in dog spay to assist in ligation of body of the uterus?

A

angiotribe

263
Q

What do you clip for a spay?

A

xiphoid to pubis

264
Q

Define hydrometra.

A

collection of watery or mucoid fluid in the uterus

265
Q

What is a chain loop ecraseur used for?

A

in equine reproduction surgery as a mare spay

266
Q

What are benefits of an ovariohysterectomy?

A

decreased roaming, decreased diseases and trauma, decreased mammary tumors, eliminates chances of pyometra, decreased unwanted pups, no heat mess

267
Q

Why do a wide and long prep with a spay?

A

can extend incision to find a bleeder, can extend incision to reach suspensory ligament of ovary or body of uterus more easily without traumatizing tissue from stretching body wall, etc

268
Q

What are the 3 broad ligament parts caudal to cranial?

A

mesometrium, mesovarium, mesosalpinx

269
Q

Where is the mesometrium broad ligament part located?

A

at uterus

270
Q

Where is the mesovarium broad ligament part located?

A

at ovary

271
Q

Where is the mesosalpinx broad ligament part located?

A

at uterine tube

272
Q

What ligaments do we break during a spay?

A

suspensory ligament, round ligament

273
Q

Where is the suspensory ligament located when doing a spay?

A

cranial edge, anchors near kidney

274
Q

Where is the round ligament located when doing a spay?

A

midway along mesometrium, achors at inguinal ring

275
Q

Which uterine horn do you expose first during a spay?

A

left

276
Q

During a spay, when is your first check for bleeders?

A

when you tag with a mosquito and lower it

277
Q

During a spay, when is your second check for bleeding?

A

check abdomen for bleeders with clean gauze on a mosquito

278
Q

During a spay, when is your third check for bleeding?

A

compress sides of abdomen and see if blood comes up through your incision line

279
Q

During a spay, which layer is the main strength layer?

A

abdominal wall

280
Q

What does the SQ closure in a spay do?

A

eliminate dead space

281
Q

When using cold sterilization, instruments must be ___ before being immersed and _____ _____ before being used on the patient.

A

dry, rinsed thoroughly

282
Q

When speaking about suture, the bigger the number, the ____ the diameter.

A

larger

283
Q

What does “O” “ought” number indicate?

A

smaller diameter sizes

Exits (12 decks)

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