Surgical Prep Flashcards
(283 cards)
1
Q
What are some advantages of shorter surgery times?
A
less patient cooling, decreased chance of infection, fewer drugs used, less cost to clinic/owner
2
Q
External pressure may control what?
A
internal bleeding
3
Q
Epinephrine is a common hemostatic agent in what surgeries?
A
dental and ocular surgery
4
Q
What does electrocautery do?
A
coagulates tissue and vessel edges to control bleeding
5
Q
Define ligation.
A
tie know around the vessel with suture
6
Q
Louis Pasteur is credited with what?
A
developing what is now known as pasteurization after demonstrating that fluid heated briefly to kill bacterial did not spoil
7
Q
Define resident bacteria.
A
non-pathogenic bacteria located on the skin that also inhabit hair follicles, sebaceous, and sweat glands
8
Q
Define transient bacteria.
A
mostly pathogenic bacteria, those that we pick up by simply touching any object in the environment
9
Q
Define endogenous-direct transfer.
A
bacterial contamination of the host with its own bacterial flora
10
Q
When does endogenous direct transfer occur?
A
when the bacteria from a body system inadvertently come in contact with the surrounding tissue, either from a break in aspetic technique or do to spillage
11
Q
Define endogenous-indirect transfer.
A
transfer of bacteria via the bloodstream from a distant site in the body to the freshly created surgical wound
12
Q
What are characteristics of an ideal surgical site scrub sgent?
A
non-irritating, non-staining, quick acting, bactericidal for all bacteria, residual effect of approximately one hour
13
Q
How often should you change masks?
A
frequently (every two hours if needed)
14
Q
What is an EKG?
A
measure of electrical activity of the myocardium
15
Q
T wave is usually ____ in Lead 2.
A
positive
16
Q
What is the R-R interval used to detect?
A
rhythm versus arrhythmia
17
Q
A prolonged P-R interval indicates what?
A
first degree heart block
18
Q
What is a first degree heart block indicated by?
A
prolonged P-R interval
19
Q
Delayed impulse SA through AV node indicates what?
A
first degree heart block
20
Q
What indicates a second degree heart block?
A
P without a QRS
21
Q
Having a P without a QRS indicates what?
A
second degree heart block
22
Q
How are the atria and ventricles acting in a third degree heart block?
A
independently
23
Q
What happens in 3rd degree heart block?
A
impulse through AV node blocked
24
Q
In what heart block is there no relationship between P waves and QRS complexes?
A
third
25
When speaking of an EKG, what are early signs of trouble?
tachycardia, bradycardia, premature ventricular contraction, 1st degree heart block, 2nd degree heart block
26
What does 4 VPC in a row mean?
ventricular tachycardia
27
What does change in polarity of the T wave mean?
hypoxia
28
What does the height and duration of P check?
the atrium at depolarization
29
The height of P is looking at what atrium?
right
30
What duration of P is looking at what atrium?
left
31
What does the height of R and duration of QRS check?
the ventricle at depolarization
32
The height of R looks at what ventricle?
left
33
What duration of QRS looks at what ventricle?
right
34
What is 60 cycle interference?
a very even sawtooth line
35
What kind of finish does a lower quality surgical instrument have?
shiny
36
Why do you want to keep contaminated (bloody) instruments moist?
so blood doesn't dry on the instruments
37
When washing instruments, what kind of soap should you wash them with?
neutral pH soap
38
What do abrasive or chlorine based products promote in surgical instruments?
corrosion and pitting
39
Instruments have a protective coating of what to extend their usefulness as properly functioning devices?
chromium oxide
40
How does an ultrasonic cleaner work?
uses high frequency sound waves to clean by producing bubbles that collapse and cause scrubbing action
41
Tissue damage causes what?
inflammation
42
What does "wind up" mean?
nerve pain has involved spinal cord
43
Why should you control pain?
avoid "wind up", increased survival with pain management, chronic pain can result from failure to control acute pain adequately at time of incident
44
What does pain cause?
stress, suppressed immune system (decreased healing), anorexia, increased protein catabolism, increased GI disturbances, increased vasoconstriction, adrenal exhaustion
45
What does constant stress do to the adrenals?
it depletes them and their ability to respond
46
What are some signs of pain in dogs?
abnormal sitting/lying, restless/limp, aggressive/dull, tense abdominal muscles, vocal, increased RR/expiratory grunt, bulged eyes, dilated pupils, decreased appetite/decreased grooming, lick/bite affected area, won't lie down
47
What are some signs of pain in cats?
grumpier, purr, aggressive/frantic, vocal, withdraw to back of cage/withdraw from human contact, don't use litter box,, decreased eating, decreased grooming/excess grooming, failure to jump/stiff gait/uneven gait
48
Long-term NSAID use is recommended in treatment of what?
osteoarthritis problems in addition to weight loss and exercise
49
Define agonist.
affinity for receptor and causes an effect
50
Define antagonist.
affinity for receptor and blocks agonist from producing effect. May reverse effect of agonist.
51
What is the most common use of acupuncture?
pain management
52
Acupuncture points are connected through what?
pathways that are called meridians or channels
53
What is moxibustion acupuncture?
dried leaves of Artemisia vulgaris (mugwort) are burned in stick form and moved slowly over the acupuncture point or touch to inserted needle
54
What is aquapuncture?
inject solution into acupuncture point. benefit is from pressure on point caused by solution or stimulation of nerve by solution
55
What is electroacupuncture used for?
paralysis or paresis, severe and chronic painful conditions, or conditions that aren't responsive to dry needling
56
What do you do in electroacupuncture?
pass electrical energy through acupuncture points via electrical device connected to inserted needles
57
When would you use implantation acupuncture?
hip dysplasia in young dogs, coxofemoral arthritis, epilepsy in older dogs
58
What are 4 uses for cold laser acupuncture?
1. stimulate acupuncture points
2. enhance healing of wounds and burns
3. treat acutely inflamed joints
4. animals sensitive to needling
59
How does cold laser acupuncture work?
stimulate acupunture points with intense light therapy to promote positive physiologic changes within cells
60
What happens with microcurrent therapy?
machine generated microcurrent of electricity is used on acupuncture points or directly over areas of pain or muscle spasm
61
What do lasers commonly use?
- visible red helium-neon (HeNe)
| - invisible infrared (IR) gallium-arsenide (GaAs) and gallium-aluminum-arsenide (GaA1As)
62
Laser light is usually what?
polarized (waves in same plane), small divergence (nearly parallel beam), high mean output power (MOP many watts are put out)
63
What are biological effects of atherapeutic laser?
accelerated cell division, increased leukocyte phagocytosis, stimulation of fibroblasts and collagen formation, degranulation of mast cells
64
Define peptide.
2 or more amino acids joined togehter
65
When clipping, how much around the incision site do you want to clip?
2-5 inches wide
66
What are disadvantages of a general scrub in the patient?
drying, cooling
67
What are advantages of a general scrub in the patient?
cuts through dirt and fat, thoroughly removes soap, disinfectant
68
Why should you use heavy blankets to keep a patient warm?
heavy blankets may compromise a patient's respiratory capabilities
69
A heating source is required when a patient's temperature is below what?
98 degrees
70
What are disadvantages of a water circulating blanket?
water leaks
71
What are advantages of a water circulating blanket?
safe, not as expensive, replaceable pieces and parts
72
Define sterilization.
use of a process to rid an object of all living microbes
73
What are the most common ways of sterilization?
heat, radiation, filters, ethylene oxide
74
What are examples of ways you could use steam to sterilize?
autoclave, pressure cooker
75
What is the most common method of sterilizing surgical instruments and supplies?
autoclave
76
What is an autoclave?
a self locking machine that sterilizes with steam under pressure
77
How many degrees does it take to achieve 15 lb pressure?
250
78
High pressure also ensures saturation of what in the autoclave?
wrapped surgical packs
79
What is the purpose of packaging and wrapping times for sterilization ?
to provide an effective barrier against contamination during storage, once the items have been sterilized
80
Why do you need to sterilize cotton, wool, or pads wrapped in paper or cotton bags?
to prevent the multi-purpose valve and the autoclave openings form becoming clogged with remnants of the material
81
What is "flashing"?
when an instrument is autoclave unwrapped for a shorter period of time
82
When is "flashing" often used?
when a critical instrument is dropped
83
What are the autoclave settings for "flashing"?
270 degrees F, 20 lbs pressure, 3 minutes, unwrapped
84
Where is autoclave tape located on a pack?
the outside of packs
85
Where should sterility indicators be?
on the inside of specific packs
86
What do biological sterilization indicators contain?
spores that are supplied in closed containers
87
What indicator is the most accurate sterilization indicators?
biological indicators
88
What are the two types of autoclaves?
gravity air-displacement autoclaves, high-vacuum sterilizers (prevacuum sterilizers)
89
What does proper sterilization depend on?
proper operation of the sterilizer, proper preparation of the packs, proper loading of the sterilizer
90
What is the most common type of autoclaves in veterinary clinics?
gravity air-displacement sterilizer
91
Which autoclave requires distilled water placed in the bottom of the sterilizers and then heated electrically?
gravity air-displacement sterilizer
92
What are the four steps of a high-vacuum sterilizer?
conditioning phase, sterilization phase, high-vacuum exhaust, drying cycle
93
What should you do daily with the autoclave?
wipe down all outside surfaces and the door gasket with mild detergent, water and soft cloth or sponge, wipe out inside of chamber at the end of each day
94
What kind of autoclave maintenance should you do every 1-4 weeks?
clean chamber, water reservoir and air jet
95
What is dry heat used for?
instruments made of tightly fitting movable parts that cannot be disassembled
96
What else is dry heat good for?
petroleum jelly, mineral oil and powders
97
What is ethylene oxide?
a flammable, explosive liquid that becomes an effective sterilizing agent when mixed with carbon dioxide or Freon
98
What can be safely sterilized with ethylene oxide?
endoscopes, cameras, plastics, power cables, laser equipment, ultrasound equipment, filters
99
What items can you not sterilize with ethylene oxide?
food, drugs, liquids, acrylics, some pharmaceutical products
100
What can ethylene oxide cause?
dizziness, headaches, nausea, abortions, cancer
101
What is boiling good for?
disinfecting but not sterilization
102
Define antiseptic.
a chemical used to inhibit or prevent the growth of microbes on living tissue
103
Define disinfectants.
a chemical used to inhibitor prevent the growth of microbes on inanimate objects
104
What do sanitizers do?
reduce the number of microbes to a safe level
105
What do sterilizers and germicides do?
eliminate all microbes
106
Antiseptics are designed for application to what?
animate surfaces (living tissue)
107
What are types of disinfectants?
phenols, alcohols, quaternary ammonia compounds, halogens, chlorhexidine
108
What is a phenol compound?
disinfectant
109
Phenol compounds are popular for what?
housekeeping and disinfection
110
Most phenol compounds are too toxic for what?
use on living tissue
111
Phenol disinfectants are commonly found in what?
mouth washes, scrub soaps and surface disinfectants
112
What are phenols effective against?
gram positive bacteria and enveloped viruses
113
Phenols maintain their activity in the presence of what?
organic material (such as pus)
114
What are phenols not effective against?
spores, fungus, gram negative bacteria, naked viruses
115
Phenol-Hexachlorophene is used for what?
pre-op hand scrub
116
Phenol-Hexachlorophene's use has declined because of what?
causes skin irritation, some evidence indicating hat it might be teratrogenic and neurottoxins
117
Liquid chmicals used for sterilization must be what?
noncorrosive to the items being sterilized
118
Chlorine compounds are most valuable for disinfection of what?
water
119
What are chlorine compounds destructive to?
metals
120
Chlorine compounds are effective against what?
parvo, kennel cough, fungus, etc
121
T or F. Iodine is corrosive to metals.
true
122
What is iodine effective against?
bacteria, bacteria spores, viruses, fungi, protozoa, yeas
123
What are iodophors?
iodine in aqueous solutions
124
What is tincture of iodine used to treat?
thrush in horses, pyometra
125
What are alcohols used for?
topical disinfectants, presurgical wipe, instrument soak, ear cleaning
126
What should you not use alcohols on?
open wounds, reddened skin, infected areas
127
What is alcohol effective against?
bacteria (gram + and -), enveloped viruses, fungi and spores, yeast
128
What are alcohols ineffective against?
bacterial spores, naked viruses
129
Alcohols do not work in the presence of what?
organic material
130
Why shouldn't you use alcohol on open wounds?
painful, denatures proteins (kills more tissue and delays healing)
131
What is chlorhexidine effective against?
highly bactericidal, viruses, fungi, yeast
132
Chlorhexidine is very tissue what?
friendly
133
When should you not use peroxides?
if the wound is open and showing sings of infections, if wound will be sutured shut, if wound is quite deep
134
What happens with radiation sterilization?
high energy ionizing radiation destroys micoorganisms
135
Why would you use radiation sterilization?
instruments that can't be sterilized by heat or chemicals, food products, suture, gloves, disposable equipment
136
What are common sources of radiation for radiation sterilization?
electron beam and Cobalt-60
137
Define filtration.
the use of a filter to separate particulate material from liquids or gases
138
Gas plasma effectively what?
sterilizes most heat and moisture sensitive medical devices and surgical instruments
139
What does an autoclave sterilize?
heat, steam, pressure
140
List 5 items that ethylene oxide might be used for.
laser, endoscopic equipment, ultrasound equipment, fluids, filters, gloves, sharp instruments dulled by steam and heat
141
List 2 places filters might be used to trap bacteria before it reaches the patient.
IV line, syringe
142
What is a waterless scru?
an antiseptic provides rapid broad spectrum coverage by killing 99% of bacteria without soap or water
143
How can you use a waterless scrub?
surgeon's scrub before surgery instead of timed scrub, antiseptic for health care personnel, surgeon's scrub before surgery for additional scrubs after the timed scrub is done the first time
144
What are maternal reasons for dystocia?
uterine inertia, insufficient cervical dilation, birth canal narrow
145
What are fetal reasons for dystocia?
oversized, faulty presentation
146
What can oxytocin prevent?
breeding back
147
If you give oxytocin with an undilated cervix or malpositioned pup, what can it do?
rupture uterus
148
What are the three goals of a C-section?
viable young, undepressed dam, return to own environment ASAP
149
What are benefits of a C-section?
live pups/kittens/dam
150
What are some complications of a C-section?
fetal depression, dead pups/kittens/dam, hemorrhage/shock, infection
151
With a c-section, where is the incision made?
body of uterus, dorsal surface
152
What kind of anesthesia does ocular surgery?
deep
153
When doing ocular surgery,how wide around the eye should you clip and prep?
3-4 inches
154
Define enucleation.
removal of an organ or other mass intact from its supporting tissues
155
What does lateral subconjunctival enucleation involve?
involves a lateral canthotomy and a subconjunctival approach to the glove, extraocular muscles and optic nerve
156
What is transpalpebral enucleation?
removal of eyelids, conjunctiva and extraocular muscles along with eyeball
157
What is the branch of surgery dealing with the preservation and restoration of the function of the skeletal system, its articulations and associated structures; particularity associated with the correction of deformities of the musculoskeletal system?
orthopedics
158
What are benefits of onychectomy?
decrease mutilation of owner/furniture
159
How long after surgery do you take off declaw bandages?
12-24 hours
160
How long before declaw bandage removal do you give torbugesic?
20 mins before
161
What are complications of a declaw?
excess bleeding, infection, bone protrudes, regrowth of nail, chronic lameness, self trauma
162
With declaws, what age of cat tends to bleed more?
older cats
163
T or F. Some breeds require dewclaws present and more = better.
true
164
Are orthopedics usually considered an emergency?
no
165
Define reduction.
bringing the ends together
166
Where should you clip for a thoracic surgery?
axilla to umbilicus or pubis
167
What are indications of trouble in a thoracic surgery?
dyspnea, anxious, sudden death
168
What are noabsorbable sutures?
sutures that cannot be absorbed by the body cells and fluids in which they are embedded during the healing process
169
If nonabsorbable sutures are used as buried sutures, what happens?
they become surrounded or encapsulated in fibrous tissue and remain as innocuous foreign bodies
170
What are absorbable sutures?
sutures that are absorbed or digested by the body cells and tissue fluids in which they are embedded during and after the healing process
171
When are absorbable sutures used?
in tissues that heal rapidly to adequate strentgh
172
What is natural sutures made from?
animal or plant materials
173
How are natural sutures broken down?
by phagocytosis and this initiates inflammation
174
What are synthetic sutures made from?
man-made polymers
175
Why were synthetic sutures developed?
to avoid variation of resorptive rates in inflammed environments
176
Do synthetics cause less tissue reaction than natural fibers?
yeah
177
How is synthetic suture broken down?
by enzymatic hydrolysis (which doesn't cause tissue inflammation)
178
What does monofilament suture avoid?
avoids capillary action
179
Does monofilament suture have low or high surface friction?
low
180
Does monofilament suture have "memory"
yes
181
Do monofilament sutures have poor knot security?
yes
182
What is multifilament suture?
small elements braided or twisted together
183
What does many multifilament sutures cause?
tissue reaction, harboring of bacteria if contaminated, allows "wicking" or "capillary action", increased friction
184
What does "wicking" or "capillary action" cause?
fluids to travel along filament and can cause contamination
185
When should you not use multifilament suture?
hollow organs, when part of suture will be exposed to contamination
186
Why would you not use multifilament suture in hollow organs?
bacteria in lumen will travel to peritoneal/pleural cavity
187
Is silk absorbable or non-absorbable?
non-absorbable
188
Is silk natural or synthetic?
nature
189
Silk suture has what?
frequent tissue reaction or "spitting" of suture from the wound
190
Is silk monofilament or multifilament?
braided or twisted multifilament
191
Is cotton absorbable or non-absorbable?
non-absorbable
192
Is cotton natural or synthetic/
natural
193
What does cotton lose with each autoclaving?
tensile strength
194
Is linen absorbable or non-absorbable?
non-absorbable
195
Is linen natural or synthetic?
natural
196
Examples of synthetic non-absorbable suture.
nylon, stainless steel, prolene, Webpro
197
What is a problem with synthetic non-absorbable suture?
tendency for the knots to come untied
198
Is nylon absorbable or non-absorbable?
non-absorbable
199
Is nylon natural or synthetic?
synthetic
200
Why is nylon preferred over silk for face and lip areas?
silk too often causes tissue reactions, which causes more scarring
201
Can you use nylon in contaminated wounds and skin?
yes
202
What kind of filament is nylon?
mono and multi
203
Examples of nylon suture.
Polyweb, Braunamid white
204
Is stainless steel absorbable or non-absorbable?
non-absorbable
205
Does stainless steel have good knot security?
yes
206
What can multifilament stainless steel cause?
may fragment and cause sinus tracts
207
What would you use stainless steel suture in?
rib closure, tendon repair, skin to decrease licking, peritoneal suture line in some cases
208
What are some forms of stainless steel suture?
suture, michelle clips, hemoclips, staples
209
What is plain catgut?
raw guy that has been gauzed, polished, sterilized and packaged
210
What is chromic catgut?
undergone various intensities of tanning w/ one of the salts of chromic acid to delay tissue absoprtion time
211
What does tanning do?
takes out all moisture and fat to make more stable
212
Chromic catgut has an increased rate of absorption in what kind of environment?
infected
213
What does chromic catgut often cause? Why?
excessive tissue reaction because it's broken down by phagocytosis and this causes inflammation.
214
What is cyanoacrylate glue/
tissue adhesives used for treatment of minor woundsa dn abrasions, vascular and opthalmic surgery and hemostasis
215
How does bovine collagen trigger clot formation?
platelet aggregation and release of coagulation factors
216
Collagen's hemostatic capabilities are inactivated by what?
autoclaving
217
What is bone wax?
a non-absorbable agent that is used during orthopedic and neurologic surgery to control bleding from bone
218
What does bone wax function as?
a mechanical plug when pressed into bleeding bony surfaces
219
Drains should not what?
enter or exit at the incision line
220
When suturing, the best cosmetic effect is obtained by using numerous simple interrupted sutures placed how far apart?
1/8"
221
The distance of the needle bite from the wound edges should be equal to what?
the distance between sutures
222
What is an interrupted suture?
a solitary stitch or suture with a knot
223
What is a continuous suture?
several bites of suture taken to close a longer area with only a knot at the beginning and at the end of the line of stitches
224
What is a simple suture?
a single pass through tissue is made on each side of the incision
225
What is a mattress suture?
one the pattern is tied, the stitch pattern has two entrance/exit holes on each side of the incision so a mass of tissue is incorporated into the stitch on each side
226
What does evert mean?
cut edge rolls away from the body
227
What does invert mean?
cut edge rolls into the incision
228
What does apposing mean?
cut edges just come together with no rolling in or out
229
Examples of apposing suture patterns.
simple interrupted, simple continuous
230
Examples of everting suture patterns.
horizontal mattress, vertical mattress, continuous mattress
231
What are disadvantages of a horizontal mattress pattern?
difficult to apply without causing eversion, incarcerates blood supply if tight
232
What are advantages of a horizontal mattress pattern?
small amount of suture material used, rapid to do, tension type suture
233
What are advantages of a vertical mattress pattern?
tension suture, stronger than horizontal mattress, very little eversion
234
What are disadvantages of a vertical mattress pattern?
more suture material used, slow
235
When is a continuous mattress pattern used for skin closure?
continuous suture is okay, having a little eversion is okay, increased tension is needed
236
Examples of inverting suture patterns used for skin or hollow organs.
lembert, halstead
237
What is the gambee suture pattern used for?
to close anatomoses on GI tract rather than inverted suture by some surgeons
238
What are advantages of the gambee suture pattern?
minimal stenosis, minimal adhesions, minimal wicking (leakage), minimal infections
239
What does tension on tissues cause?
tear tissues, compromises blood supply
240
What is a quill?
vertical mattress with everting characteristics used to incorporate rubber, plastic, or gauze tube in external loop on each side of incision
241
What is a stent?
incorporate sterile gauze sponge roll in a large simple interrupted suture that presses sponge on previously sutured incision
242
What may excessive pressure with a stent cause?
necrosis
243
What are some causes of dehiscence?
excessive licking of site, infection, suture tearing, blunt trauma
244
Suture reactions are increased in what species?
cats
245
Benefits of castration.
decreased aggression, decreased roaming, decreased unwanted pups, decreased trauma, decreased disease, decreased adenocarcinoma of rectal area, decreased prostate problems when females in area in heat
246
How long may it take for improvements from a castration to show up?
6 months
247
What is scrotal ablation?
when the scrotum is removed for cosmetic or disease reasons
248
What are benefits of a cat castration?
creased aggression, decreased spraying, decreased roaming, decreased urine odor, decreased over population
249
What prevents herniation post-op with a rat castration?
fat pads
250
What is another word for laparotomy?
celiotomy
251
What is another word for celiotomy?
laparotomy
252
How would you clip for a laparotomy?
wide clip from sternum to pubis
253
Do you blot or wipe bleeding?
blot
254
What are 3 parts of a needle?
shank (body), eye, point
255
Shape and size of needle is selected for use by?
thickness of tissue being sutured, depth or incision, personal preference
256
Where are taper-point needles most often used?
in deep tissue where a leak would be a problem, when a sealed suture line is needed
257
Are taper point needles used on the skin?
no
258
What is the least traumatic kind of needle?
blunt
259
Loopuyt's needle is popular for what?
livestock procedures
260
Define glycosaminoglycan.
carbohydrate that balances the water content in cartilage, which is crucial to normal function
261
What is often used in a dog spay to assist ligation of ovary area?
carmalts
262
What is often used in dog spay to assist in ligation of body of the uterus?
angiotribe
263
What do you clip for a spay?
xiphoid to pubis
264
Define hydrometra.
collection of watery or mucoid fluid in the uterus
265
What is a chain loop ecraseur used for?
in equine reproduction surgery as a mare spay
266
What are benefits of an ovariohysterectomy?
decreased roaming, decreased diseases and trauma, decreased mammary tumors, eliminates chances of pyometra, decreased unwanted pups, no heat mess
267
Why do a wide and long prep with a spay?
can extend incision to find a bleeder, can extend incision to reach suspensory ligament of ovary or body of uterus more easily without traumatizing tissue from stretching body wall, etc
268
What are the 3 broad ligament parts caudal to cranial?
mesometrium, mesovarium, mesosalpinx
269
Where is the mesometrium broad ligament part located?
at uterus
270
Where is the mesovarium broad ligament part located?
at ovary
271
Where is the mesosalpinx broad ligament part located?
at uterine tube
272
What ligaments do we break during a spay?
suspensory ligament, round ligament
273
Where is the suspensory ligament located when doing a spay?
cranial edge, anchors near kidney
274
Where is the round ligament located when doing a spay?
midway along mesometrium, achors at inguinal ring
275
Which uterine horn do you expose first during a spay?
left
276
During a spay, when is your first check for bleeders?
when you tag with a mosquito and lower it
277
During a spay, when is your second check for bleeding?
check abdomen for bleeders with clean gauze on a mosquito
278
During a spay, when is your third check for bleeding?
compress sides of abdomen and see if blood comes up through your incision line
279
During a spay, which layer is the main strength layer?
abdominal wall
280
What does the SQ closure in a spay do?
eliminate dead space
281
When using cold sterilization, instruments must be ___ before being immersed and _____ _____ before being used on the patient.
dry, rinsed thoroughly
282
When speaking about suture, the bigger the number, the ____ the diameter.
larger
283
What does "O" "ought" number indicate?
smaller diameter sizes
