Anatomy Flashcards
(862 cards)
1
Q
What are some functions of blood?
A
carries nutrients, carries O2 to tissues, carries CO2 to lunges, carries waste to kidneys, carries hormones, temperature control, maintains water balance, clotting, defense, buffers provide a constant pH
2
Q
What are two main types of WBCs?
A
granulocytes and agranulocytes
3
Q
Where do red blood cells form? In response to what?
A
bone marrow in response to O2 levels at kidneys
4
Q
Hypoxia at kidneys promotes what?
A
release/secretion of erythropietin
5
Q
How long does stimulation of the bone marrow take to bring more RBCs into circulation?
A
3 days
6
Q
Do mature red blood cells have a nucleus?
A
no, unless it’s a bird or reptiles
7
Q
What is O2 transported on?
A
hemoglobin
8
Q
What does the RBC shape do?
A
provides a large surface area to absorb O2
9
Q
What is the shape of an RBC?
A
biconcave disk
10
Q
Where is iron temporarily stored?
A
liver/spleen
11
Q
Where can iron be lost?
A
feces, urine, sweat, fetal development
12
Q
What is the lifespan of a red blood cell?
A
3-4 months (120 days)
13
Q
What is bilirubin excreted in?
A
stool and urine
14
Q
An increase in bilirubin means what?
A
increased RBC breakdown (spleen) or problem with the processing of the pgment (liver)
15
Q
What is the pigment of RBCs?
A
bilirubin
16
Q
What is hemagglutination?
A
clumping of RBCs
17
Q
What test is hemagglutination used in?
A
cross matching blood prior to blood transfusions from donors to recipients to chck for blood compatibility
18
Q
What is anemia?
A
number of functional cells is less than normal or number of hemoglobin less than normal
19
Q
What are causes of anemia?
A
decreased production, blood loss, increased destruction, failure to mature
20
Q
What are results of anemia?
A
decreased O2 levels lead to tissue hypoxia, leading to increased heart rate. the blood is less viscous, causing body to work harder to deliver O2, acute heart failure
21
Q
What is hemoconcentration?
A
too many RBCs for the amount of liquid
22
Q
What causes hemoconcentration?
A
increased number of RBCs or decreased fluid from dehydration
23
Q
What is plycythemia?
A
increased number of red blood cells
24
Q
What does hemoconcentration result in?
A
thick blood that doesn’t flow properly, which can lead to heart failure
25
What are platelets also known as?
thrombocytes
26
What are platelts?
cytoplasm fragments off of large cells (megakaryocytes) in bone marrow
27
Do platelets have a nucleus?
no
28
What is the function of platelets?
clotting, they pluf small holes in vessels and initiate larger clotting system called "coagulation" for large tears
29
When does coagulation begin and end after injury?
15 seconds to 2 minutes after injury, lasts five minutes
30
What is coagulation?
clot that forms helps close edges of large tears
31
Absence of or decreased amounts of clotting factors causes what?
prolonged clotting time or no blotting
32
Is heparin naturally present in the body?
yes
33
Where is heparin stored in the body?
mast cells and basophils
34
What do coumarins cause?
internal hemorrhage and death
35
What are examples of coumarins?
dicumarol, warfarin
36
What are coumarins used for?
to thin blood (prolong clotting times)
37
Dietary deficiency of vitamin K results in what?
decreased clotting ability
38
What is the production of white blood cells caused?
leukopoiesis
39
What do granulocytes have?
granules present in cytoplasm
40
What are the types of granulocytes?
neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils
41
How do the granules of neutrophils stain?
they do not stain
42
What kind of nucleus do neutrophils have?
polymorphonuclear (PMN) nucleus
43
What is a PMN nucleus?
polymorphonuclear nucleus
44
What is the life span of neutrophils?
hours
45
What is the first line of defense among WBCs?
neutrophils
46
Tissues damage releases chemical that do what?
attract neutrophils
47
What is the most mobile of WBCs?
neutrophils
48
What does an increase in the number of neutrophils mean?
acute infection
49
What is left shift when talking about neutrophils?
when young cells appear in general circulation
50
Where are neutrophils located?
along blood bessel margins so stress flushes system causing leukocytosis with more neutrophils flushed out
51
Are neutrophils a phagocyte?
yes
52
What do neutrophils do?
engulf foreign materila and digest it using lysosome enzymes. They self destruct and lymph carries away debris or it accumulates as pus
53
Lymph passing through lymphnodes allows lymphnode cells to what?
identify problems and produce antibodies
54
What are other names for neutrophils?
segs or neuts
55
Eosinophils have what kind of nucleous?
polymorphicnuclear (PMN) nucleus
56
What colors do granules of eosinophils stain?
red
57
What is the life span of eosinophils?
hours
58
When do the number of eosinophils increase?
during chronic infections (especially parasites and allergies)
59
Eosinophils remove what?
ag/ab complexes that stimulate allergic responses
60
Are eosinophils phagocytic?
yes
61
What is another name for an eosinophil?
eos
62
What kind of nucleus do basophils have?
PMN nucleus
63
What color do granules of a basophil stain?
blue
64
What do basophils contain?
heparin and histamine
65
What does the histamine in basophils do?
relaxes smooth muscle of blood vessels, constricts smooth muscle in airways
66
Are basophils phagocytic?
yes
67
What causes an increase in the number of basophils?
chronic tissue inflammation, allergic reactions
68
What kind of cells are similar to basophils in tissue?
mast cells
69
Basophils and mast cell granules contain what? What does this cause?
histamine. inflammation.
70
Eosinophil granules contain what? What does this do?
histaminase. counteracts inflammation.
71
What do basophils and eosinophils both indicate?
allergies
72
What are agranulocytes?
no granules in cytoplasm
73
What are the types of agranulocytes?
monocytes and lymphocytes
74
What are two subtypes of lymphocytes?
B and T
75
What is the alrgest WBC?
monocytes
76
What kind of nucleus do monocytes have?
PMN nucleus
77
When are monocyte numbers increased?
chronic infections
78
What is the lifespan of monocytes?
months
79
Once monocytes are in tissues, what are they called?
macrophages
80
What do monocytes line?
liver and spleen (RES = reticuloendothelial system
81
In the RES system, what is the job of monocytes?
to destroy old RBCs, necrotic tissue, and foreign organisms
82
What is the life span of lymphocytes?
years
83
What do the nucleus of lymphocytes look like?
large round to bean-shaped
84
What type of lymphocyte is responsible for humoral immunity?
B lymphocytes
85
What type of lymphocyte is responsible for cellular immunity?
T lymphocytes
86
What do B lymphocytes do?
react with antigens and differentiate into (become) plasma cells within lymph nodes. This causes the lymph nodes to enlarge
87
What are plasma cells?
B lymphocytes programmed to produce a specific antibody
88
B lymphocytes programmed to produce a specific antibody is called what?
plasma cells
89
What is an antibody?
a small protein specific to control one antigen
90
What is a small protein specific to control one antigen?
antibody
91
What are antibodies also called?
imunoglobulins
92
What are immunoglobulins also called?
antibodies
93
Where is immunoglobulin A (Ig A) present?
in secretions and on mucous membranes (small amounts in serium)
94
Is Ig A antiviral?
yes
95
What is Ig A?
immunogloblulin A
96
What is the first line of defense for infections entering via the mucous membranes?
Ig A
97
Ig A is stimulated by what?
oral and aerosol immunizations
98
What immunoglobulin is stimulated by oral and aerosal immunizations?
immunoglobulin A
99
Is Ig A present in colostrum?
yes
100
What is Ig D needed for?
maturation of B cells to become plasma cells
101
Where can you find small amounts of Ig D?
in serum and on the surface of B lymphocytes
102
What is Ig D?
Immunoglobulin D
103
Ig E responds to what?
parasitic infections
104
What is Ig E?
immunoglobulin E
105
What does Ig E bind to?
mast cells and basophils
106
What binds to mast cells and basophils?
Ig E
107
When do basophils and mast cells degranulate?
when Ig E antibody binds to antigen on the basophils and mast cells
108
What happens when Ig E antibody binds to antigen on the basophils and mast cells?
the cells degranulate
109
What do basophil and mast cells granules contain?
histamine and serotonin
110
What initiates the inflammatory response important to protect the body?
granules in basophils and mast cells
111
What is the most abundant immunoglobulin?
Immunoglobulin G
112
What is Ig G?
immunoglobulin G
113
How much of Ig G protein is found in serum?
80%
114
Is Ig G able to cross the placenta?
yes
115
What is the major immunoglobulin in colostrum?
Ig G
116
What indicates past exposure to antigen?
levels last Ig G
117
What does Ig G activate?
complement system
118
What activates the complement system?
Ig G
119
What does the complement system do?
neutralizes viruses, initiates inflammatory response, lyses antigen when antigen is an intact cell, participates in phagocytosis
120
What is the first antibody produced by the immune system?
Ig M
121
What is Ig M?
immunoglobulin M
122
What does an Ig M antibody titer mean?
an active infection
123
What is produced early in infection?
Ig M
124
Does Ig M also activate complement system?
yes
125
Why is humoral immunity "humoral"?
antibodis are dissolved in the blood
126
Where are T cells educated to perform immune jobs in cell-mediated immunity?
thymus
127
In cell-mediated immunity, what are T lymphocytes stimulated by?
antigens that produce chronic diseases (fungi, TB, Brucella, cancer, organ transplants)
128
In cell-mediated immunity, what acts as the antibody?
entire cell
129
In cell-mediated immunity, the entire cell acts as what?
the antibody
130
In cell-mediated immunity, the cell attaches to what?
foreign body and both T cell and foreign body are destroyed
131
What are the four types of T-cells?
helper, cytotoxic, memory, NK
132
What do helper t-cells do?
recognize antigenic material and get the process started
133
What do cytotoxic t-cells do?
"killer" cells against certain foreign antigens on almost any cells
134
What do memory t-cells do?
remember the antigen for the future
135
What do NK t-cells do?
"natural killer" specific for cells infected with viruses
136
What type of t-cell recognizes antigenic material and get the process started?
helper
137
What type of t-cell kills cells against certain foreign antigens on almost any cell?
cytotoxic
138
What type of t-cells remember the antigen for the future?
memory
139
What type of t-cells are a natural killer specific for cells infected with viruses?
NK
140
What percentage of blood is water?
92%
141
What percentage of blood is other liquids?
8%
142
What is in the 'other' liquid portion of blood?
7/8 Protein - albumin and globulin
| 1/8 Amino acids, waste, glucose, lipids, electrolytes
143
Where is albumin made?
the liver
144
What is the majority of the protein found in blood?
albumin
145
What does albumin do?
transport other substances throughout the body
146
What is albumin responsible for?
osmotic pressure to keep fluid in blood vessels.
147
What would happen to blood without osmotic pressure?
fluid in the blood vessels would leak to body cavities and tissues
148
Where is globulin made?
the liver
149
Globulin inactivates what?
precursors of enzymes or substrates for enzymes involved in blood clotting
150
What is the main bugger in blood?
HCO3 bicarbonate
151
What does a buffer in the blood do?
adjusts pH
152
Is bicarbonate positively or negatively charged?
negatively
153
What is plasma?
fluid part of unclotted blood
154
What does plasma contain?
antibodies and clotting factors
155
What is serum?
liquid portion of clotted blood
156
Does serum have clotting factors?
no
157
What does serum contain?
antibodies that we can give to another animal
158
What does immune serum mean?
has antibodies
159
What does hyperimmune serum mean?
lots of antibodies
160
Antibodies in serum give what?
temporary immunity until antibodies cone and then animal is susceptible again
161
Does plasma contain antibodies?
yes
162
What is blood volume?
total amount of blood in body
163
What is the total amount of blood in body?
blood volume
164
What is the range of blood volume?
7%-9% of body weight
165
In dogs, what is the blood volume calculation?
40ml / #
166
In cats, what is the blood volume calculation?
20ml / #
167
What percentage of a horse's body weight is there blood volume?
9.7%
168
What percentage of a cow's body weight is there blood volume?
7.7#
169
What percentage of a sheep's body weight is there blood volume?
8%
170
What is the conversion factor for # to ml?
454 ml / #
171
What are the other body fluids that are derived from blood?
lymph, CSF, synovial fluid, serous fluids, aqeous humor, endolymph and perilymph
172
What are the two ways that tissue fluid returns to the heart?
1. venous capillaries to veins to the heart
| 2. lymphatics to a vein near heart and then to the heart
173
What is lymph transported in?
lymphatic vessels
174
What does lymph look like?
clear, colorless (basically plasma w/o RBCs)
175
What does lymph carry a lot of?
lymphocytes
176
What is lymph with fat in it called?
chyle
177
What is chyle?
lymph with fat in it
178
What does lymph with fat in it look like?
milky white
179
What does CSF stand for?
cerebrospinal fluid
180
Where is CSF formed?
formed in ventricles and ten circulates over brain and spinal cord to nourish and cushion
181
What does CSF look like?
blood with few cells and less protein
182
Where is synovial fluid present?
joint cavities, tendon sheaths, bursae to reduce friction (lubricate) and nourish surfaces
183
What does synovial fluid look like?
thick, clear, colorless to slight yellow
184
What is the mucopolysaccharide content like in synovial fluid?
high
185
What does the high mucopolysaccharide content account for?
thick and lubricating nature
186
Where are serous fluids present?
in body cavities to reduce friction
187
What do serous fluids look like?
clear, colorless to slight yellow
188
With infections and irritation, the volume of serous fluids will be what?
increased
189
An increase in the volume of serous fluids may mean what?
infections, irritation, low total protein, ascites
190
When total protein in blood is low (low osmotic pressure) and allowing fluid to leak out of blood vessels and into cavities, the volume of serous fluids will be what?
increased
191
What is aqueous humor produced by?
the ciliary body portion of the vascular tunic of the eye
192
What does aqueous humor do?
nourishes surfaces of the eye and provides proper refraction for sight
193
Where does aqueous humor circulate?
within the anterior segment of theeye
194
What does aqueous humor look like?
clear, colorless, very fluid
195
What nourishes the surfaces of the eye and provides proper refraction for sight?
aqueous humor
196
What are the fluids within the ear?
endolymph and perilymph
197
What are endolymp and perilymph?
fluids within the inner ear
198
What is responsible for stimulating nerves that detect sound and balance
movement
199
Movement is responsible for stimulating nerves in the ear that what?
detect sound and balance
200
Where is endolymph contained?
within the membraneous labyrinth in contact with the cells detecting hearing and balance
201
What fluid is found contained within the membraneous labyrinth in contact with the cells detecting hearing and balance?
endolymph
202
Where is perilymph contained?
within the boney labyrinth and is continuous with CSF
203
What fluid is contained within the boney labyrinth and is continuous with CSF?
perilymp
204
Why are inner ear infections bad?
perilymph is continuous with CSF
205
What is a cytokine?
chemical messenger
206
What are classic signs of acute inflammation?
swelling, pain, heat, redness
207
What does turgor also mean?
swelling
208
What does dolor also mean?
pain
209
What does calor also mean?
heat
210
What does rugor also mean?
redness
211
What does anamnestic response mean?
memory response
212
Immunologic memory means what?
ability to have a fast amplified response after an initial exposure
213
With active immunity, who made the immunity?
the animal made its own immunity
214
With passive immunity, who made the immunity?
someone else. the animal acquired its immunity from another source that did the work.
215
Skin has what kind of immunity function?
barrier
216
Macrophages secrete what?
chemotactic factors
217
Do injured cells secrete chemotactic factors?
yes
218
What are eicosanoids?
chemical derivatives of long chain-fatty acids
219
What do eicosanoids function as?
chemical messages
220
Where do eicosanoids coe from?
arachidonic acid
221
What are types of eicosanoids?
prostaglandins, leukotrienes, thrombaxanes
222
What type of eicosanoids is made in nearly every tissue of the body?
prostaglandins
223
What kind of effects do prostaglandins have (as eicosanoids)?
local effects
224
What do prostaglandins do as an eicosanoid?
regulate blood vessel diameter, inflammation, blood clotting, uterine contraction
225
What produces leukotrienes?
monocytes and mast cells
226
What are leukotrienes associated with?
allergic reactions
227
What do leukotrienes do?
increase vascular permeability and induce constriction of airways (asthma)
228
What reduces the synthesis of thrombaxanes?
aspirin
229
What are thrombaxanes involved in?
blood clotting
230
What does the lymphatic system provide for?
circulation, production and maturation of immune cells
231
What does the lymphatic system do?
drains tissue fluid, brings microorganisms and other foreign substances into contact with immune cells
232
What do lymphatic vessels do?
collect tissue fluid
233
What parallels the venous system?
lymphatic vessels
234
Where do lymphatic vessels empty?
into cranial vena cava near heart by way of the thoracic duct draining caudal half of body
235
Tracheal trunks do what?
drain head and neck and empty into jugular veins
236
What can be done to make lymphatic vessels more visible?
feed a fatty meal
237
What are lymphoid tissues?
lymphocytes trapped in connective tissue
238
What are the 3 patterns of lymphoid tissues?
scattered, nodules, encapsulated
239
Where can you find a scattered pattern of lymphoid tissues?
mucous membranes (some tonsils)
240
Where can you find a nodules pattern of lymphoid tissues?
intestinal mucosa
241
Where can you find a encapsulated pattern of lymphoid tissues?
lymph node, spleen, thymus, tonsils
242
What does lymph flow past that looks at the fluid for foreign cells and substances?
immune cells
243
What do lymph nodes do?
filter lymph
244
What filters lymph?
lymph nodes
245
What do lymph nodes contain?
lymphocytes, plasma cells, macrophages
246
Where are B and T lymphocytes stored?
spleen
247
What does the spleen remove?
old and worn out RBCs
248
What kind of animals is the thymus seen in?
immature animals
249
Does the thymus completely disappear?
no
250
What accumulated in the thymus? why?
lymphocytes, learn to be "T" cells
251
Where are tonsils?
close to epithelium so that it contacts antigens easily
252
What do the crypts of tonsils do?
increase surface area
253
What are Peyer's patches?
'intestinal tonsils'
254
What do arteries do?
carry blood away from the heart
255
What do capillaries do?
feed tissues
256
What do veins do?
carry blood to the heart
257
What do lymph vessels do?
carry tissue fluid
258
What kind of vessel carries blood away from the heart?
arteries
259
What kind of vessel feeds tissues?
capillaries
260
What kind of vessel carries blood to the heart?
veins
261
What kind of vessel carries tissue fluid?
lymph vessels
262
Which has thicker walls - veins or arteries?
arteries
263
What do large arteries have that helps maintain blood pressure during distole?
elastic tissue in walls
264
Large arteries have what in their walls?
elastic tissue
265
What do smaller arteries have in their walls?
smooth muscle
266
What does the smooth muscle in smaller arteries do?
controls size of vessels and amount of blood flow
267
What do arterioles have?
smooth muscle cuff at end
268
What does the smooth muscle cuff at the end that arterioles have do?
controls flow to capillaries and maintains blood pressure. the control is lost in shock.
269
Do capillaries have a thin or thick wall?
thin
270
What do capillaries do?
allow single row of RBCs to pass, allow water in and out, O2 our, nutrients out, wastes in
271
How many rows of RBCs do capillaries allow to pass?
a single row
272
Are veins or arteries larger?
veins
273
Do veins have thinner or thicker walls than arteries?
thinner
274
Veins are often more what?
superficial
275
Is the BP in veins higher or lower than in arteries?
lower
276
What keeps blood flowing towards the heart in veins?
valves
277
Valves keep blood flowing toward the heart in what?
veins
278
What does the lymphatic system consist of?
lymph vessels and lymphoid tissue
279
Lymphoid tissue is what?
accumulations of lymphocytes
280
What system forms antibodies?
lymphatic system
281
Lymph vessels resemble what?
veins
282
Do lymph vessels have thin or thick walls?
thin
283
How does lymph move?
by gravity with help from changing pressures in nearby structures such as muscles contracting
284
What is chylothorax?
lymph free in the chest
285
What are lacteals?
special lymph vessels that drain wall of small intesting, absorb lipids
286
What are lymphatics?
lymph vessels
287
Where to lymph vessels empty?
into vena cava in chest via thoracic duct
288
What do lymph vessels have so that lymph flows only towards the heart?
valves
289
Where is the thymus located?
in the anterior mediastinum
290
The thymus is large until how hold?
one year of age
291
What are functions of the spleen?
blood cell formation, Hb and iron metabolism, RBC destruction, blood filtration, phagocytosis, blood storage
292
What is the shape of the spleen in the chicken?
spherical
293
The thick capsule of the spleen contains what?
smooth muscle and elastic fibers to allow for large volume changes
294
Is the spleen essential to an adult?
no
295
What shape are lymph nodes?
bean/pea shaped
296
What do lymph nodes contain?
macrophages, lymphocytes, and plasma cells
297
How does lymph move through the lymph nodes?
enters at the cortex, percolates through medulla, leaves the hilus (in swine it's reversed)
298
What do plasma cells produce?
antibodies to foreign material discovered in the lymph
299
Condition of the lymph node reflects what?
conditions of the area the lymph node drains
300
Lymph nodes that are active do what?
increase in size
301
What are the 3 layers of the heart?
epicardium, myocardium, endocardium
302
Where do myocardial infarctions occur?
myocardium
303
Where is valvular endocarditis a problem?
in the endocardium
304
What is the outer layer of the heart?
epicardium
305
What is the middle layer of the heart?
myocardium
306
What is the inner layer of the heart?
endocardium
307
The heart is a __ chambered pump.
4
308
Reptiles and birds have a __ chambered heart.
3
309
What surrounds the heart?
serous sac within the mediastinum
310
The atrium cranial does what?
receives blood from veins
311
The ventricle caudal does what?
pumps blood out of the heart into arteries
312
Which side of the ventricle has a thicker wall?
left
313
The apex is on which side of the ventricle?
left
314
What is between chambers that keeps blood flowing one direction?
valves
315
What valves are between the atrium and ventricle?
A-V valves
316
The left A-V valve is what?
biscuspid / mitral valve
317
The right A-V valve is what?
tricuspid valve
318
What happens in A valves?
the free margin attaches to papillary muscles on wall by chordae tendinae
319
What are 3-cusped valves between ventricles and arteries called?
semilunar valves
320
Where is the aortic semilunar valve located?
between left ventricle and aorta
321
Where is the pulmonic semilunar valve located?
between right ventricle and pulmonary atery
322
What are the very first arteries after the aortic valve?
coronary arteries
323
Where do arteries branch?
head to limb
324
Axillary arteries return as what?
cephalic veins
325
Carotid arteries return as what?
jugular veins
326
The diaphragm separates what?
the thorax and the abdomen
327
What does the cranial vena cava drain?
head and front limbs
328
What does the caudal vena cava drain?
structures caudal to the heart
329
Define portal circulation
vein to capillaries to vein
330
In the hepatic portal system, venous blood drained from digestive tract is rich in what? Travels to liver in what?
nutrients. portal vein.
331
Nutrients in the blood within the portal vein are processed by what?
the liver
332
In the liver, the portal vein branches and reaches what?
sinusoids (capillary network)
333
In the liver, what mixes?
arterial and venous blood
334
With the hepatic portal system, blood comes in direct contact with liver cells which do what?
modify nutrients, store nutrients, detoxify any harmful substances
335
What is the blood flow in the liver?
flows to central vein of each liver lobule, to hepatic vein, to caudal vena cava and then to the heart
336
What is respiration initiated by?
ligation/severing of umbilical cord, handling fetus, draft of air
337
What is the general stimulus for shunts to close?
the increased oxygen levels that result from respiration
338
Increased O2 content of blood causes smooth muscle wall of ductus arteriousus to what?
contract and ductus arteriosus closes in a few minutes
339
What is diastole?
relaxation of a chamber of the heart just prior to and during filling
340
What is systole?
the contraction of a chamber of the heart in the process of partial emptying
341
What effects cardiac output?
heart rate and blood pressure
342
What is the cardiac cycle?
Blood enters R atrium (from systemic circulation), and L atrium (from lungs). Atrial pressure exceeds entricular pressure, AV valves open. Blood flows to ventricles. Atria depolarize and contract, empty, relax. Ventricles depolarize and contract. Increased ventricular pressure forces AV valves closed. Ventricular prssure exceeds arterial prssure, aortic and pulmonic semilunar valves open, blood flows to aorta and pulmonary truck. Arterial pressure exceed ventricular pressure, semilunar valves close.
343
What is the first heart sound?
when increased ventricular pressure forces AV valves closed
344
What is the second heart sound?
when arterial pressure exceeds ventricular pressure, semilunar valves close
345
What part of the heart is also called the pacemaker?
sinoatrial node
346
Where is the SA node located?
junction of cranial vena cava and right atrium
347
The heart beat originates where?
SA node
348
Electricity spreads through atria to __.
AV node
349
Where is the AV node located?
in septum (wall) between atrea
350
Impulse is conducted to ventricular muscle by what?
AV bundle
351
What are purkinje fibers?
special muscle cells that conduct like nerve fibers
352
What is a heart block?
interruption in the normal impulse pathway from the SA node to the ventricular wals
353
What can heart blocks resukt in?
VPCs
354
What causes the heart to beat regularly without outside control?
SA node
355
The vagus nerve does what when controlling the heart rate?
inhibits actions of the heart
356
Stellate ganglia does what when controlling the heart rate?
stimulates action of the heart
357
Why is metabolic rate increased in small animals?
because small animals have increased surface area per unit of body mass compared to larger animals
358
Where is the sublingual artery?
under the tongue
359
Where is the facial artery?
palpate medial surface of mandible at corner of jaw
360
What is an EKG a measurement of?
heart electrical activity as seen at the surface of the body
361
What is depolarization?
electricity prior to contraction
362
What is repolarization?
electricity after contraction
363
What happens during depolarization?
Na+ rushes in and inside cell becomes more +
364
What happens during repolarization?
K+ moves out and cell charge returns to beginning levels. ATP later restores Na+ and K+ to starting places
365
During depolarization, there is increased permeability of cell membrane to __.
Na+
366
During repolarization, there is increased permeability of cell membrane to __.
K+
367
What does the P wave represent?
depolarization of atrium
368
What activity does the P wave represent?
activity from SA node through atrium
369
Is the P wave a contraction?
no
370
What does the QRS complex represent?
depolarization of ventricle
371
What activity does the QRS complex represent?
activity from AV bundle through its branches
372
Is the QRS complex a contraction?
no
373
What does the T wave represent?
repolarization of the ventricles
374
Is the T wave positive or negative?
can be either, but should stay the same
375
Is the T wave a contraction?
no
376
Define arrhythmia.
variation from normal heart rhythm. abnormality of rate, regularity or site of origin of cardiac impulse.
377
Define sinus arrhythmia.
a physiologic cyclic variation in heart rate related to vagal impulses to the SA node
378
Define bradycardia.
Slow HR, less than 60 bpm
379
Define tachycardia.
rapid HR
380
Define heart block.
impaired heart conduction; often between the atria and ventricles
381
What does a 1st degree heart block look like?
P wave w/ wait for QRS complex (prolonged PR interval). Delay of impulse SA node to AV node.
382
What does a 2nd degree heart block look like?
P wave with no QRS complex (interspersed with normal PQRST)
383
What does a 3rd degree heart block look like?
P wave and QRS complex occurs but they are not related. Atria and ventricles beating on own without relationship to each other
384
Define fibrillation.
rapid randomized contractions. no coordinated contraction.
385
Which side of the heart has higher blood pressure?
left side of the heart
386
Which side of the heart has lower blood pressure?
right side of the heart
387
What will increase blood pressure in the heart?
resistance to flow
388
What does resistance to flow in aorta cause?
left ventricle to hypertrophy
389
Where is central venous pressure taken?
right atrium
390
Resistance to pulmonary flow causes what?
right ventricle to hypertrophy to create higher pressure to overcome resistance
391
What is blood pressure?
the pressure that blood exerts against vessel walls
392
What is it called when heart contraction causes a wave of systolic pressure to move through the system?
pulse / pulse wave
393
Where can you feel a pulse can you feel in small animals?
femoral artery
394
Where can you feel a pulse in large animals?
facial artery, coccygeal artery
395
How is pulse pressure maintained?
by elastic walls of arteries during diastole
396
Why is there a drastic drop in pressure from arterioles to capillary beds?
muscle cuff on end arteriole and large area of capillary bed
397
What in veins is too low for venous return?
pressure
398
Decreased blood pressure causes increased __.
HR
399
Increased blood pressure causes decreased __ and ___ of ____ vessels.
HR. vasodilation. peripheral.
400
What is BP measured in?
mmHg
401
What are 4 pieces of equipment you can use to measure BP?
Sphygmomanometer, Central Venous Pressure (CVP), Doppler, arterial line (A-line)
402
What is a sphygmomanometer?
BP cuff + stethoscope + monitor
403
Define shock.
condition that results when effective volume of blood circulated is insufficient to supply adequate nutrition to body tissues and to remove wastes.
404
What are some causes of shock?
hemorrhage, dilation of visceral vessels from histamine released due to trauma and/or sepsis, fluid loss into tissues due to edema/fracture/soft tissue trauma, failure of blood to return to heart, failure of heart to pump
405
What are signs of shock?
peripheral cooling, altered consciousness, altered respiration, altered heart rate, altered mucous membrane color, altered CRT
406
In shock, why is there peripheral vasoconstriction?
to maintain blood flow to heart/brain
407
With shock, why is there a decreased return to heart?
fluid losses continuing or peripheral toxin build up damaging capillary walls
408
What are some consequences of decreased return to heart with shock?
heart can't pump enough for adequate coronary circulation, weakened capillary walls lose more fluid
409
Why does shock make irreparable heart damage?
permeable capillaries and sluggish blood clots
410
What is the endocrine system comprised of?
ductless glands whose products are secreted directly into the blood stream
411
What is the purpose of the glands in the endocrine system?
to produce hormones
412
What are hormones?
chemical substances which regulate and integrate a great variety of metabolic processes carried on by the other tissues and organs of the body
413
Why are most endocrine glands small?
minute amounts are required
414
How long does it take blood to circulate through the entire body?
20 seconds
415
Hormone levels do what?
influence production or inhibition of other hormones
416
When looking at the neuroendocrine connection, nerves serve what purpose?
afferent purpose (information in)
417
When looking at the neuroendocrine connection, hormones provide what?
the reaction (efferent, information out)
418
What does the pineal gland sense?
daytime and is responsible for diurnal rhythm (lets animals know breeding season as well)
419
Diurnal means what?
animal is active in the day
420
Nocturnal means what?
animal is active at night
421
Crepuscular means what?
animal is active at twilight or just before dawn
422
What does the hypothalamus exert control over?
pituitary
423
What does the hypothalamus determine?
what the pituitary will produce
424
How are hormones delivered to the pituitary from the hypothalamus?
by blood, hypothalamus makes hormones and sends them in nerve fibers that go to the pituitary
425
Nerve pathways to the hypothalamus trigger what?
production or inhibition of pituitary hormones
426
Hypothalamus actions are affected by what?
circulating hormone levels
427
What are some things that hormones influence?
conception, gestation, parturition, digestion, growth, puberty, aging, homeokinesis
428
What does the endocrine system consister of?
pituitary (hypophysis), thyroid, parathyroid, metabolism, pancreas, adrenal, gonads, placenta, +/- pineal gland and thymus
429
What does ACTH stand for?.
adrenocorticotropic hormone
430
What's the abbreviation for adrenocorticotropic hormone?
ACTH
431
Where is the source of ACTH?
pituitary
432
What is the target of ACTH?
adrenal cortex
433
What does ACTH produce?
glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, androgens
434
What do glucocorticoids help withstand?
stress
435
What are androgens?
masculine sex hormone
436
What can terminate pregnancy in late stages?
glucocorticoids
437
Without adrenal gland function, when will the animal die?
in 2 weeks
438
What does FSH stand for?
follicle stimulating hormone
439
What is the acronym for follicle stimulating hormone?
FSH
440
Where does FSH come from?
pituitary
441
What is the target for FSH?
the ovary and the testicle
442
What does FSH do?
stimulate follicle/ovum formation in the female, and stimulate sperm formation in the male
443
What does GH stand for?
growth hormone
444
What is the acronym for growth hormone?
GH
445
What does STH stand for?
somatotropic hormone
446
What is the acronym for someatotropic hormone?
STH
447
Where does GH come from?
pituitary
448
Where does STH come from?
pituitary
449
What is the target for GH?
body tissues
450
What is the target for STH?
body tissues
451
What does GH do?
promotes growth
452
What does STH do?
promotes growth
453
What does LH stand for?
luteinizing hormone
454
What is the acronym for luteinizing hormone?
LH
455
Where does LH come from?
pituitary
456
What is the target of LH?
ovary and testicle
457
What does LH do?
stimulate ovulation and CL formation in females, stimulate testosterone release in males
458
What does LTH stand for?
prolactin
459
What is the acronym for prolactin?
LTH
460
Where does LTH come from?
pituitary
461
Where does prolacin come from?
pituitary
462
What is the target of LTH?
mammary gland (CL in some)
463
What is the target of prolaction?
mammary gland (CL in some)
464
What does LTH do?
cause lactation (CL in some -> progesterone)
465
What does prolactin do?
cause lactation (CL in some -> progesterone)
466
What does TSH stand for?
thyroid stimulating hormone
467
What is the acronym for thyroid stimulating hormone?
TSH
468
Where does TSH come from?
pituitary
469
What is the target of TSH?
thyroid
470
What does TSH do?
causes thyroxine (T4) production to increase metabolic rate
471
What does ADH stand for?
antidiuretic hormone
472
What is the acronym for antidiuretic hormone?
ADH
473
Where does ADH come from?
pituitary
474
What is the target of ADH?
kidney tubules, smooth muscle in arterioles
475
What does ADH do?
conserve water, constrict arterioles leading to increased blood pressure
476
What does OT stand for?
oxytocin
477
What is the acronym for oxytocin?
pituitary
478
What is the target of OT?
uterus, mammary gland
479
What does OT do?
cause smooth muscle contraction (uterus contraction and breeding and parturition, milk letdown) as well as a mood elevator
480
Where do glucocorticoids come from?
adrenal cortex
481
What is the target of glucocorticoids?
body tissues
482
What do glucocorticoids do?
- control normal carbohydrate/protein metabolism
- stimulate conversion of protein to carbohydrate for energy
- mobilize fatty acids from lipid tissues
- decreases inflammation and immune response
483
What disease do you get from greatly increased adrenocortical hormones?
Cushing's Disease
484
What do animals with Cushing's disease look like?
pot-bellied, thin skin because muscle and skin protein are converted to energy
485
Where do mineralocorticoids come from?
adrenal cortex
486
What is the target of mineralocorticoids?
body tissues
487
What does mineralocorticoids do?
- aldosterone (reabsorb Na+, Cl- and water and excrete K
| - can cause addison's disease
488
What happens if you have a great decrease in adrenalcortical hormones?
Addison's Disease
489
What kind of electrolyte imbalances do you get with Addison's disease?
hyperkalemia and hyponatremia
490
Where does epinephrine come from?
adrenal medulla
491
What is the target of epinephrine?
sympathetic nervous system
492
What does epinephrine do?
creates fight or flight response - prepare for emergencies, mobilize energy
493
Where dose thyroxine (T4) come from?
thyroid
494
Where does Triiodothyronine (T3) come from?
thyroid
495
What is the abbreviation for thyroxine?
T4
496
What is the abbreviation for triiodothyronine?
T3
497
What does T4 stand for?
thyroxine
498
What does T3 stand for?
triiodothyronine
499
What is the target of T4?
body tissues (almost all cells)
500
What is the target of T3?
body tissues (almost all cells)
501
What does T4 do?
increase metabolic rate, increases O2 consumption and ATP generation
502
What does T3 do?
increase metabolic rate, increases O2 consumption and ATP generation
503
What is the principal hormone released by the thyroid?
T4 (thyroxine)
504
Why would T3 considered to be more biologically important?
higher affinity of intracellular receptors for T3
505
How much of T3 comes from T4 that was converted?
80%
506
T3 and T4 bind to what?
plasma proteins
507
Deficiency in T4 causes what?
dwarfism, CNS disturbances, impaired mental development
508
What does an increase in T4 cause?
thin, irritable animals
509
What does CT stand for?
Thyrocalcitonin or Calcitonin
510
What is the acronym for thyrocalcitonin?
CT
511
What is the acronym for calcitonin?
CT
512
Where does CT come from?
thyroid
513
What is the target of CT?
bone
514
What does CT do?
- decreases Ca+ resorption from bone to help regulate Ca+ blood levels
- decreases Ca+ in blood, increases phosphorus
515
What does PTH stand for?
parathormone
516
What is the acronym for parathormone?
PTH
517
Where does PTH come from?
parathyroid
518
What is the target of PTH?
bone, GI, Kidneys
519
What does PTH do?
Increase blood Ca+ and decrease phosphate in the blood.
520
How does PTH increase blood Ca+ and decrease phosphate in the blood.
Ca+ resorbed from the bone into the blood, improved Ca+ resorption from GI, the kidney saves Ca+.
521
Where does insulin come from?
pancreas
522
Where in the pancreas does insulin come from?
beta-cells within the pancreatic islets (islets of Langerhans)
523
What is the target of insulin?
body cells
524
What does insulin do?
- moves glucose into cells
| - stimulates skeletal muscle and liver to synthesize glycogen (which is a storage form of glucose)
525
Glycogen is a storage form of what?
glucose
526
What happens when cells don't have insulin?
cells think glucose levels are low, and use gluconeogenesis in the liver to make energy (glucose) from fats and proteins. The animal gets sick from the by-products of the fat metabolism.
527
Where does glucagon come from?
pancreas
528
What part of the pancreas does glucagon come from?
alpha-cells within the pancreatic islets
529
What is the target of glucagon?
liver
530
What does glucagon do?
- stimulates glycogenolysis to increase glucose in the blood
| - stimulates gluconeogenesis
531
What is glycogenolysis?
breakdown of stored liver carbohydrate (ex. glycogen)
532
What is gluconeogenesis?
glucose production from new sources like fat and protein
533
Where does estrogen come from?
follicles of ovary and the placenta
534
What is the target of estrogen?
reproductive tract, body cells
535
What does estrogen do?
-reproductive tract growth
-helps maintain pregnancy (placental)
-female behavior in estrus, secondary sex characteristics
-stimulates Ca+ uptake in bones
stimulates increase in oxytocin receptors in smooth muscle of the uterus before birth
536
Where does relaxin come from?
corpus luteum of pregnant ovary
537
What is the target of relaxin?
reproductive tract
538
What does relaxin do?
dilation of cervix and relaxation of muscles and ligaments associated with the birth canal prior to parturition, facilitates mammary gland development
539
Where does progesterone come from?
CL (corpus luteum)
540
What is the target of progesterone?
reproductive tract
541
What does progesterone do?
- maintains pregnancy
| - stimulates mammary gland growth
542
What is androgen also referred to as?
testosterone
543
Where does testosterone come from?
testes
544
What is the target of testosterone?
reproductive tract, body cells
545
What is required for sperm maturation?
FSH and testosterone
546
What does testosterone do?
-causes spermatogenesis
-development of accessory sex glands
behavior, male characteristics, increased growth
547
Where does chorionic gonadotropin come from?
placenta
548
What is the target of chorionic gonadotropin?
reproductive tract
549
What does chorionic gonadotropin do?
maintain pregnancy
550
Gastrin and histamine are secreted in response to what?
food, especially proteins
551
Where does gastrin come from?
stomach (gastric epithelium)
552
Where does histamine come from?
stomach (gastric epithelium)
553
What is the the target of gastrin?
cells in stomach (parietal cells and chief cells within gastric glands)
554
What is the target of histamine?
cells in stomach (parietal cells and chief cells within gastric glands)
555
What does gastrin do?
- cause parietal cells to secrete HCl (kills bacteria, creates acid chyme)
- cause chief cells to secrete pepsinogen
556
What does histamine do?
- cause parietal cells to secrete HCl (kills bacteria, creates acid chyme)
- which cause chief cells to secrete pepsinogen
557
What caused by the HCl in the stomach activates pepsinogen to pepsin?
low pH
558
What begins protein digestion in the stomach?
pepsin
559
Protein digestion is finished where?
in the small intestine by other enzymes
560
Histamine receptors on parietal cells are what?
H2 receptors and produce HCl
561
Histamine receptors on cells involved in allrgic reactions are what?
H1 receptors and produce allergy symptoms
562
What are H2 receptors that produce HCl on parietal cells?
histamine receptors
563
What are H1 receptors that produce allergy symptoms on cells involved in allrgic reactions?
histamine receptors
564
Drugs that are H2 receptor antagonists are used to what?
reduce acid secretion
565
Antihistamines used for allergies bind to what?
H1 receptors only and don't disturb digestion
566
Where does secretin come from?
duodenum
567
What is the target of secretin?
pancreas, liver, stomach
568
What does secretin do?
- secrete NaHCO3 to creat basic pH
- secrete bile
- to slow the stomach down
569
What is NaHCO3?
sodium bicarbonate
570
Where does pancreozymin come from?
duodenum
571
What is the target of pancreozymin?
pancreas, stomach
572
What does pancreozymin do?
- promote secretion of pancreatic enzymes amylase and lipase
| - slow down stomach
573
Which pancreatic enzyme aids in starch digestion?
amylase
574
Which pancreatic enzyme aids in fat digestion?
lipase
575
Where does renin come from?
juxtaglomerular cells of kidney
576
What is the target of renin?
angiotensin system in the blood
577
What does renin do?
- promotes aldosterone secretion from adrenal glands which makes the kidney conserve Na+ and water. Results in increased BP and blood volume
- Makes smooth muscle of arterioles constrict (increased BP)
578
What is renin?
a hormone produced in the kidney
579
What is rennin?
a proteolytic enzyme secreted by gastric epithelial cells of very young mammals
580
What does rennin do?
- changes the character of ingested milk from liquied to a semisolid curd
- increases time milk is retained in the stomach, permits protein digestion to begin
581
Where does erythropoietin come from?
kidney
582
When is erythropoietin produced?
when kidney detects hypoxia
583
What is the target of erythropoietin?
bone marrow
584
What does erythropoietin do?
bone marrow increases RBC production
585
When does erythropoietin production cease?
when levels are adequate and O2 levels are normal in the kidney
586
In the horse, where is the long pastern located?
between the fetlock joint and pastern joint
587
What is the function of the long pastern?
to increase flexibility of the fetlock joint and thus reduce concussion
588
Where is the short pastern located?
between long paster and coffin bone
589
What is the function of the short pastern?
allows the foot to twist to adjust to uneven ground
590
What does the coffin bone determine?
shape of hoof
591
What is the coffin bone?
attachment spot for vessels and nerves that make up the sensitive structures of the foot, and form a hydraulic cushion between bone and hoof
592
Where is the navicular bone located?
between and underneat the short pastern and coffin bone
593
The navicular bone is a fulcrum for what?
the deep flexor tendon
594
What is the function of elastic structures in the hoof?
to absorb concussion and help circulate blood from foot
595
What are lateral cartilages?
wing-like on the sides of foot
596
What do lateral cartilages do?
reduce concussion and allow rear part of hoof wall to expand and contract
597
Where is the plantar cushion located?
between lateral cartilages on side, short pastern and navicular above and frog below
598
What is the plantar cushion?
shock absorber between pastern bone and frog
599
What is the coronary cushion?
elastic portion of the coronary band
600
What does the coronary cushion do?
reduces and transfers concussion between the hoof wall and coffin bone
601
What is on both sides of lateral cartilages and in sensitive structures are compressed by the plantar cushion and hoof wall against the lateral cartilages and coffin bone?
venous plexuses
602
Why are some structures in the hoof 'sensitive'?
they contain mainy blood vessels and nerve endings
603
What does injury to sensitive structures in horses cause?
pain and bleeding
604
What is the coronary band known as?
hoof wall
605
Perioplic Ring =
Periople
606
sensitive laminae =
white line
607
sensitive sole =
| sensitive frog = horny frog
horny sole
608
sensitive frog =
horny frog
609
Where is the coronary band?
around the upper edge of the hoof under hoof junction with skin
610
Injury to the coronary band will cause what?
defective horn in the oof at that point
611
What is the function of the hoof wall?
to bear weight of horse
612
What is the primary growth and nutritional source for the hoof wall?
coronary band
613
Changes in horse's condition and body temp will cause what?
changes in growth of hoof (rings)
614
How many months of information is seen when observing a hoof?
12 months
615
Where is the perioplic ring?
just above coronary band and next to hairline
616
What does the periople protect?
the sensitive coronary band
617
What sensitive structure joins the skin to the hoof wall?
perioplic ring
618
The perioplic ring produces what?
thin layer of horn cells that extend 3/4" to 1" down hoof wall called periople
619
What is it called when the underside of the periople flakes off and is carried down hoof?
hoof varnish
620
Hoof varnish protects what?
the horn of hoof wall and reduces loss of moisture
621
What protects the horn of hoof wall and reduces loss of moisture?
hoof varnish
622
Where is the sensitive laminae?it lies between the hoof wall and coffin bone, and covers bone outer surface
it lies between the hoof wall and coffin bone, and covers bone outer surface
623
What does the sensitive laminae do?
join the coffin bone to the hoof wall, suspends horse from hoof wall by the interlocking lamina leaves
624
Sole end of the laminae leaves marks what?
the junction of hoof wall and sensitive lamina (white line)
625
How wide is the white line?
1/8"
626
What is a guide for shaping shoe and placing nails?
white line
627
What does the sensitive sole cover?
ventral surface of coffin bone
628
The sole is NOT what?
weight bearing
629
What does the sole protect?
sensitive structures about it
630
How does excess sole growth slough off?
by wear or is trimmed with hoof knife
631
What does the sensitive sole do?
nourishes horn-producing layer of cells which make horny sole
632
What is a good indicator of hoof health?
frog
633
What does the frog function as?
a shock absorber, traction device, circulation aid (helps transfer concussion to plantar cushion)
634
What does the sensitive frog nourish?
horn-producing layer of cells producing horny frog
635
Why does the frog remain elastic and pliable?
due to presence of fat-secreting glands and its high moisture content
636
In horses, support in standing is procided by what two structures?
stay apparatus in foreleg, stay apparatus and reciprocal apparatus in hindleg
637
Define stay apparatus.
those structures that permit the horse to stand with relatively little muscular activity in the limbs
638
What does the forelimb stay apparatus involve?
long head of triceps + tendon of biceps + ligaments, tendons, sesamoids to form a sling across the caudal surface of the fetlock that helps prevent excessive hyperextension of the fetlocl
639
What does the hindlimb stay apparatus involve?
tensor fasciae latae + ligaments, tendons, sesamoids that form a sling across the caudal surface of the fetlock
640
Define reciprocal apparatus.
attachment of muscles that require the hock and stifle to flex or extend in unison
641
What does a reciprocal apparatus involve?
1 muscle on front surface of leg and 2 muscles on back surface of leg
642
What does a reciprocal apparatus for the hock and stifle to do?
move in unison
643
Define arthrology.
the study of joints
644
Joints are either:
immoveable, lightly moveable, or freely moveable
645
What are joints classified by?
structure, and material joining the bones together
646
What are the three general types of joints?
fibrous, cartilaginous, synovial
647
What are examples of fibrous joints?
joint between the splint bones and the cannon, sutures of the skull, joints between teeth and sockets in skull
648
What do fibrous joints not have?
joint cavity
649
What joins the bones in fibrous joints?
fibrous tissue
650
Fibrous joints allow what?
slight movement for some areas, no movement for others
651
Fibrous tissue joins the bones in what kind of joint?
fibrous joints
652
Do cartilaginous joints have a joint cavity?
no
653
What joins the bones in cartilaginous joints?
cartilage
654
Are cartilaginous joints moveable?
no, their immoveable
655
What is the exception to cartilaginous joints being immoveable?
hormonal influence on the joints of the pelvis at parturition allows for slight relaxation of the joints to enlarge the birth canal (especially in young cows)
656
What are examples of cartilaginous joints?
- growth plate of immature bone (hyaline cartilage)
- fibrocartilage connects adjacent sternebrae
- fibrocartilage connects adjacent vertebrae at the disc area between the veterbral bodies
- adjacent pelvic bones
- mandibular symphysis (jaw midline)
657
What are called the sternebrae?
the bones making up the breastbone
658
What are the bones making up the breatbone called?
sternebrae
659
What kind of joints are the ones we think of when we talk about joints?
synovial joints
660
Do synovial joints have a joint cavity?
yes
661
What kind of joint is freely moveable?
synovial joints
662
What are examples of synovial joints?
- stifle
- carpus
- some intervertebral joints (not the IV disc area, that's cartilaginous)
- connection of ribs to vertebrae
- hip
663
When talking about a synovial joint, what is the articular cavity?
joint cavity
664
What is the potential space between the bones called?
joint cavity
665
Define joint cavity.
potential space between the bones
666
What are parts of the synovial joint?
articular surfaces, articular cartilage, articular cavity (joint cavity), joint capsule
667
What are articular surfaces when talking about synovial joints?
ends of bones within the joint
668
What are articular surfaces made out of when talking about synovial joints?
compact bone
669
What are articular surfaces?
ends of bones within the joint
670
What are articular surfaces made out of?
compact bone
671
What covers the compact bone on the articular surfaces?
hyaline cartilage
672
What does hyaline cartilage cover?
the compact bone on the articular surfaces
673
What does the joint capsule consist of?
two parts with a fat pad between in some areas
674
What are the two parts of the joint capsule?
synovial membrane and fibrous membrane
675
What is the inner part of the joint capsule called?
synovial membrane
676
What secretes fluid called "synovial fluid"?
synovial membrane
677
The synovial membrane secretes what?
a fluid called synovial fluid
678
Define arthritis.
increased amount of inflammation
679
What is an increased amount of inflammation called?
arthritis
680
What does synovial fluid look like?
clear and thick
681
What does synovial fluid do?
lubricates to decrease friction
682
What may the synovial membrane contain?
villi and folds to increase the inner capsule surface area
683
What is the outside part of a joint capsule called?
fibrous membrane
684
Define fibrous membrane.
outside part of the joint capsule
685
What may the fibrous membrane contain?
extracapsular ligaments
686
Where are extracapsular ligaments located?
in fibrous membrane of joint capsule (outer, superficial joint capsule)
687
Where are intracapsular ligaments located?
within the joint itself
688
Where are intra-articular ligaments located?
within the joint itself
689
What are examples of extracapsular ligaments?
collateral, dorsal, palmer (plantar), annular
690
Where are collateral extracapsular ligaments found?
on medial and lateral sides of joint
691
Where are dorsal extracapsular ligaments found?
on the front of the joint
692
Where are palmer (plantar) extracapsular ligaments found?
on back, ventral, and posterior surfaces of joint
693
Where are annular extracapsular ligaments found?
they surround the joint in a ring shape
694
What are examples of intracapsular ligaments?
cruciate ligaments (ACL and PCL), carpal/tarsal ligaments, round ligament
695
Where are cruciate ligaments found?
within the stifle joint
696
What are two examples of cruciate ligaments?
anterior cruciate ligament and posterior cruciate ligament
697
What do the carpal/tarsal ligaments do?
hold carpal/tarsal bones together
698
What does the round ligament do?
holds hip in the socket
699
Where is the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) located?
lateral condyle to cranial tibia
700
Where is the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) located?
medial condyl to caudal tibia
701
Where is the meniscus located?
at the stifle
702
What does the meniscus act as?
a shock absorber
703
A torn meniscus can cause some what?
difficulty
704
What is the meniscus?
fibrocartilage cushion between the femus and tibia
705
What are the types of synovial joints?
simple and compound
706
Examples of simple synovial joints.
shoulder joint and hip joint
707
Examples of compound synovial joints.
carpals, tarsals, radio-ulnar-carpal joint
708
What is a simple synovial joint?
only two bones involved within the joint capsule
709
What is a compound synovial joint?
more than two bones involved within the same joint capsule
710
What type of synovial joint may have more than one joint capsule? Example?
compound joint, tarsus (hock)
711
What does the bursa do?
protects structures that move a short distance in relation to each other
712
What si the bursa?
a synovial sac located between two structures that rub against each other
713
Is the bursa associated with a joint?
no
714
What is bursitis?
increase in fluid is seem with inflammation
715
In the bursa, what is an increase in fluid that is seen with inflammatino?
bursitis
716
What are examples of bursas?
bicipital bursa, atlantal bursa, supraspinous bursa, bursa between triceps tendon and olecranon process of the ulna, bursa between skin and superficial digital flexor tendon at point of the hock
717
Where is the bicipital bursa?
where the biceps tendon crosses the point of the shoulder and rubs humerus
718
What bursa is where the biceps tendon crosses the point of the shoulder and rubs humerus?
bicipital bursa
719
What is bicipital bursitis?
inflammation of the bicipital bursa
720
What is inflammation of the bicipital bursa?
bicipital bursitis
721
Where is the atlantal bursa?
where the ligamentum nuchae contacts the atlas (cervical vetebra 1)
722
What bursa is where the ligamentum nuchae contacts the atlas (cervical vetebra 1)?
atlantal bursa
723
What is poll evil?
inflammation of the atlantal bursa
724
What is inflammation of the atlantal bursa?
poll evil
725
Where is the supraspinous bursa?
where the ligamentum nuchae contacts the spinous process of the T2 vertebrae
726
What bursa is where the ligamentum nuchae contacts the spinous process of the T2 vertebrae?
supraspinous bursa
727
What is 'fistulous withers'?
inflammation of th e supraspinous bursa
728
What is inflammation of the supraspinous bursa?
fistulous withers
729
What is the synovial sheath?
elongated bursa between tendon and surrounding issue
730
What does the synovial sheath surround?
the tendon
731
What does the synovial sheath do?
protects structures moving over a long distance
732
What is an increase in fluid in the synovial sheath called?
synovitis
733
What is synovitis?
an increase in fluid in the synovial sheath
734
The the synovial sheath and the tendon is inflammed, what is it called?
tendosynovitis
735
What is tendosynovitis?
the synovial sheath and the tendon is inflammed
736
Examples of synovial sheaths.
- synovial sheath around the superficial digital flexor tendon over the cannon bone
- synovial sheath around the deep digital flexor tendon over the cannon bone and above the hock
- inflammation involving both of these tendons over the cannon bone (bowed tendon)
- inflammation involving the deep digital flexor tendon about the hock (thoroughpin)
737
What do hinge joints allow?
flexion, extension, hyperextension
738
What do gliding joints allow?
gliding movements on small, flat surfaces
739
What are examples of hinge joints?
fetlock, atlanto-occipital joint (nodding yes), jaw when it opens and closes
740
What is an example of a gliding joint?
between carpal bones
741
What does ginglymus stand for?
hinge
742
What does arthrodial stand for?
gliding
743
How does a joint move if it's rotary?
pivots around one axis
744
What are examples of joints with a rotary joint movement?
atlanto-axial joint (C1 and C2 pivot at the dens on C2 when shaking head "no"
745
What does rotary stand for?
trochoid
746
What does trochoid stand for?
rotary
747
What does ball and socket stand for?
spheroid or enarthrodial
748
What does spheroid or enarthrodial stand for?
ball and socket
749
What are examples of joints with a ball and socket movement?
coxo-femoral (hip) and scapulo-humeral (shoulder)
750
What kind of movements are possible with ball and socket joints?
many movements possible
751
What kind of injuries can occur with joints?
dislocations, fractures, sprains, cuts, punctures
752
What is dislocation of a joint also known as?
luxation
753
Why is early treatment of luxation of a joint important?
to avoid joint cavity filling with connective tissue
754
What happens with luxation of a joint?
stretch/tear ligaments, stretch/tear joint capsule, tear blood vessels
755
What happens if you don't treat a luxation of a joint?
possible functional false joint, blood clot surrounding the bone becomes "orgaized" or mature, movement may be allowed
756
If a fracture is located near or within a joint, it is hard to what?
reduce (appose the edges)and immobilize the fracture
757
How would you treat a sprain of a joint?
rest
758
What is a sprain?
stretched ligaments
759
If a joint is cut, what does that mean?
the joint is open and it may involve tendons, or tendon sheaths
760
If a joint is cut, and has lost joint fluid, what does that result in?
decreased lubrication (joint moves less well)
761
Why is it hard to treat cuts in joints?
hard to get good drainage from the joint, hard to get drugs to all areas of the joint
762
How would an infection enter a cut in a joint?
from outside the body
763
When speaking about joints, what may a puncture involve?
tendons, sheaths
764
What does hematogenous spread mean?
infection due to spread through the blood stream
765
What does lymphogenous spread mean?
infection due to spread through the lymph
766
Define arthritis.
inflammation of the joint with swelling and pain
767
What is degenerative joint disease?
multiple changes in a chronically inflamed joint
768
What does degenerative joint disease include?
loss of articular cartilage, erosion of underlying bone, development of bone spurs around the margins of the joint
769
What are bone spurs also called?
osteophytes or enthesiophytes
770
What are osteophytes?
bone spurs
771
What are enthesiophytes?
bone spurs
772
If hyaline cartilage needs to be repaired, what will it be like?
fibrocartilage which won't be as smooth
773
What does original hyaline cartilage look like?
smooth and glassy
774
What is scurvy?
joint pain due to a break down in collagen resulting from Vitamin C deficiency
775
What are signs of scurvy?
lameness, swollen joints (also hemorrhages in SQ, skeletal muscle, subperiosteum, adrenal cortex, intestines)
776
What species is susceptible to scurvy?
guinea pigs, primates
777
What does scurvy also cause?
immunosuppression and increase susceptibility to infectious diseases
778
What are the 3 types of muscle?
smooth, cardiac, skeletal
779
Which type of muscle is involuntary unstriated?
smooth
780
Which type of muscle is involuntary striated?
cardiac
781
Which type of muscle is voluntary striated?
skeletal
782
A penniform muscle shape is?
Fan shaped and has the greatest power
783
What is an example of a muscle with a penniform shape?
Trapezius
784
What is an example of a parallel muscle shape that is in wide sheets?
Abdominal muscles
785
What is an example of a parallel muscle shape that is in narrow bands?
Inner thigh muscle
786
What are examples of a spindle shape muscle?
Biceps and triceps
787
Spindle shape muscle has what kind of center?
fat
788
How does muscle attach to bone?
tendons
789
Most tendons are ___ or ____.
cords/bands
790
What are aponeuroses? Where are they found?
Tendons that are flat sheets. Abdominal muscles.
791
Most muscles attach to two ________.
different bones
792
What is the cutaneous trunci?
Attachment between skin and over muscles, it allows the skin to “flick” to remove a fly
793
Sphincter muscles are ____ or ____.
striated / smooth
794
What do sphincter muscles surround?
an opening
795
What do synergists do?
stabilize one or more bones
796
What stabilizes the shoulder when only elbow movement is desired?
synergists
797
Why would a muscle group be unacceptable for injection purposes?
Damage to cuts of meat, no good place for an infection to easily drain without causing extensive tissue damage
798
Which muscles are heavy muscles suitable for injections in horses?
pectorals
799
What muscles are heavy muscles that may be used for deep IM injections in dogs?
lumbar muscles
800
What kind of injection would you give a dog in the lumbar muscles?
Immiticide HW treatment
801
What is one muscle fiber called?
myofiber
802
Some muscle fibers are built for ____ and others for ___ action.
endurance, quick
803
T/F. Quarter horses have more quick fibers than Arabians, who have more endurance fibers.
true
804
What are the contractile elements of a myofilament?
actin and myosin
805
What do “cross-bridges” on the myosin do?
Link with actin during contraction and pull the actin toward the center of the muscle cell
806
The movement of the actin long the myosin causes what?
The striped pattern of skeletal muscle
807
The striped pattern of skeletal muscle is caused by what?
The movement of the actin along the myosin
808
Why would a piece of muscle placed under the microscope have visible stripes?
Due to the overlap of actin and myosin
809
What is the sarcotubular system?
Rapid transit for muscle messages
810
The sarcotubular system surrounds ____.
Each myofibril
811
What does the sarbotubular system form?
A connecting system that allows rapid conduction of nerve impulses to all parts of the muscle fiber at one time
812
How does nerve information get to the muscle cell?
through the motor unit
813
One nerve will branch to _____ muscle cells.
many
814
What is a motor unit?
The nerve fiber plus all the muscle fibers innervated
815
What is the neuromuscular junction?
The point where the nerve reaches the muscle fiber
816
Is there a space between the nerve ending and the muscle?
yes
817
What does ACh stan for?
acetylcholine
818
Where is acetylcholine stored?
at the end of the nerve
819
What does acetylcholine increase?
the permeability of the muscle fiber membrane to sodium
820
What does acetylcholine bind with?
receptor sites on the muscle fiber surface
821
Depolarization triggers muscle cell contraction if what?
the change in cell charge is great enough
822
Depolarization spreads how?
rapidly to the entire muscle through the sarcotubular system
823
Calcium helps what to form in the muscles?
cross-bridges
824
What does the sarcotubular system release?
calcium into the area around the actin and myosin contractile elements
825
What maintains the tone of muscle?
small contractions that may occur that we don't see
826
A muscle contraction will not be seen unless what?
the stimulus is enough to trigger many muscle fibers to contract
827
What is an important role of calcium when it comes to muscles?
accelerates ACh release from the end of the nerve
828
Creatine phosphate is in __ concentration in the muscle.
high
829
ATP and Calcium are required for what?
contraction
830
How much ATP is needed for muscle contraction?
low amounts
831
How much ATP is needed for muscle relaxation?
high amounts
832
Define summation.
an additive effect of contraction
833
Define tetany.
continuous contraction (muscle spasm)
834
How many contractions are needed before maximum efficiency is reached?
30
835
What is pulmonary hypertensive heart disease a response to?
chronic hypoxia, hypocapnia, respiratory alkalosis of high-altitude environment
836
Smooth muscle is harder to what?
fatigue or tetanize
837
The sarcotubular system is not as well developed in which type of muscle?
cardiac
838
What do intercalated disks do?
provide connection between cardiac cells
839
High requirement for ___ in cardiac muscle.
ATP
840
is nerve stimulation required in cardiac muscle?
no
841
What depolarizes faster than any other part of the heart muscle?
SA node
842
T/F. Cardiac muscle contraction is slower than skeletal muscle.
true
843
Is tetany common in cardiac muscle?
no it's rare
844
How is the right kidney in the horse shaped?
heart-shaped
845
In which species is the kidney spread out along the lumbosacral area?
chicken
846
What is the fundus of the bladder?
free rounded cranial portion
847
What is the trigone part of the bladder?
area of ureteral orifices and bladder sphincter
848
Increased pressure in the bladder stimulates what?
spinal reflex at L6-L7
849
Repro tract is ____ to urinary tract.
dorsal
850
How much of circulating blood is in a kidney at any given time?
1/4 total of circulating blood
851
What are the four main functions of the kidney?
1. regulate water balance
2. regulate electrolyte levels
3. RBC productions (produces erythropoietin)
4. eliminates waste
852
What is the functional unit of the kidney?
nephron
853
What percentage of nephrons work at any given time?
25%
854
What does sodium promote?
water retention
855
Destruction of adrenal cortex causes ______ in K+ which are life threatening.
elevations
856
Unregulated secretion of aldosterone by adrenal tumor can cause significant _____ in plasma K+ which are life threatening.
reductions
857
Where are the collecting tubules and loops of henle located?
medulla
858
The medulla is ____.
striated
859
Where does urine collect, enter the ureter and travel to the bladder?
renal pelvis
860
What does the proximal convulated tubule do?
reabsorbs most of the things the body needs, secretes wastes from blood into tubule
861
What triggers the release of erythrpoietin from the kidney?
hypoxia
862
Define hydronephrosis.
obstruction of urine flow with back flow of urine
