Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

What are some functions of blood?

A

carries nutrients, carries O2 to tissues, carries CO2 to lunges, carries waste to kidneys, carries hormones, temperature control, maintains water balance, clotting, defense, buffers provide a constant pH

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2
Q

What are two main types of WBCs?

A

granulocytes and agranulocytes

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3
Q

Where do red blood cells form? In response to what?

A

bone marrow in response to O2 levels at kidneys

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4
Q

Hypoxia at kidneys promotes what?

A

release/secretion of erythropietin

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5
Q

How long does stimulation of the bone marrow take to bring more RBCs into circulation?

A

3 days

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6
Q

Do mature red blood cells have a nucleus?

A

no, unless it’s a bird or reptiles

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7
Q

What is O2 transported on?

A

hemoglobin

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8
Q

What does the RBC shape do?

A

provides a large surface area to absorb O2

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9
Q

What is the shape of an RBC?

A

biconcave disk

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10
Q

Where is iron temporarily stored?

A

liver/spleen

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11
Q

Where can iron be lost?

A

feces, urine, sweat, fetal development

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12
Q

What is the lifespan of a red blood cell?

A

3-4 months (120 days)

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13
Q

What is bilirubin excreted in?

A

stool and urine

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14
Q

An increase in bilirubin means what?

A

increased RBC breakdown (spleen) or problem with the processing of the pgment (liver)

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15
Q

What is the pigment of RBCs?

A

bilirubin

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16
Q

What is hemagglutination?

A

clumping of RBCs

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17
Q

What test is hemagglutination used in?

A

cross matching blood prior to blood transfusions from donors to recipients to chck for blood compatibility

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18
Q

What is anemia?

A

number of functional cells is less than normal or number of hemoglobin less than normal

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19
Q

What are causes of anemia?

A

decreased production, blood loss, increased destruction, failure to mature

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20
Q

What are results of anemia?

A

decreased O2 levels lead to tissue hypoxia, leading to increased heart rate. the blood is less viscous, causing body to work harder to deliver O2, acute heart failure

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21
Q

What is hemoconcentration?

A

too many RBCs for the amount of liquid

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22
Q

What causes hemoconcentration?

A

increased number of RBCs or decreased fluid from dehydration

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23
Q

What is plycythemia?

A

increased number of red blood cells

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24
Q

What does hemoconcentration result in?

A

thick blood that doesn’t flow properly, which can lead to heart failure

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25
Q

What are platelets also known as?

A

thrombocytes

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26
Q

What are platelts?

A

cytoplasm fragments off of large cells (megakaryocytes) in bone marrow

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27
Q

Do platelets have a nucleus?

A

no

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28
Q

What is the function of platelets?

A

clotting, they pluf small holes in vessels and initiate larger clotting system called “coagulation” for large tears

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29
Q

When does coagulation begin and end after injury?

A

15 seconds to 2 minutes after injury, lasts five minutes

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30
Q

What is coagulation?

A

clot that forms helps close edges of large tears

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31
Q

Absence of or decreased amounts of clotting factors causes what?

A

prolonged clotting time or no blotting

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32
Q

Is heparin naturally present in the body?

A

yes

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33
Q

Where is heparin stored in the body?

A

mast cells and basophils

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34
Q

What do coumarins cause?

A

internal hemorrhage and death

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35
Q

What are examples of coumarins?

A

dicumarol, warfarin

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36
Q

What are coumarins used for?

A

to thin blood (prolong clotting times)

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37
Q

Dietary deficiency of vitamin K results in what?

A

decreased clotting ability

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38
Q

What is the production of white blood cells caused?

A

leukopoiesis

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39
Q

What do granulocytes have?

A

granules present in cytoplasm

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40
Q

What are the types of granulocytes?

A

neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils

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41
Q

How do the granules of neutrophils stain?

A

they do not stain

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42
Q

What kind of nucleus do neutrophils have?

A

polymorphonuclear (PMN) nucleus

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43
Q

What is a PMN nucleus?

A

polymorphonuclear nucleus

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44
Q

What is the life span of neutrophils?

A

hours

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45
Q

What is the first line of defense among WBCs?

A

neutrophils

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46
Q

Tissues damage releases chemical that do what?

A

attract neutrophils

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47
Q

What is the most mobile of WBCs?

A

neutrophils

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48
Q

What does an increase in the number of neutrophils mean?

A

acute infection

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49
Q

What is left shift when talking about neutrophils?

A

when young cells appear in general circulation

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50
Q

Where are neutrophils located?

A

along blood bessel margins so stress flushes system causing leukocytosis with more neutrophils flushed out

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51
Q

Are neutrophils a phagocyte?

A

yes

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52
Q

What do neutrophils do?

A

engulf foreign materila and digest it using lysosome enzymes. They self destruct and lymph carries away debris or it accumulates as pus

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53
Q

Lymph passing through lymphnodes allows lymphnode cells to what?

A

identify problems and produce antibodies

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54
Q

What are other names for neutrophils?

A

segs or neuts

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55
Q

Eosinophils have what kind of nucleous?

A

polymorphicnuclear (PMN) nucleus

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56
Q

What colors do granules of eosinophils stain?

A

red

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57
Q

What is the life span of eosinophils?

A

hours

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58
Q

When do the number of eosinophils increase?

A

during chronic infections (especially parasites and allergies)

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59
Q

Eosinophils remove what?

A

ag/ab complexes that stimulate allergic responses

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60
Q

Are eosinophils phagocytic?

A

yes

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61
Q

What is another name for an eosinophil?

A

eos

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62
Q

What kind of nucleus do basophils have?

A

PMN nucleus

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63
Q

What color do granules of a basophil stain?

A

blue

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64
Q

What do basophils contain?

A

heparin and histamine

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65
Q

What does the histamine in basophils do?

A

relaxes smooth muscle of blood vessels, constricts smooth muscle in airways

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66
Q

Are basophils phagocytic?

A

yes

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67
Q

What causes an increase in the number of basophils?

A

chronic tissue inflammation, allergic reactions

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68
Q

What kind of cells are similar to basophils in tissue?

A

mast cells

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69
Q

Basophils and mast cell granules contain what? What does this cause?

A

histamine. inflammation.

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70
Q

Eosinophil granules contain what? What does this do?

A

histaminase. counteracts inflammation.

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71
Q

What do basophils and eosinophils both indicate?

A

allergies

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72
Q

What are agranulocytes?

A

no granules in cytoplasm

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73
Q

What are the types of agranulocytes?

A

monocytes and lymphocytes

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74
Q

What are two subtypes of lymphocytes?

A

B and T

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75
Q

What is the alrgest WBC?

A

monocytes

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76
Q

What kind of nucleus do monocytes have?

A

PMN nucleus

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77
Q

When are monocyte numbers increased?

A

chronic infections

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78
Q

What is the lifespan of monocytes?

A

months

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79
Q

Once monocytes are in tissues, what are they called?

A

macrophages

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80
Q

What do monocytes line?

A

liver and spleen (RES = reticuloendothelial system

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81
Q

In the RES system, what is the job of monocytes?

A

to destroy old RBCs, necrotic tissue, and foreign organisms

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82
Q

What is the life span of lymphocytes?

A

years

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83
Q

What do the nucleus of lymphocytes look like?

A

large round to bean-shaped

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84
Q

What type of lymphocyte is responsible for humoral immunity?

A

B lymphocytes

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85
Q

What type of lymphocyte is responsible for cellular immunity?

A

T lymphocytes

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86
Q

What do B lymphocytes do?

A

react with antigens and differentiate into (become) plasma cells within lymph nodes. This causes the lymph nodes to enlarge

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87
Q

What are plasma cells?

A

B lymphocytes programmed to produce a specific antibody

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88
Q

B lymphocytes programmed to produce a specific antibody is called what?

A

plasma cells

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89
Q

What is an antibody?

A

a small protein specific to control one antigen

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90
Q

What is a small protein specific to control one antigen?

A

antibody

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91
Q

What are antibodies also called?

A

imunoglobulins

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92
Q

What are immunoglobulins also called?

A

antibodies

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93
Q

Where is immunoglobulin A (Ig A) present?

A

in secretions and on mucous membranes (small amounts in serium)

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94
Q

Is Ig A antiviral?

A

yes

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95
Q

What is Ig A?

A

immunogloblulin A

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96
Q

What is the first line of defense for infections entering via the mucous membranes?

A

Ig A

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97
Q

Ig A is stimulated by what?

A

oral and aerosol immunizations

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98
Q

What immunoglobulin is stimulated by oral and aerosal immunizations?

A

immunoglobulin A

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99
Q

Is Ig A present in colostrum?

A

yes

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100
Q

What is Ig D needed for?

A

maturation of B cells to become plasma cells

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101
Q

Where can you find small amounts of Ig D?

A

in serum and on the surface of B lymphocytes

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102
Q

What is Ig D?

A

Immunoglobulin D

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103
Q

Ig E responds to what?

A

parasitic infections

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104
Q

What is Ig E?

A

immunoglobulin E

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105
Q

What does Ig E bind to?

A

mast cells and basophils

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106
Q

What binds to mast cells and basophils?

A

Ig E

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107
Q

When do basophils and mast cells degranulate?

A

when Ig E antibody binds to antigen on the basophils and mast cells

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108
Q

What happens when Ig E antibody binds to antigen on the basophils and mast cells?

A

the cells degranulate

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109
Q

What do basophil and mast cells granules contain?

A

histamine and serotonin

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110
Q

What initiates the inflammatory response important to protect the body?

A

granules in basophils and mast cells

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111
Q

What is the most abundant immunoglobulin?

A

Immunoglobulin G

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112
Q

What is Ig G?

A

immunoglobulin G

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113
Q

How much of Ig G protein is found in serum?

A

80%

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114
Q

Is Ig G able to cross the placenta?

A

yes

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115
Q

What is the major immunoglobulin in colostrum?

A

Ig G

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116
Q

What indicates past exposure to antigen?

A

levels last Ig G

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117
Q

What does Ig G activate?

A

complement system

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118
Q

What activates the complement system?

A

Ig G

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119
Q

What does the complement system do?

A

neutralizes viruses, initiates inflammatory response, lyses antigen when antigen is an intact cell, participates in phagocytosis

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120
Q

What is the first antibody produced by the immune system?

A

Ig M

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121
Q

What is Ig M?

A

immunoglobulin M

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122
Q

What does an Ig M antibody titer mean?

A

an active infection

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123
Q

What is produced early in infection?

A

Ig M

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124
Q

Does Ig M also activate complement system?

A

yes

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125
Q

Why is humoral immunity “humoral”?

A

antibodis are dissolved in the blood

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126
Q

Where are T cells educated to perform immune jobs in cell-mediated immunity?

A

thymus

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127
Q

In cell-mediated immunity, what are T lymphocytes stimulated by?

A

antigens that produce chronic diseases (fungi, TB, Brucella, cancer, organ transplants)

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128
Q

In cell-mediated immunity, what acts as the antibody?

A

entire cell

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129
Q

In cell-mediated immunity, the entire cell acts as what?

A

the antibody

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130
Q

In cell-mediated immunity, the cell attaches to what?

A

foreign body and both T cell and foreign body are destroyed

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131
Q

What are the four types of T-cells?

A

helper, cytotoxic, memory, NK

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132
Q

What do helper t-cells do?

A

recognize antigenic material and get the process started

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133
Q

What do cytotoxic t-cells do?

A

“killer” cells against certain foreign antigens on almost any cells

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134
Q

What do memory t-cells do?

A

remember the antigen for the future

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135
Q

What do NK t-cells do?

A

“natural killer” specific for cells infected with viruses

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136
Q

What type of t-cell recognizes antigenic material and get the process started?

A

helper

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137
Q

What type of t-cell kills cells against certain foreign antigens on almost any cell?

A

cytotoxic

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138
Q

What type of t-cells remember the antigen for the future?

A

memory

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139
Q

What type of t-cells are a natural killer specific for cells infected with viruses?

A

NK

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140
Q

What percentage of blood is water?

A

92%

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141
Q

What percentage of blood is other liquids?

A

8%

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142
Q

What is in the ‘other’ liquid portion of blood?

A

7/8 Protein - albumin and globulin

1/8 Amino acids, waste, glucose, lipids, electrolytes

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143
Q

Where is albumin made?

A

the liver

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144
Q

What is the majority of the protein found in blood?

A

albumin

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145
Q

What does albumin do?

A

transport other substances throughout the body

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146
Q

What is albumin responsible for?

A

osmotic pressure to keep fluid in blood vessels.

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147
Q

What would happen to blood without osmotic pressure?

A

fluid in the blood vessels would leak to body cavities and tissues

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148
Q

Where is globulin made?

A

the liver

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149
Q

Globulin inactivates what?

A

precursors of enzymes or substrates for enzymes involved in blood clotting

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150
Q

What is the main bugger in blood?

A

HCO3 bicarbonate

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151
Q

What does a buffer in the blood do?

A

adjusts pH

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152
Q

Is bicarbonate positively or negatively charged?

A

negatively

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153
Q

What is plasma?

A

fluid part of unclotted blood

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154
Q

What does plasma contain?

A

antibodies and clotting factors

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155
Q

What is serum?

A

liquid portion of clotted blood

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156
Q

Does serum have clotting factors?

A

no

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157
Q

What does serum contain?

A

antibodies that we can give to another animal

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158
Q

What does immune serum mean?

A

has antibodies

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159
Q

What does hyperimmune serum mean?

A

lots of antibodies

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160
Q

Antibodies in serum give what?

A

temporary immunity until antibodies cone and then animal is susceptible again

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161
Q

Does plasma contain antibodies?

A

yes

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162
Q

What is blood volume?

A

total amount of blood in body

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163
Q

What is the total amount of blood in body?

A

blood volume

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164
Q

What is the range of blood volume?

A

7%-9% of body weight

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165
Q

In dogs, what is the blood volume calculation?

A

40ml / #

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166
Q

In cats, what is the blood volume calculation?

A

20ml / #

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167
Q

What percentage of a horse’s body weight is there blood volume?

A

9.7%

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168
Q

What percentage of a cow’s body weight is there blood volume?

A

7.7#

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169
Q

What percentage of a sheep’s body weight is there blood volume?

A

8%

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170
Q

What is the conversion factor for # to ml?

A

454 ml / #

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171
Q

What are the other body fluids that are derived from blood?

A

lymph, CSF, synovial fluid, serous fluids, aqeous humor, endolymph and perilymph

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172
Q

What are the two ways that tissue fluid returns to the heart?

A
  1. venous capillaries to veins to the heart

2. lymphatics to a vein near heart and then to the heart

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173
Q

What is lymph transported in?

A

lymphatic vessels

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174
Q

What does lymph look like?

A

clear, colorless (basically plasma w/o RBCs)

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175
Q

What does lymph carry a lot of?

A

lymphocytes

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176
Q

What is lymph with fat in it called?

A

chyle

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177
Q

What is chyle?

A

lymph with fat in it

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178
Q

What does lymph with fat in it look like?

A

milky white

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179
Q

What does CSF stand for?

A

cerebrospinal fluid

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180
Q

Where is CSF formed?

A

formed in ventricles and ten circulates over brain and spinal cord to nourish and cushion

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181
Q

What does CSF look like?

A

blood with few cells and less protein

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182
Q

Where is synovial fluid present?

A

joint cavities, tendon sheaths, bursae to reduce friction (lubricate) and nourish surfaces

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183
Q

What does synovial fluid look like?

A

thick, clear, colorless to slight yellow

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184
Q

What is the mucopolysaccharide content like in synovial fluid?

A

high

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185
Q

What does the high mucopolysaccharide content account for?

A

thick and lubricating nature

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186
Q

Where are serous fluids present?

A

in body cavities to reduce friction

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187
Q

What do serous fluids look like?

A

clear, colorless to slight yellow

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188
Q

With infections and irritation, the volume of serous fluids will be what?

A

increased

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189
Q

An increase in the volume of serous fluids may mean what?

A

infections, irritation, low total protein, ascites

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190
Q

When total protein in blood is low (low osmotic pressure) and allowing fluid to leak out of blood vessels and into cavities, the volume of serous fluids will be what?

A

increased

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191
Q

What is aqueous humor produced by?

A

the ciliary body portion of the vascular tunic of the eye

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192
Q

What does aqueous humor do?

A

nourishes surfaces of the eye and provides proper refraction for sight

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193
Q

Where does aqueous humor circulate?

A

within the anterior segment of theeye

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194
Q

What does aqueous humor look like?

A

clear, colorless, very fluid

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195
Q

What nourishes the surfaces of the eye and provides proper refraction for sight?

A

aqueous humor

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196
Q

What are the fluids within the ear?

A

endolymph and perilymph

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197
Q

What are endolymp and perilymph?

A

fluids within the inner ear

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198
Q

What is responsible for stimulating nerves that detect sound and balance

A

movement

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199
Q

Movement is responsible for stimulating nerves in the ear that what?

A

detect sound and balance

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200
Q

Where is endolymph contained?

A

within the membraneous labyrinth in contact with the cells detecting hearing and balance

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201
Q

What fluid is found contained within the membraneous labyrinth in contact with the cells detecting hearing and balance?

A

endolymph

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202
Q

Where is perilymph contained?

A

within the boney labyrinth and is continuous with CSF

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203
Q

What fluid is contained within the boney labyrinth and is continuous with CSF?

A

perilymp

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204
Q

Why are inner ear infections bad?

A

perilymph is continuous with CSF

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205
Q

What is a cytokine?

A

chemical messenger

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206
Q

What are classic signs of acute inflammation?

A

swelling, pain, heat, redness

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207
Q

What does turgor also mean?

A

swelling

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208
Q

What does dolor also mean?

A

pain

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209
Q

What does calor also mean?

A

heat

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210
Q

What does rugor also mean?

A

redness

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211
Q

What does anamnestic response mean?

A

memory response

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212
Q

Immunologic memory means what?

A

ability to have a fast amplified response after an initial exposure

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213
Q

With active immunity, who made the immunity?

A

the animal made its own immunity

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214
Q

With passive immunity, who made the immunity?

A

someone else. the animal acquired its immunity from another source that did the work.

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215
Q

Skin has what kind of immunity function?

A

barrier

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216
Q

Macrophages secrete what?

A

chemotactic factors

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217
Q

Do injured cells secrete chemotactic factors?

A

yes

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218
Q

What are eicosanoids?

A

chemical derivatives of long chain-fatty acids

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219
Q

What do eicosanoids function as?

A

chemical messages

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220
Q

Where do eicosanoids coe from?

A

arachidonic acid

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221
Q

What are types of eicosanoids?

A

prostaglandins, leukotrienes, thrombaxanes

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222
Q

What type of eicosanoids is made in nearly every tissue of the body?

A

prostaglandins

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223
Q

What kind of effects do prostaglandins have (as eicosanoids)?

A

local effects

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224
Q

What do prostaglandins do as an eicosanoid?

A

regulate blood vessel diameter, inflammation, blood clotting, uterine contraction

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225
Q

What produces leukotrienes?

A

monocytes and mast cells

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226
Q

What are leukotrienes associated with?

A

allergic reactions

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227
Q

What do leukotrienes do?

A

increase vascular permeability and induce constriction of airways (asthma)

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228
Q

What reduces the synthesis of thrombaxanes?

A

aspirin

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229
Q

What are thrombaxanes involved in?

A

blood clotting

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230
Q

What does the lymphatic system provide for?

A

circulation, production and maturation of immune cells

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231
Q

What does the lymphatic system do?

A

drains tissue fluid, brings microorganisms and other foreign substances into contact with immune cells

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232
Q

What do lymphatic vessels do?

A

collect tissue fluid

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233
Q

What parallels the venous system?

A

lymphatic vessels

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234
Q

Where do lymphatic vessels empty?

A

into cranial vena cava near heart by way of the thoracic duct draining caudal half of body

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235
Q

Tracheal trunks do what?

A

drain head and neck and empty into jugular veins

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236
Q

What can be done to make lymphatic vessels more visible?

A

feed a fatty meal

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237
Q

What are lymphoid tissues?

A

lymphocytes trapped in connective tissue

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238
Q

What are the 3 patterns of lymphoid tissues?

A

scattered, nodules, encapsulated

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239
Q

Where can you find a scattered pattern of lymphoid tissues?

A

mucous membranes (some tonsils)

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240
Q

Where can you find a nodules pattern of lymphoid tissues?

A

intestinal mucosa

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241
Q

Where can you find a encapsulated pattern of lymphoid tissues?

A

lymph node, spleen, thymus, tonsils

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242
Q

What does lymph flow past that looks at the fluid for foreign cells and substances?

A

immune cells

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243
Q

What do lymph nodes do?

A

filter lymph

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244
Q

What filters lymph?

A

lymph nodes

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245
Q

What do lymph nodes contain?

A

lymphocytes, plasma cells, macrophages

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246
Q

Where are B and T lymphocytes stored?

A

spleen

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247
Q

What does the spleen remove?

A

old and worn out RBCs

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248
Q

What kind of animals is the thymus seen in?

A

immature animals

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249
Q

Does the thymus completely disappear?

A

no

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250
Q

What accumulated in the thymus? why?

A

lymphocytes, learn to be “T” cells

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251
Q

Where are tonsils?

A

close to epithelium so that it contacts antigens easily

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252
Q

What do the crypts of tonsils do?

A

increase surface area

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253
Q

What are Peyer’s patches?

A

‘intestinal tonsils’

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254
Q

What do arteries do?

A

carry blood away from the heart

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255
Q

What do capillaries do?

A

feed tissues

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256
Q

What do veins do?

A

carry blood to the heart

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257
Q

What do lymph vessels do?

A

carry tissue fluid

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258
Q

What kind of vessel carries blood away from the heart?

A

arteries

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259
Q

What kind of vessel feeds tissues?

A

capillaries

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260
Q

What kind of vessel carries blood to the heart?

A

veins

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261
Q

What kind of vessel carries tissue fluid?

A

lymph vessels

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262
Q

Which has thicker walls - veins or arteries?

A

arteries

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263
Q

What do large arteries have that helps maintain blood pressure during distole?

A

elastic tissue in walls

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264
Q

Large arteries have what in their walls?

A

elastic tissue

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265
Q

What do smaller arteries have in their walls?

A

smooth muscle

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266
Q

What does the smooth muscle in smaller arteries do?

A

controls size of vessels and amount of blood flow

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267
Q

What do arterioles have?

A

smooth muscle cuff at end

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268
Q

What does the smooth muscle cuff at the end that arterioles have do?

A

controls flow to capillaries and maintains blood pressure. the control is lost in shock.

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269
Q

Do capillaries have a thin or thick wall?

A

thin

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270
Q

What do capillaries do?

A

allow single row of RBCs to pass, allow water in and out, O2 our, nutrients out, wastes in

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271
Q

How many rows of RBCs do capillaries allow to pass?

A

a single row

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272
Q

Are veins or arteries larger?

A

veins

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273
Q

Do veins have thinner or thicker walls than arteries?

A

thinner

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274
Q

Veins are often more what?

A

superficial

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275
Q

Is the BP in veins higher or lower than in arteries?

A

lower

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276
Q

What keeps blood flowing towards the heart in veins?

A

valves

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277
Q

Valves keep blood flowing toward the heart in what?

A

veins

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278
Q

What does the lymphatic system consist of?

A

lymph vessels and lymphoid tissue

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279
Q

Lymphoid tissue is what?

A

accumulations of lymphocytes

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280
Q

What system forms antibodies?

A

lymphatic system

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281
Q

Lymph vessels resemble what?

A

veins

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282
Q

Do lymph vessels have thin or thick walls?

A

thin

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283
Q

How does lymph move?

A

by gravity with help from changing pressures in nearby structures such as muscles contracting

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284
Q

What is chylothorax?

A

lymph free in the chest

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285
Q

What are lacteals?

A

special lymph vessels that drain wall of small intesting, absorb lipids

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286
Q

What are lymphatics?

A

lymph vessels

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287
Q

Where to lymph vessels empty?

A

into vena cava in chest via thoracic duct

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288
Q

What do lymph vessels have so that lymph flows only towards the heart?

A

valves

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289
Q

Where is the thymus located?

A

in the anterior mediastinum

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290
Q

The thymus is large until how hold?

A

one year of age

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291
Q

What are functions of the spleen?

A

blood cell formation, Hb and iron metabolism, RBC destruction, blood filtration, phagocytosis, blood storage

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292
Q

What is the shape of the spleen in the chicken?

A

spherical

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293
Q

The thick capsule of the spleen contains what?

A

smooth muscle and elastic fibers to allow for large volume changes

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294
Q

Is the spleen essential to an adult?

A

no

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295
Q

What shape are lymph nodes?

A

bean/pea shaped

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296
Q

What do lymph nodes contain?

A

macrophages, lymphocytes, and plasma cells

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297
Q

How does lymph move through the lymph nodes?

A

enters at the cortex, percolates through medulla, leaves the hilus (in swine it’s reversed)

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298
Q

What do plasma cells produce?

A

antibodies to foreign material discovered in the lymph

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299
Q

Condition of the lymph node reflects what?

A

conditions of the area the lymph node drains

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300
Q

Lymph nodes that are active do what?

A

increase in size

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301
Q

What are the 3 layers of the heart?

A

epicardium, myocardium, endocardium

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302
Q

Where do myocardial infarctions occur?

A

myocardium

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303
Q

Where is valvular endocarditis a problem?

A

in the endocardium

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304
Q

What is the outer layer of the heart?

A

epicardium

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305
Q

What is the middle layer of the heart?

A

myocardium

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306
Q

What is the inner layer of the heart?

A

endocardium

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307
Q

The heart is a __ chambered pump.

A

4

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308
Q

Reptiles and birds have a __ chambered heart.

A

3

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309
Q

What surrounds the heart?

A

serous sac within the mediastinum

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310
Q

The atrium cranial does what?

A

receives blood from veins

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311
Q

The ventricle caudal does what?

A

pumps blood out of the heart into arteries

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312
Q

Which side of the ventricle has a thicker wall?

A

left

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313
Q

The apex is on which side of the ventricle?

A

left

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314
Q

What is between chambers that keeps blood flowing one direction?

A

valves

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315
Q

What valves are between the atrium and ventricle?

A

A-V valves

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316
Q

The left A-V valve is what?

A

biscuspid / mitral valve

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317
Q

The right A-V valve is what?

A

tricuspid valve

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318
Q

What happens in A valves?

A

the free margin attaches to papillary muscles on wall by chordae tendinae

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319
Q

What are 3-cusped valves between ventricles and arteries called?

A

semilunar valves

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320
Q

Where is the aortic semilunar valve located?

A

between left ventricle and aorta

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321
Q

Where is the pulmonic semilunar valve located?

A

between right ventricle and pulmonary atery

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322
Q

What are the very first arteries after the aortic valve?

A

coronary arteries

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323
Q

Where do arteries branch?

A

head to limb

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324
Q

Axillary arteries return as what?

A

cephalic veins

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325
Q

Carotid arteries return as what?

A

jugular veins

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326
Q

The diaphragm separates what?

A

the thorax and the abdomen

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327
Q

What does the cranial vena cava drain?

A

head and front limbs

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328
Q

What does the caudal vena cava drain?

A

structures caudal to the heart

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329
Q

Define portal circulation

A

vein to capillaries to vein

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330
Q

In the hepatic portal system, venous blood drained from digestive tract is rich in what? Travels to liver in what?

A

nutrients. portal vein.

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331
Q

Nutrients in the blood within the portal vein are processed by what?

A

the liver

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332
Q

In the liver, the portal vein branches and reaches what?

A

sinusoids (capillary network)

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333
Q

In the liver, what mixes?

A

arterial and venous blood

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334
Q

With the hepatic portal system, blood comes in direct contact with liver cells which do what?

A

modify nutrients, store nutrients, detoxify any harmful substances

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335
Q

What is the blood flow in the liver?

A

flows to central vein of each liver lobule, to hepatic vein, to caudal vena cava and then to the heart

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336
Q

What is respiration initiated by?

A

ligation/severing of umbilical cord, handling fetus, draft of air

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337
Q

What is the general stimulus for shunts to close?

A

the increased oxygen levels that result from respiration

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338
Q

Increased O2 content of blood causes smooth muscle wall of ductus arteriousus to what?

A

contract and ductus arteriosus closes in a few minutes

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339
Q

What is diastole?

A

relaxation of a chamber of the heart just prior to and during filling

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340
Q

What is systole?

A

the contraction of a chamber of the heart in the process of partial emptying

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341
Q

What effects cardiac output?

A

heart rate and blood pressure

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342
Q

What is the cardiac cycle?

A

Blood enters R atrium (from systemic circulation), and L atrium (from lungs). Atrial pressure exceeds entricular pressure, AV valves open. Blood flows to ventricles. Atria depolarize and contract, empty, relax. Ventricles depolarize and contract. Increased ventricular pressure forces AV valves closed. Ventricular prssure exceeds arterial prssure, aortic and pulmonic semilunar valves open, blood flows to aorta and pulmonary truck. Arterial pressure exceed ventricular pressure, semilunar valves close.

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343
Q

What is the first heart sound?

A

when increased ventricular pressure forces AV valves closed

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344
Q

What is the second heart sound?

A

when arterial pressure exceeds ventricular pressure, semilunar valves close

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345
Q

What part of the heart is also called the pacemaker?

A

sinoatrial node

346
Q

Where is the SA node located?

A

junction of cranial vena cava and right atrium

347
Q

The heart beat originates where?

A

SA node

348
Q

Electricity spreads through atria to __.

A

AV node

349
Q

Where is the AV node located?

A

in septum (wall) between atrea

350
Q

Impulse is conducted to ventricular muscle by what?

A

AV bundle

351
Q

What are purkinje fibers?

A

special muscle cells that conduct like nerve fibers

352
Q

What is a heart block?

A

interruption in the normal impulse pathway from the SA node to the ventricular wals

353
Q

What can heart blocks resukt in?

A

VPCs

354
Q

What causes the heart to beat regularly without outside control?

A

SA node

355
Q

The vagus nerve does what when controlling the heart rate?

A

inhibits actions of the heart

356
Q

Stellate ganglia does what when controlling the heart rate?

A

stimulates action of the heart

357
Q

Why is metabolic rate increased in small animals?

A

because small animals have increased surface area per unit of body mass compared to larger animals

358
Q

Where is the sublingual artery?

A

under the tongue

359
Q

Where is the facial artery?

A

palpate medial surface of mandible at corner of jaw

360
Q

What is an EKG a measurement of?

A

heart electrical activity as seen at the surface of the body

361
Q

What is depolarization?

A

electricity prior to contraction

362
Q

What is repolarization?

A

electricity after contraction

363
Q

What happens during depolarization?

A

Na+ rushes in and inside cell becomes more +

364
Q

What happens during repolarization?

A

K+ moves out and cell charge returns to beginning levels. ATP later restores Na+ and K+ to starting places

365
Q

During depolarization, there is increased permeability of cell membrane to __.

A

Na+

366
Q

During repolarization, there is increased permeability of cell membrane to __.

A

K+

367
Q

What does the P wave represent?

A

depolarization of atrium

368
Q

What activity does the P wave represent?

A

activity from SA node through atrium

369
Q

Is the P wave a contraction?

A

no

370
Q

What does the QRS complex represent?

A

depolarization of ventricle

371
Q

What activity does the QRS complex represent?

A

activity from AV bundle through its branches

372
Q

Is the QRS complex a contraction?

A

no

373
Q

What does the T wave represent?

A

repolarization of the ventricles

374
Q

Is the T wave positive or negative?

A

can be either, but should stay the same

375
Q

Is the T wave a contraction?

A

no

376
Q

Define arrhythmia.

A

variation from normal heart rhythm. abnormality of rate, regularity or site of origin of cardiac impulse.

377
Q

Define sinus arrhythmia.

A

a physiologic cyclic variation in heart rate related to vagal impulses to the SA node

378
Q

Define bradycardia.

A

Slow HR, less than 60 bpm

379
Q

Define tachycardia.

A

rapid HR

380
Q

Define heart block.

A

impaired heart conduction; often between the atria and ventricles

381
Q

What does a 1st degree heart block look like?

A

P wave w/ wait for QRS complex (prolonged PR interval). Delay of impulse SA node to AV node.

382
Q

What does a 2nd degree heart block look like?

A

P wave with no QRS complex (interspersed with normal PQRST)

383
Q

What does a 3rd degree heart block look like?

A

P wave and QRS complex occurs but they are not related. Atria and ventricles beating on own without relationship to each other

384
Q

Define fibrillation.

A

rapid randomized contractions. no coordinated contraction.

385
Q

Which side of the heart has higher blood pressure?

A

left side of the heart

386
Q

Which side of the heart has lower blood pressure?

A

right side of the heart

387
Q

What will increase blood pressure in the heart?

A

resistance to flow

388
Q

What does resistance to flow in aorta cause?

A

left ventricle to hypertrophy

389
Q

Where is central venous pressure taken?

A

right atrium

390
Q

Resistance to pulmonary flow causes what?

A

right ventricle to hypertrophy to create higher pressure to overcome resistance

391
Q

What is blood pressure?

A

the pressure that blood exerts against vessel walls

392
Q

What is it called when heart contraction causes a wave of systolic pressure to move through the system?

A

pulse / pulse wave

393
Q

Where can you feel a pulse can you feel in small animals?

A

femoral artery

394
Q

Where can you feel a pulse in large animals?

A

facial artery, coccygeal artery

395
Q

How is pulse pressure maintained?

A

by elastic walls of arteries during diastole

396
Q

Why is there a drastic drop in pressure from arterioles to capillary beds?

A

muscle cuff on end arteriole and large area of capillary bed

397
Q

What in veins is too low for venous return?

A

pressure

398
Q

Decreased blood pressure causes increased __.

A

HR

399
Q

Increased blood pressure causes decreased __ and ___ of ____ vessels.

A

HR. vasodilation. peripheral.

400
Q

What is BP measured in?

A

mmHg

401
Q

What are 4 pieces of equipment you can use to measure BP?

A

Sphygmomanometer, Central Venous Pressure (CVP), Doppler, arterial line (A-line)

402
Q

What is a sphygmomanometer?

A

BP cuff + stethoscope + monitor

403
Q

Define shock.

A

condition that results when effective volume of blood circulated is insufficient to supply adequate nutrition to body tissues and to remove wastes.

404
Q

What are some causes of shock?

A

hemorrhage, dilation of visceral vessels from histamine released due to trauma and/or sepsis, fluid loss into tissues due to edema/fracture/soft tissue trauma, failure of blood to return to heart, failure of heart to pump

405
Q

What are signs of shock?

A

peripheral cooling, altered consciousness, altered respiration, altered heart rate, altered mucous membrane color, altered CRT

406
Q

In shock, why is there peripheral vasoconstriction?

A

to maintain blood flow to heart/brain

407
Q

With shock, why is there a decreased return to heart?

A

fluid losses continuing or peripheral toxin build up damaging capillary walls

408
Q

What are some consequences of decreased return to heart with shock?

A

heart can’t pump enough for adequate coronary circulation, weakened capillary walls lose more fluid

409
Q

Why does shock make irreparable heart damage?

A

permeable capillaries and sluggish blood clots

410
Q

What is the endocrine system comprised of?

A

ductless glands whose products are secreted directly into the blood stream

411
Q

What is the purpose of the glands in the endocrine system?

A

to produce hormones

412
Q

What are hormones?

A

chemical substances which regulate and integrate a great variety of metabolic processes carried on by the other tissues and organs of the body

413
Q

Why are most endocrine glands small?

A

minute amounts are required

414
Q

How long does it take blood to circulate through the entire body?

A

20 seconds

415
Q

Hormone levels do what?

A

influence production or inhibition of other hormones

416
Q

When looking at the neuroendocrine connection, nerves serve what purpose?

A

afferent purpose (information in)

417
Q

When looking at the neuroendocrine connection, hormones provide what?

A

the reaction (efferent, information out)

418
Q

What does the pineal gland sense?

A

daytime and is responsible for diurnal rhythm (lets animals know breeding season as well)

419
Q

Diurnal means what?

A

animal is active in the day

420
Q

Nocturnal means what?

A

animal is active at night

421
Q

Crepuscular means what?

A

animal is active at twilight or just before dawn

422
Q

What does the hypothalamus exert control over?

A

pituitary

423
Q

What does the hypothalamus determine?

A

what the pituitary will produce

424
Q

How are hormones delivered to the pituitary from the hypothalamus?

A

by blood, hypothalamus makes hormones and sends them in nerve fibers that go to the pituitary

425
Q

Nerve pathways to the hypothalamus trigger what?

A

production or inhibition of pituitary hormones

426
Q

Hypothalamus actions are affected by what?

A

circulating hormone levels

427
Q

What are some things that hormones influence?

A

conception, gestation, parturition, digestion, growth, puberty, aging, homeokinesis

428
Q

What does the endocrine system consister of?

A

pituitary (hypophysis), thyroid, parathyroid, metabolism, pancreas, adrenal, gonads, placenta, +/- pineal gland and thymus

429
Q

What does ACTH stand for?.

A

adrenocorticotropic hormone

430
Q

What’s the abbreviation for adrenocorticotropic hormone?

A

ACTH

431
Q

Where is the source of ACTH?

A

pituitary

432
Q

What is the target of ACTH?

A

adrenal cortex

433
Q

What does ACTH produce?

A

glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, androgens

434
Q

What do glucocorticoids help withstand?

A

stress

435
Q

What are androgens?

A

masculine sex hormone

436
Q

What can terminate pregnancy in late stages?

A

glucocorticoids

437
Q

Without adrenal gland function, when will the animal die?

A

in 2 weeks

438
Q

What does FSH stand for?

A

follicle stimulating hormone

439
Q

What is the acronym for follicle stimulating hormone?

A

FSH

440
Q

Where does FSH come from?

A

pituitary

441
Q

What is the target for FSH?

A

the ovary and the testicle

442
Q

What does FSH do?

A

stimulate follicle/ovum formation in the female, and stimulate sperm formation in the male

443
Q

What does GH stand for?

A

growth hormone

444
Q

What is the acronym for growth hormone?

A

GH

445
Q

What does STH stand for?

A

somatotropic hormone

446
Q

What is the acronym for someatotropic hormone?

A

STH

447
Q

Where does GH come from?

A

pituitary

448
Q

Where does STH come from?

A

pituitary

449
Q

What is the target for GH?

A

body tissues

450
Q

What is the target for STH?

A

body tissues

451
Q

What does GH do?

A

promotes growth

452
Q

What does STH do?

A

promotes growth

453
Q

What does LH stand for?

A

luteinizing hormone

454
Q

What is the acronym for luteinizing hormone?

A

LH

455
Q

Where does LH come from?

A

pituitary

456
Q

What is the target of LH?

A

ovary and testicle

457
Q

What does LH do?

A

stimulate ovulation and CL formation in females, stimulate testosterone release in males

458
Q

What does LTH stand for?

A

prolactin

459
Q

What is the acronym for prolactin?

A

LTH

460
Q

Where does LTH come from?

A

pituitary

461
Q

Where does prolacin come from?

A

pituitary

462
Q

What is the target of LTH?

A

mammary gland (CL in some)

463
Q

What is the target of prolaction?

A

mammary gland (CL in some)

464
Q

What does LTH do?

A

cause lactation (CL in some -> progesterone)

465
Q

What does prolactin do?

A

cause lactation (CL in some -> progesterone)

466
Q

What does TSH stand for?

A

thyroid stimulating hormone

467
Q

What is the acronym for thyroid stimulating hormone?

A

TSH

468
Q

Where does TSH come from?

A

pituitary

469
Q

What is the target of TSH?

A

thyroid

470
Q

What does TSH do?

A

causes thyroxine (T4) production to increase metabolic rate

471
Q

What does ADH stand for?

A

antidiuretic hormone

472
Q

What is the acronym for antidiuretic hormone?

A

ADH

473
Q

Where does ADH come from?

A

pituitary

474
Q

What is the target of ADH?

A

kidney tubules, smooth muscle in arterioles

475
Q

What does ADH do?

A

conserve water, constrict arterioles leading to increased blood pressure

476
Q

What does OT stand for?

A

oxytocin

477
Q

What is the acronym for oxytocin?

A

pituitary

478
Q

What is the target of OT?

A

uterus, mammary gland

479
Q

What does OT do?

A

cause smooth muscle contraction (uterus contraction and breeding and parturition, milk letdown) as well as a mood elevator

480
Q

Where do glucocorticoids come from?

A

adrenal cortex

481
Q

What is the target of glucocorticoids?

A

body tissues

482
Q

What do glucocorticoids do?

A
  • control normal carbohydrate/protein metabolism
  • stimulate conversion of protein to carbohydrate for energy
  • mobilize fatty acids from lipid tissues
  • decreases inflammation and immune response
483
Q

What disease do you get from greatly increased adrenocortical hormones?

A

Cushing’s Disease

484
Q

What do animals with Cushing’s disease look like?

A

pot-bellied, thin skin because muscle and skin protein are converted to energy

485
Q

Where do mineralocorticoids come from?

A

adrenal cortex

486
Q

What is the target of mineralocorticoids?

A

body tissues

487
Q

What does mineralocorticoids do?

A
  • aldosterone (reabsorb Na+, Cl- and water and excrete K

- can cause addison’s disease

488
Q

What happens if you have a great decrease in adrenalcortical hormones?

A

Addison’s Disease

489
Q

What kind of electrolyte imbalances do you get with Addison’s disease?

A

hyperkalemia and hyponatremia

490
Q

Where does epinephrine come from?

A

adrenal medulla

491
Q

What is the target of epinephrine?

A

sympathetic nervous system

492
Q

What does epinephrine do?

A

creates fight or flight response - prepare for emergencies, mobilize energy

493
Q

Where dose thyroxine (T4) come from?

A

thyroid

494
Q

Where does Triiodothyronine (T3) come from?

A

thyroid

495
Q

What is the abbreviation for thyroxine?

A

T4

496
Q

What is the abbreviation for triiodothyronine?

A

T3

497
Q

What does T4 stand for?

A

thyroxine

498
Q

What does T3 stand for?

A

triiodothyronine

499
Q

What is the target of T4?

A

body tissues (almost all cells)

500
Q

What is the target of T3?

A

body tissues (almost all cells)

501
Q

What does T4 do?

A

increase metabolic rate, increases O2 consumption and ATP generation

502
Q

What does T3 do?

A

increase metabolic rate, increases O2 consumption and ATP generation

503
Q

What is the principal hormone released by the thyroid?

A

T4 (thyroxine)

504
Q

Why would T3 considered to be more biologically important?

A

higher affinity of intracellular receptors for T3

505
Q

How much of T3 comes from T4 that was converted?

A

80%

506
Q

T3 and T4 bind to what?

A

plasma proteins

507
Q

Deficiency in T4 causes what?

A

dwarfism, CNS disturbances, impaired mental development

508
Q

What does an increase in T4 cause?

A

thin, irritable animals

509
Q

What does CT stand for?

A

Thyrocalcitonin or Calcitonin

510
Q

What is the acronym for thyrocalcitonin?

A

CT

511
Q

What is the acronym for calcitonin?

A

CT

512
Q

Where does CT come from?

A

thyroid

513
Q

What is the target of CT?

A

bone

514
Q

What does CT do?

A
  • decreases Ca+ resorption from bone to help regulate Ca+ blood levels
  • decreases Ca+ in blood, increases phosphorus
515
Q

What does PTH stand for?

A

parathormone

516
Q

What is the acronym for parathormone?

A

PTH

517
Q

Where does PTH come from?

A

parathyroid

518
Q

What is the target of PTH?

A

bone, GI, Kidneys

519
Q

What does PTH do?

A

Increase blood Ca+ and decrease phosphate in the blood.

520
Q

How does PTH increase blood Ca+ and decrease phosphate in the blood.

A

Ca+ resorbed from the bone into the blood, improved Ca+ resorption from GI, the kidney saves Ca+.

521
Q

Where does insulin come from?

A

pancreas

522
Q

Where in the pancreas does insulin come from?

A

beta-cells within the pancreatic islets (islets of Langerhans)

523
Q

What is the target of insulin?

A

body cells

524
Q

What does insulin do?

A
  • moves glucose into cells

- stimulates skeletal muscle and liver to synthesize glycogen (which is a storage form of glucose)

525
Q

Glycogen is a storage form of what?

A

glucose

526
Q

What happens when cells don’t have insulin?

A

cells think glucose levels are low, and use gluconeogenesis in the liver to make energy (glucose) from fats and proteins. The animal gets sick from the by-products of the fat metabolism.

527
Q

Where does glucagon come from?

A

pancreas

528
Q

What part of the pancreas does glucagon come from?

A

alpha-cells within the pancreatic islets

529
Q

What is the target of glucagon?

A

liver

530
Q

What does glucagon do?

A
  • stimulates glycogenolysis to increase glucose in the blood

- stimulates gluconeogenesis

531
Q

What is glycogenolysis?

A

breakdown of stored liver carbohydrate (ex. glycogen)

532
Q

What is gluconeogenesis?

A

glucose production from new sources like fat and protein

533
Q

Where does estrogen come from?

A

follicles of ovary and the placenta

534
Q

What is the target of estrogen?

A

reproductive tract, body cells

535
Q

What does estrogen do?

A

-reproductive tract growth
-helps maintain pregnancy (placental)
-female behavior in estrus, secondary sex characteristics
-stimulates Ca+ uptake in bones
stimulates increase in oxytocin receptors in smooth muscle of the uterus before birth

536
Q

Where does relaxin come from?

A

corpus luteum of pregnant ovary

537
Q

What is the target of relaxin?

A

reproductive tract

538
Q

What does relaxin do?

A

dilation of cervix and relaxation of muscles and ligaments associated with the birth canal prior to parturition, facilitates mammary gland development

539
Q

Where does progesterone come from?

A

CL (corpus luteum)

540
Q

What is the target of progesterone?

A

reproductive tract

541
Q

What does progesterone do?

A
  • maintains pregnancy

- stimulates mammary gland growth

542
Q

What is androgen also referred to as?

A

testosterone

543
Q

Where does testosterone come from?

A

testes

544
Q

What is the target of testosterone?

A

reproductive tract, body cells

545
Q

What is required for sperm maturation?

A

FSH and testosterone

546
Q

What does testosterone do?

A

-causes spermatogenesis
-development of accessory sex glands
behavior, male characteristics, increased growth

547
Q

Where does chorionic gonadotropin come from?

A

placenta

548
Q

What is the target of chorionic gonadotropin?

A

reproductive tract

549
Q

What does chorionic gonadotropin do?

A

maintain pregnancy

550
Q

Gastrin and histamine are secreted in response to what?

A

food, especially proteins

551
Q

Where does gastrin come from?

A

stomach (gastric epithelium)

552
Q

Where does histamine come from?

A

stomach (gastric epithelium)

553
Q

What is the the target of gastrin?

A

cells in stomach (parietal cells and chief cells within gastric glands)

554
Q

What is the target of histamine?

A

cells in stomach (parietal cells and chief cells within gastric glands)

555
Q

What does gastrin do?

A
  • cause parietal cells to secrete HCl (kills bacteria, creates acid chyme)
  • cause chief cells to secrete pepsinogen
556
Q

What does histamine do?

A
  • cause parietal cells to secrete HCl (kills bacteria, creates acid chyme)
  • which cause chief cells to secrete pepsinogen
557
Q

What caused by the HCl in the stomach activates pepsinogen to pepsin?