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Exits > Anatomy > Flashcards

Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

What are some functions of blood?

A

carries nutrients, carries O2 to tissues, carries CO2 to lunges, carries waste to kidneys, carries hormones, temperature control, maintains water balance, clotting, defense, buffers provide a constant pH

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2
Q

What are two main types of WBCs?

A

granulocytes and agranulocytes

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3
Q

Where do red blood cells form? In response to what?

A

bone marrow in response to O2 levels at kidneys

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4
Q

Hypoxia at kidneys promotes what?

A

release/secretion of erythropietin

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5
Q

How long does stimulation of the bone marrow take to bring more RBCs into circulation?

A

3 days

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6
Q

Do mature red blood cells have a nucleus?

A

no, unless it’s a bird or reptiles

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7
Q

What is O2 transported on?

A

hemoglobin

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8
Q

What does the RBC shape do?

A

provides a large surface area to absorb O2

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9
Q

What is the shape of an RBC?

A

biconcave disk

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10
Q

Where is iron temporarily stored?

A

liver/spleen

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11
Q

Where can iron be lost?

A

feces, urine, sweat, fetal development

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12
Q

What is the lifespan of a red blood cell?

A

3-4 months (120 days)

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13
Q

What is bilirubin excreted in?

A

stool and urine

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14
Q

An increase in bilirubin means what?

A

increased RBC breakdown (spleen) or problem with the processing of the pgment (liver)

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15
Q

What is the pigment of RBCs?

A

bilirubin

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16
Q

What is hemagglutination?

A

clumping of RBCs

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17
Q

What test is hemagglutination used in?

A

cross matching blood prior to blood transfusions from donors to recipients to chck for blood compatibility

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18
Q

What is anemia?

A

number of functional cells is less than normal or number of hemoglobin less than normal

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19
Q

What are causes of anemia?

A

decreased production, blood loss, increased destruction, failure to mature

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20
Q

What are results of anemia?

A

decreased O2 levels lead to tissue hypoxia, leading to increased heart rate. the blood is less viscous, causing body to work harder to deliver O2, acute heart failure

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21
Q

What is hemoconcentration?

A

too many RBCs for the amount of liquid

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22
Q

What causes hemoconcentration?

A

increased number of RBCs or decreased fluid from dehydration

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23
Q

What is plycythemia?

A

increased number of red blood cells

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24
Q

What does hemoconcentration result in?

A

thick blood that doesn’t flow properly, which can lead to heart failure

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25
Q

What are platelets also known as?

A

thrombocytes

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26
Q

What are platelts?

A

cytoplasm fragments off of large cells (megakaryocytes) in bone marrow

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27
Q

Do platelets have a nucleus?

A

no

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28
Q

What is the function of platelets?

A

clotting, they pluf small holes in vessels and initiate larger clotting system called “coagulation” for large tears

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29
Q

When does coagulation begin and end after injury?

A

15 seconds to 2 minutes after injury, lasts five minutes

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30
Q

What is coagulation?

A

clot that forms helps close edges of large tears

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31
Q

Absence of or decreased amounts of clotting factors causes what?

A

prolonged clotting time or no blotting

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32
Q

Is heparin naturally present in the body?

A

yes

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33
Q

Where is heparin stored in the body?

A

mast cells and basophils

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34
Q

What do coumarins cause?

A

internal hemorrhage and death

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35
Q

What are examples of coumarins?

A

dicumarol, warfarin

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36
Q

What are coumarins used for?

A

to thin blood (prolong clotting times)

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37
Q

Dietary deficiency of vitamin K results in what?

A

decreased clotting ability

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38
Q

What is the production of white blood cells caused?

A

leukopoiesis

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39
Q

What do granulocytes have?

A

granules present in cytoplasm

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40
Q

What are the types of granulocytes?

A

neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils

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41
Q

How do the granules of neutrophils stain?

A

they do not stain

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42
Q

What kind of nucleus do neutrophils have?

A

polymorphonuclear (PMN) nucleus

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43
Q

What is a PMN nucleus?

A

polymorphonuclear nucleus

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44
Q

What is the life span of neutrophils?

A

hours

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45
Q

What is the first line of defense among WBCs?

A

neutrophils

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46
Q

Tissues damage releases chemical that do what?

A

attract neutrophils

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47
Q

What is the most mobile of WBCs?

A

neutrophils

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48
Q

What does an increase in the number of neutrophils mean?

A

acute infection

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49
Q

What is left shift when talking about neutrophils?

A

when young cells appear in general circulation

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50
Q

Where are neutrophils located?

A

along blood bessel margins so stress flushes system causing leukocytosis with more neutrophils flushed out

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51
Q

Are neutrophils a phagocyte?

A

yes

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52
Q

What do neutrophils do?

A

engulf foreign materila and digest it using lysosome enzymes. They self destruct and lymph carries away debris or it accumulates as pus

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53
Q

Lymph passing through lymphnodes allows lymphnode cells to what?

A

identify problems and produce antibodies

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54
Q

What are other names for neutrophils?

A

segs or neuts

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55
Q

Eosinophils have what kind of nucleous?

A

polymorphicnuclear (PMN) nucleus

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56
Q

What colors do granules of eosinophils stain?

A

red

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57
Q

What is the life span of eosinophils?

A

hours

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58
Q

When do the number of eosinophils increase?

A

during chronic infections (especially parasites and allergies)

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59
Q

Eosinophils remove what?

A

ag/ab complexes that stimulate allergic responses

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60
Q

Are eosinophils phagocytic?

A

yes

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61
Q

What is another name for an eosinophil?

A

eos

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62
Q

What kind of nucleus do basophils have?

A

PMN nucleus

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63
Q

What color do granules of a basophil stain?

A

blue

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64
Q

What do basophils contain?

A

heparin and histamine

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65
Q

What does the histamine in basophils do?

A

relaxes smooth muscle of blood vessels, constricts smooth muscle in airways

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66
Q

Are basophils phagocytic?

A

yes

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67
Q

What causes an increase in the number of basophils?

A

chronic tissue inflammation, allergic reactions

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68
Q

What kind of cells are similar to basophils in tissue?

A

mast cells

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69
Q

Basophils and mast cell granules contain what? What does this cause?

A

histamine. inflammation.

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70
Q

Eosinophil granules contain what? What does this do?

A

histaminase. counteracts inflammation.

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71
Q

What do basophils and eosinophils both indicate?

A

allergies

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72
Q

What are agranulocytes?

A

no granules in cytoplasm

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73
Q

What are the types of agranulocytes?

A

monocytes and lymphocytes

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74
Q

What are two subtypes of lymphocytes?

A

B and T

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75
Q

What is the alrgest WBC?

A

monocytes

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76
Q

What kind of nucleus do monocytes have?

A

PMN nucleus

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77
Q

When are monocyte numbers increased?

A

chronic infections

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78
Q

What is the lifespan of monocytes?

A

months

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79
Q

Once monocytes are in tissues, what are they called?

A

macrophages

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80
Q

What do monocytes line?

A

liver and spleen (RES = reticuloendothelial system

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81
Q

In the RES system, what is the job of monocytes?

A

to destroy old RBCs, necrotic tissue, and foreign organisms

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82
Q

What is the life span of lymphocytes?

A

years

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83
Q

What do the nucleus of lymphocytes look like?

A

large round to bean-shaped

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84
Q

What type of lymphocyte is responsible for humoral immunity?

A

B lymphocytes

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85
Q

What type of lymphocyte is responsible for cellular immunity?

A

T lymphocytes

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86
Q

What do B lymphocytes do?

A

react with antigens and differentiate into (become) plasma cells within lymph nodes. This causes the lymph nodes to enlarge

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87
Q

What are plasma cells?

A

B lymphocytes programmed to produce a specific antibody

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88
Q

B lymphocytes programmed to produce a specific antibody is called what?

A

plasma cells

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89
Q

What is an antibody?

A

a small protein specific to control one antigen

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90
Q

What is a small protein specific to control one antigen?

A

antibody

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91
Q

What are antibodies also called?

A

imunoglobulins

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92
Q

What are immunoglobulins also called?

A

antibodies

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93
Q

Where is immunoglobulin A (Ig A) present?

A

in secretions and on mucous membranes (small amounts in serium)

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94
Q

Is Ig A antiviral?

A

yes

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95
Q

What is Ig A?

A

immunogloblulin A

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96
Q

What is the first line of defense for infections entering via the mucous membranes?

A

Ig A

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97
Q

Ig A is stimulated by what?

A

oral and aerosol immunizations

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98
Q

What immunoglobulin is stimulated by oral and aerosal immunizations?

A

immunoglobulin A

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99
Q

Is Ig A present in colostrum?

A

yes

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100
Q

What is Ig D needed for?

A

maturation of B cells to become plasma cells

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101
Q

Where can you find small amounts of Ig D?

A

in serum and on the surface of B lymphocytes

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102
Q

What is Ig D?

A

Immunoglobulin D

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103
Q

Ig E responds to what?

A

parasitic infections

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104
Q

What is Ig E?

A

immunoglobulin E

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105
Q

What does Ig E bind to?

A

mast cells and basophils

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106
Q

What binds to mast cells and basophils?

A

Ig E

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107
Q

When do basophils and mast cells degranulate?

A

when Ig E antibody binds to antigen on the basophils and mast cells

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108
Q

What happens when Ig E antibody binds to antigen on the basophils and mast cells?

A

the cells degranulate

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109
Q

What do basophil and mast cells granules contain?

A

histamine and serotonin

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110
Q

What initiates the inflammatory response important to protect the body?

A

granules in basophils and mast cells

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111
Q

What is the most abundant immunoglobulin?

A

Immunoglobulin G

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112
Q

What is Ig G?

A

immunoglobulin G

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113
Q

How much of Ig G protein is found in serum?

A

80%

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114
Q

Is Ig G able to cross the placenta?

A

yes

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115
Q

What is the major immunoglobulin in colostrum?

A

Ig G

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116
Q

What indicates past exposure to antigen?

A

levels last Ig G

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117
Q

What does Ig G activate?

A

complement system

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118
Q

What activates the complement system?

A

Ig G

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119
Q

What does the complement system do?

A

neutralizes viruses, initiates inflammatory response, lyses antigen when antigen is an intact cell, participates in phagocytosis

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120
Q

What is the first antibody produced by the immune system?

A

Ig M

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121
Q

What is Ig M?

A

immunoglobulin M

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122
Q

What does an Ig M antibody titer mean?

A

an active infection

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123
Q

What is produced early in infection?

A

Ig M

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124
Q

Does Ig M also activate complement system?

A

yes

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125
Q

Why is humoral immunity “humoral”?

A

antibodis are dissolved in the blood

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126
Q

Where are T cells educated to perform immune jobs in cell-mediated immunity?

A

thymus

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127
Q

In cell-mediated immunity, what are T lymphocytes stimulated by?

A

antigens that produce chronic diseases (fungi, TB, Brucella, cancer, organ transplants)

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128
Q

In cell-mediated immunity, what acts as the antibody?

A

entire cell

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129
Q

In cell-mediated immunity, the entire cell acts as what?

A

the antibody

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130
Q

In cell-mediated immunity, the cell attaches to what?

A

foreign body and both T cell and foreign body are destroyed

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131
Q

What are the four types of T-cells?

A

helper, cytotoxic, memory, NK

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132
Q

What do helper t-cells do?

A

recognize antigenic material and get the process started

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133
Q

What do cytotoxic t-cells do?

A

“killer” cells against certain foreign antigens on almost any cells

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134
Q

What do memory t-cells do?

A

remember the antigen for the future

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135
Q

What do NK t-cells do?

A

“natural killer” specific for cells infected with viruses

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136
Q

What type of t-cell recognizes antigenic material and get the process started?

A

helper

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137
Q

What type of t-cell kills cells against certain foreign antigens on almost any cell?

A

cytotoxic

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138
Q

What type of t-cells remember the antigen for the future?

A

memory

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139
Q

What type of t-cells are a natural killer specific for cells infected with viruses?

A

NK

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140
Q

What percentage of blood is water?

A

92%

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141
Q

What percentage of blood is other liquids?

A

8%

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142
Q

What is in the ‘other’ liquid portion of blood?

A

7/8 Protein - albumin and globulin

1/8 Amino acids, waste, glucose, lipids, electrolytes

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143
Q

Where is albumin made?

A

the liver

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144
Q

What is the majority of the protein found in blood?

A

albumin

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145
Q

What does albumin do?

A

transport other substances throughout the body

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146
Q

What is albumin responsible for?

A

osmotic pressure to keep fluid in blood vessels.

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147
Q

What would happen to blood without osmotic pressure?

A

fluid in the blood vessels would leak to body cavities and tissues

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148
Q

Where is globulin made?

A

the liver

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149
Q

Globulin inactivates what?

A

precursors of enzymes or substrates for enzymes involved in blood clotting

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150
Q

What is the main bugger in blood?

A

HCO3 bicarbonate

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151
Q

What does a buffer in the blood do?

A

adjusts pH

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152
Q

Is bicarbonate positively or negatively charged?

A

negatively

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153
Q

What is plasma?

A

fluid part of unclotted blood

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154
Q

What does plasma contain?

A

antibodies and clotting factors

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155
Q

What is serum?

A

liquid portion of clotted blood

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156
Q

Does serum have clotting factors?

A

no

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157
Q

What does serum contain?

A

antibodies that we can give to another animal

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158
Q

What does immune serum mean?

A

has antibodies

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159
Q

What does hyperimmune serum mean?

A

lots of antibodies

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160
Q

Antibodies in serum give what?

A

temporary immunity until antibodies cone and then animal is susceptible again

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161
Q

Does plasma contain antibodies?

A

yes

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162
Q

What is blood volume?

A

total amount of blood in body

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163
Q

What is the total amount of blood in body?

A

blood volume

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164
Q

What is the range of blood volume?

A

7%-9% of body weight

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165
Q

In dogs, what is the blood volume calculation?

A

40ml / #

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166
Q

In cats, what is the blood volume calculation?

A

20ml / #

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167
Q

What percentage of a horse’s body weight is there blood volume?

A

9.7%

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168
Q

What percentage of a cow’s body weight is there blood volume?

A

7.7#

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169
Q

What percentage of a sheep’s body weight is there blood volume?

A

8%

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170
Q

What is the conversion factor for # to ml?

A

454 ml / #

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171
Q

What are the other body fluids that are derived from blood?

A

lymph, CSF, synovial fluid, serous fluids, aqeous humor, endolymph and perilymph

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172
Q

What are the two ways that tissue fluid returns to the heart?

A
  1. venous capillaries to veins to the heart

2. lymphatics to a vein near heart and then to the heart

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173
Q

What is lymph transported in?

A

lymphatic vessels

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174
Q

What does lymph look like?

A

clear, colorless (basically plasma w/o RBCs)

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175
Q

What does lymph carry a lot of?

A

lymphocytes

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176
Q

What is lymph with fat in it called?

A

chyle

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177
Q

What is chyle?

A

lymph with fat in it

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178
Q

What does lymph with fat in it look like?

A

milky white

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179
Q

What does CSF stand for?

A

cerebrospinal fluid

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180
Q

Where is CSF formed?

A

formed in ventricles and ten circulates over brain and spinal cord to nourish and cushion

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181
Q

What does CSF look like?

A

blood with few cells and less protein

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182
Q

Where is synovial fluid present?

A

joint cavities, tendon sheaths, bursae to reduce friction (lubricate) and nourish surfaces

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183
Q

What does synovial fluid look like?

A

thick, clear, colorless to slight yellow

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184
Q

What is the mucopolysaccharide content like in synovial fluid?

A

high

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185
Q

What does the high mucopolysaccharide content account for?

A

thick and lubricating nature

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186
Q

Where are serous fluids present?

A

in body cavities to reduce friction

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187
Q

What do serous fluids look like?

A

clear, colorless to slight yellow

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188
Q

With infections and irritation, the volume of serous fluids will be what?

A

increased

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189
Q

An increase in the volume of serous fluids may mean what?

A

infections, irritation, low total protein, ascites

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190
Q

When total protein in blood is low (low osmotic pressure) and allowing fluid to leak out of blood vessels and into cavities, the volume of serous fluids will be what?

A

increased

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191
Q

What is aqueous humor produced by?

A

the ciliary body portion of the vascular tunic of the eye

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192
Q

What does aqueous humor do?

A

nourishes surfaces of the eye and provides proper refraction for sight

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193
Q

Where does aqueous humor circulate?

A

within the anterior segment of theeye

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194
Q

What does aqueous humor look like?

A

clear, colorless, very fluid

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195
Q

What nourishes the surfaces of the eye and provides proper refraction for sight?

A

aqueous humor

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196
Q

What are the fluids within the ear?

A

endolymph and perilymph

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197
Q

What are endolymp and perilymph?

A

fluids within the inner ear

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198
Q

What is responsible for stimulating nerves that detect sound and balance

A

movement

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199
Q

Movement is responsible for stimulating nerves in the ear that what?

A

detect sound and balance

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200
Q

Where is endolymph contained?

A

within the membraneous labyrinth in contact with the cells detecting hearing and balance

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201
Q

What fluid is found contained within the membraneous labyrinth in contact with the cells detecting hearing and balance?

A

endolymph

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202
Q

Where is perilymph contained?

A

within the boney labyrinth and is continuous with CSF

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203
Q

What fluid is contained within the boney labyrinth and is continuous with CSF?

A

perilymp

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204
Q

Why are inner ear infections bad?

A

perilymph is continuous with CSF

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205
Q

What is a cytokine?

A

chemical messenger

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206
Q

What are classic signs of acute inflammation?

A

swelling, pain, heat, redness

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207
Q

What does turgor also mean?

A

swelling

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208
Q

What does dolor also mean?

A

pain

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209
Q

What does calor also mean?

A

heat

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210
Q

What does rugor also mean?

A

redness

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211
Q

What does anamnestic response mean?

A

memory response

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212
Q

Immunologic memory means what?

A

ability to have a fast amplified response after an initial exposure

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213
Q

With active immunity, who made the immunity?

A

the animal made its own immunity

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214
Q

With passive immunity, who made the immunity?

A

someone else. the animal acquired its immunity from another source that did the work.

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215
Q

Skin has what kind of immunity function?

A

barrier

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216
Q

Macrophages secrete what?

A

chemotactic factors

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217
Q

Do injured cells secrete chemotactic factors?

A

yes

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218
Q

What are eicosanoids?

A

chemical derivatives of long chain-fatty acids

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219
Q

What do eicosanoids function as?

A

chemical messages

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220
Q

Where do eicosanoids coe from?

A

arachidonic acid

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221
Q

What are types of eicosanoids?

A

prostaglandins, leukotrienes, thrombaxanes

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222
Q

What type of eicosanoids is made in nearly every tissue of the body?

A

prostaglandins

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223
Q

What kind of effects do prostaglandins have (as eicosanoids)?

A

local effects

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224
Q

What do prostaglandins do as an eicosanoid?

A

regulate blood vessel diameter, inflammation, blood clotting, uterine contraction

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225
Q

What produces leukotrienes?

A

monocytes and mast cells

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226
Q

What are leukotrienes associated with?

A

allergic reactions

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227
Q

What do leukotrienes do?

A

increase vascular permeability and induce constriction of airways (asthma)

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228
Q

What reduces the synthesis of thrombaxanes?

A

aspirin

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229
Q

What are thrombaxanes involved in?

A

blood clotting

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230
Q

What does the lymphatic system provide for?

A

circulation, production and maturation of immune cells

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231
Q

What does the lymphatic system do?

A

drains tissue fluid, brings microorganisms and other foreign substances into contact with immune cells

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232
Q

What do lymphatic vessels do?

A

collect tissue fluid

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233
Q

What parallels the venous system?

A

lymphatic vessels

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234
Q

Where do lymphatic vessels empty?

A

into cranial vena cava near heart by way of the thoracic duct draining caudal half of body

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235
Q

Tracheal trunks do what?

A

drain head and neck and empty into jugular veins

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236
Q

What can be done to make lymphatic vessels more visible?

A

feed a fatty meal

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237
Q

What are lymphoid tissues?

A

lymphocytes trapped in connective tissue

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238
Q

What are the 3 patterns of lymphoid tissues?

A

scattered, nodules, encapsulated

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239
Q

Where can you find a scattered pattern of lymphoid tissues?

A

mucous membranes (some tonsils)

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240
Q

Where can you find a nodules pattern of lymphoid tissues?

A

intestinal mucosa

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241
Q

Where can you find a encapsulated pattern of lymphoid tissues?

A

lymph node, spleen, thymus, tonsils

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242
Q

What does lymph flow past that looks at the fluid for foreign cells and substances?

A

immune cells

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243
Q

What do lymph nodes do?

A

filter lymph

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244
Q

What filters lymph?

A

lymph nodes

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245
Q

What do lymph nodes contain?

A

lymphocytes, plasma cells, macrophages

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246
Q

Where are B and T lymphocytes stored?

A

spleen

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247
Q

What does the spleen remove?

A

old and worn out RBCs

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248
Q

What kind of animals is the thymus seen in?

A

immature animals

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249
Q

Does the thymus completely disappear?

A

no

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250
Q

What accumulated in the thymus? why?

A

lymphocytes, learn to be “T” cells

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251
Q

Where are tonsils?

A

close to epithelium so that it contacts antigens easily

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252
Q

What do the crypts of tonsils do?

A

increase surface area

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253
Q

What are Peyer’s patches?

A

‘intestinal tonsils’

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254
Q

What do arteries do?

A

carry blood away from the heart

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255
Q

What do capillaries do?

A

feed tissues

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256
Q

What do veins do?

A

carry blood to the heart

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257
Q

What do lymph vessels do?

A

carry tissue fluid

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258
Q

What kind of vessel carries blood away from the heart?

A

arteries

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259
Q

What kind of vessel feeds tissues?

A

capillaries

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260
Q

What kind of vessel carries blood to the heart?

A

veins

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261
Q

What kind of vessel carries tissue fluid?

A

lymph vessels

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262
Q

Which has thicker walls - veins or arteries?

A

arteries

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263
Q

What do large arteries have that helps maintain blood pressure during distole?

A

elastic tissue in walls

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264
Q

Large arteries have what in their walls?

A

elastic tissue

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265
Q

What do smaller arteries have in their walls?

A

smooth muscle

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266
Q

What does the smooth muscle in smaller arteries do?

A

controls size of vessels and amount of blood flow

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267
Q

What do arterioles have?

A

smooth muscle cuff at end

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268
Q

What does the smooth muscle cuff at the end that arterioles have do?

A

controls flow to capillaries and maintains blood pressure. the control is lost in shock.

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269
Q

Do capillaries have a thin or thick wall?

A

thin

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270
Q

What do capillaries do?

A

allow single row of RBCs to pass, allow water in and out, O2 our, nutrients out, wastes in

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271
Q

How many rows of RBCs do capillaries allow to pass?

A

a single row

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272
Q

Are veins or arteries larger?

A

veins

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273
Q

Do veins have thinner or thicker walls than arteries?

A

thinner

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274
Q

Veins are often more what?

A

superficial

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275
Q

Is the BP in veins higher or lower than in arteries?

A

lower

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276
Q

What keeps blood flowing towards the heart in veins?

A

valves

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277
Q

Valves keep blood flowing toward the heart in what?

A

veins

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278
Q

What does the lymphatic system consist of?

A

lymph vessels and lymphoid tissue

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279
Q

Lymphoid tissue is what?

A

accumulations of lymphocytes

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280
Q

What system forms antibodies?

A

lymphatic system

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281
Q

Lymph vessels resemble what?

A

veins

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282
Q

Do lymph vessels have thin or thick walls?

A

thin

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283
Q

How does lymph move?

A

by gravity with help from changing pressures in nearby structures such as muscles contracting

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284
Q

What is chylothorax?

A

lymph free in the chest

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285
Q

What are lacteals?

A

special lymph vessels that drain wall of small intesting, absorb lipids

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286
Q

What are lymphatics?

A

lymph vessels

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287
Q

Where to lymph vessels empty?

A

into vena cava in chest via thoracic duct

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288
Q

What do lymph vessels have so that lymph flows only towards the heart?

A

valves

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289
Q

Where is the thymus located?

A

in the anterior mediastinum

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290
Q

The thymus is large until how hold?

A

one year of age

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291
Q

What are functions of the spleen?

A

blood cell formation, Hb and iron metabolism, RBC destruction, blood filtration, phagocytosis, blood storage

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292
Q

What is the shape of the spleen in the chicken?

A

spherical

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293
Q

The thick capsule of the spleen contains what?

A

smooth muscle and elastic fibers to allow for large volume changes

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294
Q

Is the spleen essential to an adult?

A

no

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295
Q

What shape are lymph nodes?

A

bean/pea shaped

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296
Q

What do lymph nodes contain?

A

macrophages, lymphocytes, and plasma cells

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297
Q

How does lymph move through the lymph nodes?

A

enters at the cortex, percolates through medulla, leaves the hilus (in swine it’s reversed)

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298
Q

What do plasma cells produce?

A

antibodies to foreign material discovered in the lymph

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299
Q

Condition of the lymph node reflects what?

A

conditions of the area the lymph node drains

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300
Q

Lymph nodes that are active do what?

A

increase in size

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301
Q

What are the 3 layers of the heart?

A

epicardium, myocardium, endocardium

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302
Q

Where do myocardial infarctions occur?

A

myocardium

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303
Q

Where is valvular endocarditis a problem?

A

in the endocardium

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304
Q

What is the outer layer of the heart?

A

epicardium

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305
Q

What is the middle layer of the heart?

A

myocardium

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306
Q

What is the inner layer of the heart?

A

endocardium

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307
Q

The heart is a __ chambered pump.

A

4

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308
Q

Reptiles and birds have a __ chambered heart.

A

3

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309
Q

What surrounds the heart?

A

serous sac within the mediastinum

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310
Q

The atrium cranial does what?

A

receives blood from veins

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311
Q

The ventricle caudal does what?

A

pumps blood out of the heart into arteries

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312
Q

Which side of the ventricle has a thicker wall?

A

left

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313
Q

The apex is on which side of the ventricle?

A

left

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314
Q

What is between chambers that keeps blood flowing one direction?

A

valves

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315
Q

What valves are between the atrium and ventricle?

A

A-V valves

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316
Q

The left A-V valve is what?

A

biscuspid / mitral valve

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317
Q

The right A-V valve is what?

A

tricuspid valve

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318
Q

What happens in A valves?

A

the free margin attaches to papillary muscles on wall by chordae tendinae

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319
Q

What are 3-cusped valves between ventricles and arteries called?

A

semilunar valves

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320
Q

Where is the aortic semilunar valve located?

A

between left ventricle and aorta

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321
Q

Where is the pulmonic semilunar valve located?

A

between right ventricle and pulmonary atery

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322
Q

What are the very first arteries after the aortic valve?

A

coronary arteries

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323
Q

Where do arteries branch?

A

head to limb

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324
Q

Axillary arteries return as what?

A

cephalic veins

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325
Q

Carotid arteries return as what?

A

jugular veins

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326
Q

The diaphragm separates what?

A

the thorax and the abdomen

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327
Q

What does the cranial vena cava drain?

A

head and front limbs

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328
Q

What does the caudal vena cava drain?

A

structures caudal to the heart

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329
Q

Define portal circulation

A

vein to capillaries to vein

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330
Q

In the hepatic portal system, venous blood drained from digestive tract is rich in what? Travels to liver in what?

A

nutrients. portal vein.

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331
Q

Nutrients in the blood within the portal vein are processed by what?

A

the liver

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332
Q

In the liver, the portal vein branches and reaches what?

A

sinusoids (capillary network)

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333
Q

In the liver, what mixes?

A

arterial and venous blood

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334
Q

With the hepatic portal system, blood comes in direct contact with liver cells which do what?

A

modify nutrients, store nutrients, detoxify any harmful substances

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335
Q

What is the blood flow in the liver?

A

flows to central vein of each liver lobule, to hepatic vein, to caudal vena cava and then to the heart

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336
Q

What is respiration initiated by?

A

ligation/severing of umbilical cord, handling fetus, draft of air

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337
Q

What is the general stimulus for shunts to close?

A

the increased oxygen levels that result from respiration

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338
Q

Increased O2 content of blood causes smooth muscle wall of ductus arteriousus to what?

A

contract and ductus arteriosus closes in a few minutes

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339
Q

What is diastole?

A

relaxation of a chamber of the heart just prior to and during filling

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340
Q

What is systole?

A

the contraction of a chamber of the heart in the process of partial emptying

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341
Q

What effects cardiac output?

A

heart rate and blood pressure

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342
Q

What is the cardiac cycle?

A

Blood enters R atrium (from systemic circulation), and L atrium (from lungs). Atrial pressure exceeds entricular pressure, AV valves open. Blood flows to ventricles. Atria depolarize and contract, empty, relax. Ventricles depolarize and contract. Increased ventricular pressure forces AV valves closed. Ventricular prssure exceeds arterial prssure, aortic and pulmonic semilunar valves open, blood flows to aorta and pulmonary truck. Arterial pressure exceed ventricular pressure, semilunar valves close.

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343
Q

What is the first heart sound?

A

when increased ventricular pressure forces AV valves closed

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344
Q

What is the second heart sound?

A

when arterial pressure exceeds ventricular pressure, semilunar valves close

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345
Q

What part of the heart is also called the pacemaker?

A

sinoatrial node

346
Q

Where is the SA node located?

A

junction of cranial vena cava and right atrium

347
Q

The heart beat originates where?

A

SA node

348
Q

Electricity spreads through atria to __.

A

AV node

349
Q

Where is the AV node located?

A

in septum (wall) between atrea

350
Q

Impulse is conducted to ventricular muscle by what?

A

AV bundle

351
Q

What are purkinje fibers?

A

special muscle cells that conduct like nerve fibers

352
Q

What is a heart block?

A

interruption in the normal impulse pathway from the SA node to the ventricular wals

353
Q

What can heart blocks resukt in?

A

VPCs

354
Q

What causes the heart to beat regularly without outside control?

A

SA node

355
Q

The vagus nerve does what when controlling the heart rate?

A

inhibits actions of the heart

356
Q

Stellate ganglia does what when controlling the heart rate?

A

stimulates action of the heart

357
Q

Why is metabolic rate increased in small animals?

A

because small animals have increased surface area per unit of body mass compared to larger animals

358
Q

Where is the sublingual artery?

A

under the tongue

359
Q

Where is the facial artery?

A

palpate medial surface of mandible at corner of jaw

360
Q

What is an EKG a measurement of?

A

heart electrical activity as seen at the surface of the body

361
Q

What is depolarization?

A

electricity prior to contraction

362
Q

What is repolarization?

A

electricity after contraction

363
Q

What happens during depolarization?

A

Na+ rushes in and inside cell becomes more +

364
Q

What happens during repolarization?

A

K+ moves out and cell charge returns to beginning levels. ATP later restores Na+ and K+ to starting places

365
Q

During depolarization, there is increased permeability of cell membrane to __.

A

Na+

366
Q

During repolarization, there is increased permeability of cell membrane to __.

A

K+

367
Q

What does the P wave represent?

A

depolarization of atrium

368
Q

What activity does the P wave represent?

A

activity from SA node through atrium

369
Q

Is the P wave a contraction?

A

no

370
Q

What does the QRS complex represent?

A

depolarization of ventricle

371
Q

What activity does the QRS complex represent?

A

activity from AV bundle through its branches

372
Q

Is the QRS complex a contraction?

A

no

373
Q

What does the T wave represent?

A

repolarization of the ventricles

374
Q

Is the T wave positive or negative?

A

can be either, but should stay the same

375
Q

Is the T wave a contraction?

A

no

376
Q

Define arrhythmia.

A

variation from normal heart rhythm. abnormality of rate, regularity or site of origin of cardiac impulse.

377
Q

Define sinus arrhythmia.

A

a physiologic cyclic variation in heart rate related to vagal impulses to the SA node

378
Q

Define bradycardia.

A

Slow HR, less than 60 bpm

379
Q

Define tachycardia.

A

rapid HR

380
Q

Define heart block.

A

impaired heart conduction; often between the atria and ventricles

381
Q

What does a 1st degree heart block look like?

A

P wave w/ wait for QRS complex (prolonged PR interval). Delay of impulse SA node to AV node.

382
Q

What does a 2nd degree heart block look like?

A

P wave with no QRS complex (interspersed with normal PQRST)

383
Q

What does a 3rd degree heart block look like?

A

P wave and QRS complex occurs but they are not related. Atria and ventricles beating on own without relationship to each other

384
Q

Define fibrillation.

A

rapid randomized contractions. no coordinated contraction.

385
Q

Which side of the heart has higher blood pressure?

A

left side of the heart

386
Q

Which side of the heart has lower blood pressure?

A

right side of the heart

387
Q

What will increase blood pressure in the heart?

A

resistance to flow

388
Q

What does resistance to flow in aorta cause?

A

left ventricle to hypertrophy

389
Q

Where is central venous pressure taken?

A

right atrium

390
Q

Resistance to pulmonary flow causes what?

A

right ventricle to hypertrophy to create higher pressure to overcome resistance

391
Q

What is blood pressure?

A

the pressure that blood exerts against vessel walls

392
Q

What is it called when heart contraction causes a wave of systolic pressure to move through the system?

A

pulse / pulse wave

393
Q

Where can you feel a pulse can you feel in small animals?

A

femoral artery

394
Q

Where can you feel a pulse in large animals?

A

facial artery, coccygeal artery

395
Q

How is pulse pressure maintained?

A

by elastic walls of arteries during diastole

396
Q

Why is there a drastic drop in pressure from arterioles to capillary beds?

A

muscle cuff on end arteriole and large area of capillary bed

397
Q

What in veins is too low for venous return?

A

pressure

398
Q

Decreased blood pressure causes increased __.

A

HR

399
Q

Increased blood pressure causes decreased __ and ___ of ____ vessels.

A

HR. vasodilation. peripheral.

400
Q

What is BP measured in?

A

mmHg

401
Q

What are 4 pieces of equipment you can use to measure BP?

A

Sphygmomanometer, Central Venous Pressure (CVP), Doppler, arterial line (A-line)

402
Q

What is a sphygmomanometer?

A

BP cuff + stethoscope + monitor

403
Q

Define shock.

A

condition that results when effective volume of blood circulated is insufficient to supply adequate nutrition to body tissues and to remove wastes.

404
Q

What are some causes of shock?

A

hemorrhage, dilation of visceral vessels from histamine released due to trauma and/or sepsis, fluid loss into tissues due to edema/fracture/soft tissue trauma, failure of blood to return to heart, failure of heart to pump

405
Q

What are signs of shock?

A

peripheral cooling, altered consciousness, altered respiration, altered heart rate, altered mucous membrane color, altered CRT

406
Q

In shock, why is there peripheral vasoconstriction?

A

to maintain blood flow to heart/brain

407
Q

With shock, why is there a decreased return to heart?

A

fluid losses continuing or peripheral toxin build up damaging capillary walls

408
Q

What are some consequences of decreased return to heart with shock?

A

heart can’t pump enough for adequate coronary circulation, weakened capillary walls lose more fluid

409
Q

Why does shock make irreparable heart damage?

A

permeable capillaries and sluggish blood clots

410
Q

What is the endocrine system comprised of?

A

ductless glands whose products are secreted directly into the blood stream

411
Q

What is the purpose of the glands in the endocrine system?

A

to produce hormones

412
Q

What are hormones?

A

chemical substances which regulate and integrate a great variety of metabolic processes carried on by the other tissues and organs of the body

413
Q

Why are most endocrine glands small?

A

minute amounts are required

414
Q

How long does it take blood to circulate through the entire body?

A

20 seconds

415
Q

Hormone levels do what?

A

influence production or inhibition of other hormones

416
Q

When looking at the neuroendocrine connection, nerves serve what purpose?

A

afferent purpose (information in)

417
Q

When looking at the neuroendocrine connection, hormones provide what?

A

the reaction (efferent, information out)

418
Q

What does the pineal gland sense?

A

daytime and is responsible for diurnal rhythm (lets animals know breeding season as well)

419
Q

Diurnal means what?

A

animal is active in the day

420
Q

Nocturnal means what?

A

animal is active at night

421
Q

Crepuscular means what?

A

animal is active at twilight or just before dawn

422
Q

What does the hypothalamus exert control over?

A

pituitary

423
Q

What does the hypothalamus determine?

A

what the pituitary will produce

424
Q

How are hormones delivered to the pituitary from the hypothalamus?

A

by blood, hypothalamus makes hormones and sends them in nerve fibers that go to the pituitary

425
Q

Nerve pathways to the hypothalamus trigger what?

A

production or inhibition of pituitary hormones

426
Q

Hypothalamus actions are affected by what?

A

circulating hormone levels

427
Q

What are some things that hormones influence?

A

conception, gestation, parturition, digestion, growth, puberty, aging, homeokinesis

428
Q

What does the endocrine system consister of?

A

pituitary (hypophysis), thyroid, parathyroid, metabolism, pancreas, adrenal, gonads, placenta, +/- pineal gland and thymus

429
Q

What does ACTH stand for?.

A

adrenocorticotropic hormone

430
Q

What’s the abbreviation for adrenocorticotropic hormone?

A

ACTH

431
Q

Where is the source of ACTH?

A

pituitary

432
Q

What is the target of ACTH?

A

adrenal cortex

433
Q

What does ACTH produce?

A

glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, androgens

434
Q

What do glucocorticoids help withstand?

A

stress

435
Q

What are androgens?

A

masculine sex hormone

436
Q

What can terminate pregnancy in late stages?

A

glucocorticoids

437
Q

Without adrenal gland function, when will the animal die?

A

in 2 weeks

438
Q

What does FSH stand for?

A

follicle stimulating hormone

439
Q

What is the acronym for follicle stimulating hormone?

A

FSH

440
Q

Where does FSH come from?

A

pituitary

441
Q

What is the target for FSH?

A

the ovary and the testicle

442
Q

What does FSH do?

A

stimulate follicle/ovum formation in the female, and stimulate sperm formation in the male

443
Q

What does GH stand for?

A

growth hormone

444
Q

What is the acronym for growth hormone?

A

GH

445
Q

What does STH stand for?

A

somatotropic hormone

446
Q

What is the acronym for someatotropic hormone?

A

STH

447
Q

Where does GH come from?

A

pituitary

448
Q

Where does STH come from?

A

pituitary

449
Q

What is the target for GH?

A

body tissues

450
Q

What is the target for STH?

A

body tissues

451
Q

What does GH do?

A

promotes growth

452
Q

What does STH do?

A

promotes growth

453
Q

What does LH stand for?

A

luteinizing hormone

454
Q

What is the acronym for luteinizing hormone?

A

LH

455
Q

Where does LH come from?

A

pituitary

456
Q

What is the target of LH?

A

ovary and testicle

457
Q

What does LH do?

A

stimulate ovulation and CL formation in females, stimulate testosterone release in males

458
Q

What does LTH stand for?

A

prolactin

459
Q

What is the acronym for prolactin?

A

LTH

460
Q

Where does LTH come from?

A

pituitary

461
Q

Where does prolacin come from?

A

pituitary

462
Q

What is the target of LTH?

A

mammary gland (CL in some)

463
Q

What is the target of prolaction?

A

mammary gland (CL in some)

464
Q

What does LTH do?

A

cause lactation (CL in some -> progesterone)

465
Q

What does prolactin do?

A

cause lactation (CL in some -> progesterone)

466
Q

What does TSH stand for?

A

thyroid stimulating hormone

467
Q

What is the acronym for thyroid stimulating hormone?

A

TSH

468
Q

Where does TSH come from?

A

pituitary

469
Q

What is the target of TSH?

A

thyroid

470
Q

What does TSH do?

A

causes thyroxine (T4) production to increase metabolic rate

471
Q

What does ADH stand for?

A

antidiuretic hormone

472
Q

What is the acronym for antidiuretic hormone?

A

ADH

473
Q

Where does ADH come from?

A

pituitary

474
Q

What is the target of ADH?

A

kidney tubules, smooth muscle in arterioles

475
Q

What does ADH do?

A

conserve water, constrict arterioles leading to increased blood pressure

476
Q

What does OT stand for?

A

oxytocin

477
Q

What is the acronym for oxytocin?

A

pituitary

478
Q

What is the target of OT?

A

uterus, mammary gland

479
Q

What does OT do?

A

cause smooth muscle contraction (uterus contraction and breeding and parturition, milk letdown) as well as a mood elevator

480
Q

Where do glucocorticoids come from?

A

adrenal cortex

481
Q

What is the target of glucocorticoids?

A

body tissues

482
Q

What do glucocorticoids do?

A
  • control normal carbohydrate/protein metabolism
  • stimulate conversion of protein to carbohydrate for energy
  • mobilize fatty acids from lipid tissues
  • decreases inflammation and immune response
483
Q

What disease do you get from greatly increased adrenocortical hormones?

A

Cushing’s Disease

484
Q

What do animals with Cushing’s disease look like?

A

pot-bellied, thin skin because muscle and skin protein are converted to energy

485
Q

Where do mineralocorticoids come from?

A

adrenal cortex

486
Q

What is the target of mineralocorticoids?

A

body tissues

487
Q

What does mineralocorticoids do?

A
  • aldosterone (reabsorb Na+, Cl- and water and excrete K

- can cause addison’s disease

488
Q

What happens if you have a great decrease in adrenalcortical hormones?

A

Addison’s Disease

489
Q

What kind of electrolyte imbalances do you get with Addison’s disease?

A

hyperkalemia and hyponatremia

490
Q

Where does epinephrine come from?

A

adrenal medulla

491
Q

What is the target of epinephrine?

A

sympathetic nervous system

492
Q

What does epinephrine do?

A

creates fight or flight response - prepare for emergencies, mobilize energy

493
Q

Where dose thyroxine (T4) come from?

A

thyroid

494
Q

Where does Triiodothyronine (T3) come from?

A

thyroid

495
Q

What is the abbreviation for thyroxine?

A

T4

496
Q

What is the abbreviation for triiodothyronine?

A

T3

497
Q

What does T4 stand for?

A

thyroxine

498
Q

What does T3 stand for?

A

triiodothyronine

499
Q

What is the target of T4?

A

body tissues (almost all cells)

500
Q

What is the target of T3?

A

body tissues (almost all cells)

501
Q

What does T4 do?

A

increase metabolic rate, increases O2 consumption and ATP generation

502
Q

What does T3 do?

A

increase metabolic rate, increases O2 consumption and ATP generation

503
Q

What is the principal hormone released by the thyroid?

A

T4 (thyroxine)

504
Q

Why would T3 considered to be more biologically important?

A

higher affinity of intracellular receptors for T3

505
Q

How much of T3 comes from T4 that was converted?

A

80%

506
Q

T3 and T4 bind to what?

A

plasma proteins

507
Q

Deficiency in T4 causes what?

A

dwarfism, CNS disturbances, impaired mental development

508
Q

What does an increase in T4 cause?

A

thin, irritable animals

509
Q

What does CT stand for?

A

Thyrocalcitonin or Calcitonin

510
Q

What is the acronym for thyrocalcitonin?

A

CT

511
Q

What is the acronym for calcitonin?

A

CT

512
Q

Where does CT come from?

A

thyroid

513
Q

What is the target of CT?

A

bone

514
Q

What does CT do?

A
  • decreases Ca+ resorption from bone to help regulate Ca+ blood levels
  • decreases Ca+ in blood, increases phosphorus
515
Q

What does PTH stand for?

A

parathormone

516
Q

What is the acronym for parathormone?

A

PTH

517
Q

Where does PTH come from?

A

parathyroid

518
Q

What is the target of PTH?

A

bone, GI, Kidneys

519
Q

What does PTH do?

A

Increase blood Ca+ and decrease phosphate in the blood.

520
Q

How does PTH increase blood Ca+ and decrease phosphate in the blood.

A

Ca+ resorbed from the bone into the blood, improved Ca+ resorption from GI, the kidney saves Ca+.

521
Q

Where does insulin come from?

A

pancreas

522
Q

Where in the pancreas does insulin come from?

A

beta-cells within the pancreatic islets (islets of Langerhans)

523
Q

What is the target of insulin?

A

body cells

524
Q

What does insulin do?

A
  • moves glucose into cells

- stimulates skeletal muscle and liver to synthesize glycogen (which is a storage form of glucose)

525
Q

Glycogen is a storage form of what?

A

glucose

526
Q

What happens when cells don’t have insulin?

A

cells think glucose levels are low, and use gluconeogenesis in the liver to make energy (glucose) from fats and proteins. The animal gets sick from the by-products of the fat metabolism.

527
Q

Where does glucagon come from?

A

pancreas

528
Q

What part of the pancreas does glucagon come from?

A

alpha-cells within the pancreatic islets

529
Q

What is the target of glucagon?

A

liver

530
Q

What does glucagon do?

A
  • stimulates glycogenolysis to increase glucose in the blood

- stimulates gluconeogenesis

531
Q

What is glycogenolysis?

A

breakdown of stored liver carbohydrate (ex. glycogen)

532
Q

What is gluconeogenesis?

A

glucose production from new sources like fat and protein

533
Q

Where does estrogen come from?

A

follicles of ovary and the placenta

534
Q

What is the target of estrogen?

A

reproductive tract, body cells

535
Q

What does estrogen do?

A

-reproductive tract growth
-helps maintain pregnancy (placental)
-female behavior in estrus, secondary sex characteristics
-stimulates Ca+ uptake in bones
stimulates increase in oxytocin receptors in smooth muscle of the uterus before birth

536
Q

Where does relaxin come from?

A

corpus luteum of pregnant ovary

537
Q

What is the target of relaxin?

A

reproductive tract

538
Q

What does relaxin do?

A

dilation of cervix and relaxation of muscles and ligaments associated with the birth canal prior to parturition, facilitates mammary gland development

539
Q

Where does progesterone come from?

A

CL (corpus luteum)

540
Q

What is the target of progesterone?

A

reproductive tract

541
Q

What does progesterone do?

A
  • maintains pregnancy

- stimulates mammary gland growth

542
Q

What is androgen also referred to as?

A

testosterone

543
Q

Where does testosterone come from?

A

testes

544
Q

What is the target of testosterone?

A

reproductive tract, body cells

545
Q

What is required for sperm maturation?

A

FSH and testosterone

546
Q

What does testosterone do?

A

-causes spermatogenesis
-development of accessory sex glands
behavior, male characteristics, increased growth

547
Q

Where does chorionic gonadotropin come from?

A

placenta

548
Q

What is the target of chorionic gonadotropin?

A

reproductive tract

549
Q

What does chorionic gonadotropin do?

A

maintain pregnancy

550
Q

Gastrin and histamine are secreted in response to what?

A

food, especially proteins

551
Q

Where does gastrin come from?

A

stomach (gastric epithelium)

552
Q

Where does histamine come from?

A

stomach (gastric epithelium)

553
Q

What is the the target of gastrin?

A

cells in stomach (parietal cells and chief cells within gastric glands)

554
Q

What is the target of histamine?

A

cells in stomach (parietal cells and chief cells within gastric glands)

555
Q

What does gastrin do?

A
  • cause parietal cells to secrete HCl (kills bacteria, creates acid chyme)
  • cause chief cells to secrete pepsinogen
556
Q

What does histamine do?

A
  • cause parietal cells to secrete HCl (kills bacteria, creates acid chyme)
  • which cause chief cells to secrete pepsinogen
557
Q

What caused by the HCl in the stomach activates pepsinogen to pepsin?

A

low pH

558
Q

What begins protein digestion in the stomach?

A

pepsin

559
Q

Protein digestion is finished where?

A

in the small intestine by other enzymes

560
Q

Histamine receptors on parietal cells are what?

A

H2 receptors and produce HCl

561
Q

Histamine receptors on cells involved in allrgic reactions are what?

A

H1 receptors and produce allergy symptoms

562
Q

What are H2 receptors that produce HCl on parietal cells?

A

histamine receptors

563
Q

What are H1 receptors that produce allergy symptoms on cells involved in allrgic reactions?

A

histamine receptors

564
Q

Drugs that are H2 receptor antagonists are used to what?

A

reduce acid secretion

565
Q

Antihistamines used for allergies bind to what?

A

H1 receptors only and don’t disturb digestion

566
Q

Where does secretin come from?

A

duodenum

567
Q

What is the target of secretin?

A

pancreas, liver, stomach

568
Q

What does secretin do?

A
  • secrete NaHCO3 to creat basic pH
  • secrete bile
  • to slow the stomach down
569
Q

What is NaHCO3?

A

sodium bicarbonate

570
Q

Where does pancreozymin come from?

A

duodenum

571
Q

What is the target of pancreozymin?

A

pancreas, stomach

572
Q

What does pancreozymin do?

A
  • promote secretion of pancreatic enzymes amylase and lipase

- slow down stomach

573
Q

Which pancreatic enzyme aids in starch digestion?

A

amylase

574
Q

Which pancreatic enzyme aids in fat digestion?

A

lipase

575
Q

Where does renin come from?

A

juxtaglomerular cells of kidney

576
Q

What is the target of renin?

A

angiotensin system in the blood

577
Q

What does renin do?

A
  • promotes aldosterone secretion from adrenal glands which makes the kidney conserve Na+ and water. Results in increased BP and blood volume
  • Makes smooth muscle of arterioles constrict (increased BP)
578
Q

What is renin?

A

a hormone produced in the kidney

579
Q

What is rennin?

A

a proteolytic enzyme secreted by gastric epithelial cells of very young mammals

580
Q

What does rennin do?

A
  • changes the character of ingested milk from liquied to a semisolid curd
  • increases time milk is retained in the stomach, permits protein digestion to begin
581
Q

Where does erythropoietin come from?

A

kidney

582
Q

When is erythropoietin produced?

A

when kidney detects hypoxia

583
Q

What is the target of erythropoietin?

A

bone marrow

584
Q

What does erythropoietin do?

A

bone marrow increases RBC production

585
Q

When does erythropoietin production cease?

A

when levels are adequate and O2 levels are normal in the kidney

586
Q

In the horse, where is the long pastern located?

A

between the fetlock joint and pastern joint

587
Q

What is the function of the long pastern?

A

to increase flexibility of the fetlock joint and thus reduce concussion

588
Q

Where is the short pastern located?

A

between long paster and coffin bone

589
Q

What is the function of the short pastern?

A

allows the foot to twist to adjust to uneven ground

590
Q

What does the coffin bone determine?

A

shape of hoof

591
Q

What is the coffin bone?

A

attachment spot for vessels and nerves that make up the sensitive structures of the foot, and form a hydraulic cushion between bone and hoof

592
Q

Where is the navicular bone located?

A

between and underneat the short pastern and coffin bone

593
Q

The navicular bone is a fulcrum for what?

A

the deep flexor tendon

594
Q

What is the function of elastic structures in the hoof?

A

to absorb concussion and help circulate blood from foot

595
Q

What are lateral cartilages?

A

wing-like on the sides of foot

596
Q

What do lateral cartilages do?

A

reduce concussion and allow rear part of hoof wall to expand and contract

597
Q

Where is the plantar cushion located?

A

between lateral cartilages on side, short pastern and navicular above and frog below

598
Q

What is the plantar cushion?

A

shock absorber between pastern bone and frog

599
Q

What is the coronary cushion?

A

elastic portion of the coronary band

600
Q

What does the coronary cushion do?

A

reduces and transfers concussion between the hoof wall and coffin bone

601
Q

What is on both sides of lateral cartilages and in sensitive structures are compressed by the plantar cushion and hoof wall against the lateral cartilages and coffin bone?

A

venous plexuses

602
Q

Why are some structures in the hoof ‘sensitive’?

A

they contain mainy blood vessels and nerve endings

603
Q

What does injury to sensitive structures in horses cause?

A

pain and bleeding

604
Q

What is the coronary band known as?

A

hoof wall

605
Q

Perioplic Ring =

A

Periople

606
Q

sensitive laminae =

A

white line

607
Q

sensitive sole =

sensitive frog = horny frog

A

horny sole

608
Q

sensitive frog =

A

horny frog

609
Q

Where is the coronary band?

A

around the upper edge of the hoof under hoof junction with skin

610
Q

Injury to the coronary band will cause what?

A

defective horn in the oof at that point

611
Q

What is the function of the hoof wall?

A

to bear weight of horse

612
Q

What is the primary growth and nutritional source for the hoof wall?

A

coronary band

613
Q

Changes in horse’s condition and body temp will cause what?

A

changes in growth of hoof (rings)

614
Q

How many months of information is seen when observing a hoof?

A

12 months

615
Q

Where is the perioplic ring?

A

just above coronary band and next to hairline

616
Q

What does the periople protect?

A

the sensitive coronary band

617
Q

What sensitive structure joins the skin to the hoof wall?

A

perioplic ring

618
Q

The perioplic ring produces what?

A

thin layer of horn cells that extend 3/4” to 1” down hoof wall called periople

619
Q

What is it called when the underside of the periople flakes off and is carried down hoof?

A

hoof varnish

620
Q

Hoof varnish protects what?

A

the horn of hoof wall and reduces loss of moisture

621
Q

What protects the horn of hoof wall and reduces loss of moisture?

A

hoof varnish

622
Q

Where is the sensitive laminae?it lies between the hoof wall and coffin bone, and covers bone outer surface

A

it lies between the hoof wall and coffin bone, and covers bone outer surface

623
Q

What does the sensitive laminae do?

A

join the coffin bone to the hoof wall, suspends horse from hoof wall by the interlocking lamina leaves

624
Q

Sole end of the laminae leaves marks what?

A

the junction of hoof wall and sensitive lamina (white line)

625
Q

How wide is the white line?

A

1/8”

626
Q

What is a guide for shaping shoe and placing nails?

A

white line

627
Q

What does the sensitive sole cover?

A

ventral surface of coffin bone

628
Q

The sole is NOT what?

A

weight bearing

629
Q

What does the sole protect?

A

sensitive structures about it

630
Q

How does excess sole growth slough off?

A

by wear or is trimmed with hoof knife

631
Q

What does the sensitive sole do?

A

nourishes horn-producing layer of cells which make horny sole

632
Q

What is a good indicator of hoof health?

A

frog

633
Q

What does the frog function as?

A

a shock absorber, traction device, circulation aid (helps transfer concussion to plantar cushion)

634
Q

What does the sensitive frog nourish?

A

horn-producing layer of cells producing horny frog

635
Q

Why does the frog remain elastic and pliable?

A

due to presence of fat-secreting glands and its high moisture content

636
Q

In horses, support in standing is procided by what two structures?

A

stay apparatus in foreleg, stay apparatus and reciprocal apparatus in hindleg

637
Q

Define stay apparatus.

A

those structures that permit the horse to stand with relatively little muscular activity in the limbs

638
Q

What does the forelimb stay apparatus involve?

A

long head of triceps + tendon of biceps + ligaments, tendons, sesamoids to form a sling across the caudal surface of the fetlock that helps prevent excessive hyperextension of the fetlocl

639
Q

What does the hindlimb stay apparatus involve?

A

tensor fasciae latae + ligaments, tendons, sesamoids that form a sling across the caudal surface of the fetlock

640
Q

Define reciprocal apparatus.

A

attachment of muscles that require the hock and stifle to flex or extend in unison

641
Q

What does a reciprocal apparatus involve?

A

1 muscle on front surface of leg and 2 muscles on back surface of leg

642
Q

What does a reciprocal apparatus for the hock and stifle to do?

A

move in unison

643
Q

Define arthrology.

A

the study of joints

644
Q

Joints are either:

A

immoveable, lightly moveable, or freely moveable

645
Q

What are joints classified by?

A

structure, and material joining the bones together

646
Q

What are the three general types of joints?

A

fibrous, cartilaginous, synovial

647
Q

What are examples of fibrous joints?

A

joint between the splint bones and the cannon, sutures of the skull, joints between teeth and sockets in skull

648
Q

What do fibrous joints not have?

A

joint cavity

649
Q

What joins the bones in fibrous joints?

A

fibrous tissue

650
Q

Fibrous joints allow what?

A

slight movement for some areas, no movement for others

651
Q

Fibrous tissue joins the bones in what kind of joint?

A

fibrous joints

652
Q

Do cartilaginous joints have a joint cavity?

A

no

653
Q

What joins the bones in cartilaginous joints?

A

cartilage

654
Q

Are cartilaginous joints moveable?

A

no, their immoveable

655
Q

What is the exception to cartilaginous joints being immoveable?

A

hormonal influence on the joints of the pelvis at parturition allows for slight relaxation of the joints to enlarge the birth canal (especially in young cows)

656
Q

What are examples of cartilaginous joints?

A
  • growth plate of immature bone (hyaline cartilage)
  • fibrocartilage connects adjacent sternebrae
  • fibrocartilage connects adjacent vertebrae at the disc area between the veterbral bodies
  • adjacent pelvic bones
  • mandibular symphysis (jaw midline)
657
Q

What are called the sternebrae?

A

the bones making up the breastbone

658
Q

What are the bones making up the breatbone called?

A

sternebrae

659
Q

What kind of joints are the ones we think of when we talk about joints?

A

synovial joints

660
Q

Do synovial joints have a joint cavity?

A

yes

661
Q

What kind of joint is freely moveable?

A

synovial joints

662
Q

What are examples of synovial joints?

A
  • stifle
  • carpus
  • some intervertebral joints (not the IV disc area, that’s cartilaginous)
  • connection of ribs to vertebrae
  • hip
663
Q

When talking about a synovial joint, what is the articular cavity?

A

joint cavity

664
Q

What is the potential space between the bones called?

A

joint cavity

665
Q

Define joint cavity.

A

potential space between the bones

666
Q

What are parts of the synovial joint?

A

articular surfaces, articular cartilage, articular cavity (joint cavity), joint capsule

667
Q

What are articular surfaces when talking about synovial joints?

A

ends of bones within the joint

668
Q

What are articular surfaces made out of when talking about synovial joints?

A

compact bone

669
Q

What are articular surfaces?

A

ends of bones within the joint

670
Q

What are articular surfaces made out of?

A

compact bone

671
Q

What covers the compact bone on the articular surfaces?

A

hyaline cartilage

672
Q

What does hyaline cartilage cover?

A

the compact bone on the articular surfaces

673
Q

What does the joint capsule consist of?

A

two parts with a fat pad between in some areas

674
Q

What are the two parts of the joint capsule?

A

synovial membrane and fibrous membrane

675
Q

What is the inner part of the joint capsule called?

A

synovial membrane

676
Q

What secretes fluid called “synovial fluid”?

A

synovial membrane

677
Q

The synovial membrane secretes what?

A

a fluid called synovial fluid

678
Q

Define arthritis.

A

increased amount of inflammation

679
Q

What is an increased amount of inflammation called?

A

arthritis

680
Q

What does synovial fluid look like?

A

clear and thick

681
Q

What does synovial fluid do?

A

lubricates to decrease friction

682
Q

What may the synovial membrane contain?

A

villi and folds to increase the inner capsule surface area

683
Q

What is the outside part of a joint capsule called?

A

fibrous membrane

684
Q

Define fibrous membrane.

A

outside part of the joint capsule

685
Q

What may the fibrous membrane contain?

A

extracapsular ligaments

686
Q

Where are extracapsular ligaments located?

A

in fibrous membrane of joint capsule (outer, superficial joint capsule)

687
Q

Where are intracapsular ligaments located?

A

within the joint itself

688
Q

Where are intra-articular ligaments located?

A

within the joint itself

689
Q

What are examples of extracapsular ligaments?

A

collateral, dorsal, palmer (plantar), annular

690
Q

Where are collateral extracapsular ligaments found?

A

on medial and lateral sides of joint

691
Q

Where are dorsal extracapsular ligaments found?

A

on the front of the joint

692
Q

Where are palmer (plantar) extracapsular ligaments found?

A

on back, ventral, and posterior surfaces of joint

693
Q

Where are annular extracapsular ligaments found?

A

they surround the joint in a ring shape

694
Q

What are examples of intracapsular ligaments?

A

cruciate ligaments (ACL and PCL), carpal/tarsal ligaments, round ligament

695
Q

Where are cruciate ligaments found?

A

within the stifle joint

696
Q

What are two examples of cruciate ligaments?

A

anterior cruciate ligament and posterior cruciate ligament

697
Q

What do the carpal/tarsal ligaments do?

A

hold carpal/tarsal bones together

698
Q

What does the round ligament do?

A

holds hip in the socket

699
Q

Where is the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) located?

A

lateral condyle to cranial tibia

700
Q

Where is the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) located?

A

medial condyl to caudal tibia

701
Q

Where is the meniscus located?

A

at the stifle

702
Q

What does the meniscus act as?

A

a shock absorber

703
Q

A torn meniscus can cause some what?

A

difficulty

704
Q

What is the meniscus?

A

fibrocartilage cushion between the femus and tibia

705
Q

What are the types of synovial joints?

A

simple and compound

706
Q

Examples of simple synovial joints.

A

shoulder joint and hip joint

707
Q

Examples of compound synovial joints.

A

carpals, tarsals, radio-ulnar-carpal joint

708
Q

What is a simple synovial joint?

A

only two bones involved within the joint capsule

709
Q

What is a compound synovial joint?

A

more than two bones involved within the same joint capsule

710
Q

What type of synovial joint may have more than one joint capsule? Example?

A

compound joint, tarsus (hock)

711
Q

What does the bursa do?

A

protects structures that move a short distance in relation to each other

712
Q

What si the bursa?

A

a synovial sac located between two structures that rub against each other

713
Q

Is the bursa associated with a joint?

A

no

714
Q

What is bursitis?

A

increase in fluid is seem with inflammation

715
Q

In the bursa, what is an increase in fluid that is seen with inflammatino?

A

bursitis

716
Q

What are examples of bursas?

A

bicipital bursa, atlantal bursa, supraspinous bursa, bursa between triceps tendon and olecranon process of the ulna, bursa between skin and superficial digital flexor tendon at point of the hock

717
Q

Where is the bicipital bursa?

A

where the biceps tendon crosses the point of the shoulder and rubs humerus

718
Q

What bursa is where the biceps tendon crosses the point of the shoulder and rubs humerus?

A

bicipital bursa

719
Q

What is bicipital bursitis?

A

inflammation of the bicipital bursa

720
Q

What is inflammation of the bicipital bursa?

A

bicipital bursitis

721
Q

Where is the atlantal bursa?

A

where the ligamentum nuchae contacts the atlas (cervical vetebra 1)

722
Q

What bursa is where the ligamentum nuchae contacts the atlas (cervical vetebra 1)?

A

atlantal bursa

723
Q

What is poll evil?

A

inflammation of the atlantal bursa

724
Q

What is inflammation of the atlantal bursa?

A

poll evil

725
Q

Where is the supraspinous bursa?

A

where the ligamentum nuchae contacts the spinous process of the T2 vertebrae

726
Q

What bursa is where the ligamentum nuchae contacts the spinous process of the T2 vertebrae?

A

supraspinous bursa

727
Q

What is ‘fistulous withers’?

A

inflammation of th e supraspinous bursa

728
Q

What is inflammation of the supraspinous bursa?

A

fistulous withers

729
Q

What is the synovial sheath?

A

elongated bursa between tendon and surrounding issue

730
Q

What does the synovial sheath surround?

A

the tendon

731
Q

What does the synovial sheath do?

A

protects structures moving over a long distance

732
Q

What is an increase in fluid in the synovial sheath called?

A

synovitis

733
Q

What is synovitis?

A

an increase in fluid in the synovial sheath

734
Q

The the synovial sheath and the tendon is inflammed, what is it called?

A

tendosynovitis

735
Q

What is tendosynovitis?

A

the synovial sheath and the tendon is inflammed

736
Q

Examples of synovial sheaths.

A
  • synovial sheath around the superficial digital flexor tendon over the cannon bone
  • synovial sheath around the deep digital flexor tendon over the cannon bone and above the hock
  • inflammation involving both of these tendons over the cannon bone (bowed tendon)
  • inflammation involving the deep digital flexor tendon about the hock (thoroughpin)
737
Q

What do hinge joints allow?

A

flexion, extension, hyperextension

738
Q

What do gliding joints allow?

A

gliding movements on small, flat surfaces

739
Q

What are examples of hinge joints?

A

fetlock, atlanto-occipital joint (nodding yes), jaw when it opens and closes

740
Q

What is an example of a gliding joint?

A

between carpal bones

741
Q

What does ginglymus stand for?

A

hinge

742
Q

What does arthrodial stand for?

A

gliding

743
Q

How does a joint move if it’s rotary?

A

pivots around one axis

744
Q

What are examples of joints with a rotary joint movement?

A

atlanto-axial joint (C1 and C2 pivot at the dens on C2 when shaking head “no”

745
Q

What does rotary stand for?

A

trochoid

746
Q

What does trochoid stand for?

A

rotary

747
Q

What does ball and socket stand for?

A

spheroid or enarthrodial

748
Q

What does spheroid or enarthrodial stand for?

A

ball and socket

749
Q

What are examples of joints with a ball and socket movement?

A

coxo-femoral (hip) and scapulo-humeral (shoulder)

750
Q

What kind of movements are possible with ball and socket joints?

A

many movements possible

751
Q

What kind of injuries can occur with joints?

A

dislocations, fractures, sprains, cuts, punctures

752
Q

What is dislocation of a joint also known as?

A

luxation

753
Q

Why is early treatment of luxation of a joint important?

A

to avoid joint cavity filling with connective tissue

754
Q

What happens with luxation of a joint?

A

stretch/tear ligaments, stretch/tear joint capsule, tear blood vessels

755
Q

What happens if you don’t treat a luxation of a joint?

A

possible functional false joint, blood clot surrounding the bone becomes “orgaized” or mature, movement may be allowed

756
Q

If a fracture is located near or within a joint, it is hard to what?

A

reduce (appose the edges)and immobilize the fracture

757
Q

How would you treat a sprain of a joint?

A

rest

758
Q

What is a sprain?

A

stretched ligaments

759
Q

If a joint is cut, what does that mean?

A

the joint is open and it may involve tendons, or tendon sheaths

760
Q

If a joint is cut, and has lost joint fluid, what does that result in?

A

decreased lubrication (joint moves less well)

761
Q

Why is it hard to treat cuts in joints?

A

hard to get good drainage from the joint, hard to get drugs to all areas of the joint

762
Q

How would an infection enter a cut in a joint?

A

from outside the body

763
Q

When speaking about joints, what may a puncture involve?

A

tendons, sheaths

764
Q

What does hematogenous spread mean?

A

infection due to spread through the blood stream

765
Q

What does lymphogenous spread mean?

A

infection due to spread through the lymph

766
Q

Define arthritis.

A

inflammation of the joint with swelling and pain

767
Q

What is degenerative joint disease?

A

multiple changes in a chronically inflamed joint

768
Q

What does degenerative joint disease include?

A

loss of articular cartilage, erosion of underlying bone, development of bone spurs around the margins of the joint

769
Q

What are bone spurs also called?

A

osteophytes or enthesiophytes

770
Q

What are osteophytes?

A

bone spurs

771
Q

What are enthesiophytes?

A

bone spurs

772
Q

If hyaline cartilage needs to be repaired, what will it be like?

A

fibrocartilage which won’t be as smooth

773
Q

What does original hyaline cartilage look like?

A

smooth and glassy

774
Q

What is scurvy?

A

joint pain due to a break down in collagen resulting from Vitamin C deficiency

775
Q

What are signs of scurvy?

A

lameness, swollen joints (also hemorrhages in SQ, skeletal muscle, subperiosteum, adrenal cortex, intestines)

776
Q

What species is susceptible to scurvy?

A

guinea pigs, primates

777
Q

What does scurvy also cause?

A

immunosuppression and increase susceptibility to infectious diseases

778
Q

What are the 3 types of muscle?

A

smooth, cardiac, skeletal

779
Q

Which type of muscle is involuntary unstriated?

A

smooth

780
Q

Which type of muscle is involuntary striated?

A

cardiac

781
Q

Which type of muscle is voluntary striated?

A

skeletal

782
Q

A penniform muscle shape is?

A

Fan shaped and has the greatest power

783
Q

What is an example of a muscle with a penniform shape?

A

Trapezius

784
Q

What is an example of a parallel muscle shape that is in wide sheets?

A

Abdominal muscles

785
Q

What is an example of a parallel muscle shape that is in narrow bands?

A

Inner thigh muscle

786
Q

What are examples of a spindle shape muscle?

A

Biceps and triceps

787
Q

Spindle shape muscle has what kind of center?

A

fat

788
Q

How does muscle attach to bone?

A

tendons

789
Q

Most tendons are ___ or ____.

A

cords/bands

790
Q

What are aponeuroses? Where are they found?

A

Tendons that are flat sheets. Abdominal muscles.

791
Q

Most muscles attach to two ________.

A

different bones

792
Q

What is the cutaneous trunci?

A

Attachment between skin and over muscles, it allows the skin to “flick” to remove a fly

793
Q

Sphincter muscles are ____ or ____.

A

striated / smooth

794
Q

What do sphincter muscles surround?

A

an opening

795
Q

What do synergists do?

A

stabilize one or more bones

796
Q

What stabilizes the shoulder when only elbow movement is desired?

A

synergists

797
Q

Why would a muscle group be unacceptable for injection purposes?

A

Damage to cuts of meat, no good place for an infection to easily drain without causing extensive tissue damage

798
Q

Which muscles are heavy muscles suitable for injections in horses?

A

pectorals

799
Q

What muscles are heavy muscles that may be used for deep IM injections in dogs?

A

lumbar muscles

800
Q

What kind of injection would you give a dog in the lumbar muscles?

A

Immiticide HW treatment

801
Q

What is one muscle fiber called?

A

myofiber

802
Q

Some muscle fibers are built for ____ and others for ___ action.

A

endurance, quick

803
Q

T/F. Quarter horses have more quick fibers than Arabians, who have more endurance fibers.

A

true

804
Q

What are the contractile elements of a myofilament?

A

actin and myosin

805
Q

What do “cross-bridges” on the myosin do?

A

Link with actin during contraction and pull the actin toward the center of the muscle cell

806
Q

The movement of the actin long the myosin causes what?

A

The striped pattern of skeletal muscle

807
Q

The striped pattern of skeletal muscle is caused by what?

A

The movement of the actin along the myosin

808
Q

Why would a piece of muscle placed under the microscope have visible stripes?

A

Due to the overlap of actin and myosin

809
Q

What is the sarcotubular system?

A

Rapid transit for muscle messages

810
Q

The sarcotubular system surrounds ____.

A

Each myofibril

811
Q

What does the sarbotubular system form?

A

A connecting system that allows rapid conduction of nerve impulses to all parts of the muscle fiber at one time

812
Q

How does nerve information get to the muscle cell?

A

through the motor unit

813
Q

One nerve will branch to _____ muscle cells.

A

many

814
Q

What is a motor unit?

A

The nerve fiber plus all the muscle fibers innervated

815
Q

What is the neuromuscular junction?

A

The point where the nerve reaches the muscle fiber

816
Q

Is there a space between the nerve ending and the muscle?

A

yes

817
Q

What does ACh stan for?

A

acetylcholine

818
Q

Where is acetylcholine stored?

A

at the end of the nerve

819
Q

What does acetylcholine increase?

A

the permeability of the muscle fiber membrane to sodium

820
Q

What does acetylcholine bind with?

A

receptor sites on the muscle fiber surface

821
Q

Depolarization triggers muscle cell contraction if what?

A

the change in cell charge is great enough

822
Q

Depolarization spreads how?

A

rapidly to the entire muscle through the sarcotubular system

823
Q

Calcium helps what to form in the muscles?

A

cross-bridges

824
Q

What does the sarcotubular system release?

A

calcium into the area around the actin and myosin contractile elements

825
Q

What maintains the tone of muscle?

A

small contractions that may occur that we don’t see

826
Q

A muscle contraction will not be seen unless what?

A

the stimulus is enough to trigger many muscle fibers to contract

827
Q

What is an important role of calcium when it comes to muscles?

A

accelerates ACh release from the end of the nerve

828
Q

Creatine phosphate is in __ concentration in the muscle.

A

high

829
Q

ATP and Calcium are required for what?

A

contraction

830
Q

How much ATP is needed for muscle contraction?

A

low amounts

831
Q

How much ATP is needed for muscle relaxation?

A

high amounts

832
Q

Define summation.

A

an additive effect of contraction

833
Q

Define tetany.

A

continuous contraction (muscle spasm)

834
Q

How many contractions are needed before maximum efficiency is reached?

A

30

835
Q

What is pulmonary hypertensive heart disease a response to?

A

chronic hypoxia, hypocapnia, respiratory alkalosis of high-altitude environment

836
Q

Smooth muscle is harder to what?

A

fatigue or tetanize

837
Q

The sarcotubular system is not as well developed in which type of muscle?

A

cardiac

838
Q

What do intercalated disks do?

A

provide connection between cardiac cells

839
Q

High requirement for ___ in cardiac muscle.

A

ATP

840
Q

is nerve stimulation required in cardiac muscle?

A

no

841
Q

What depolarizes faster than any other part of the heart muscle?

A

SA node

842
Q

T/F. Cardiac muscle contraction is slower than skeletal muscle.

A

true

843
Q

Is tetany common in cardiac muscle?

A

no it’s rare

844
Q

How is the right kidney in the horse shaped?

A

heart-shaped

845
Q

In which species is the kidney spread out along the lumbosacral area?

A

chicken

846
Q

What is the fundus of the bladder?

A

free rounded cranial portion

847
Q

What is the trigone part of the bladder?

A

area of ureteral orifices and bladder sphincter

848
Q

Increased pressure in the bladder stimulates what?

A

spinal reflex at L6-L7

849
Q

Repro tract is ____ to urinary tract.

A

dorsal

850
Q

How much of circulating blood is in a kidney at any given time?

A

1/4 total of circulating blood

851
Q

What are the four main functions of the kidney?

A
  1. regulate water balance
  2. regulate electrolyte levels
  3. RBC productions (produces erythropoietin)
  4. eliminates waste
852
Q

What is the functional unit of the kidney?

A

nephron

853
Q

What percentage of nephrons work at any given time?

A

25%

854
Q

What does sodium promote?

A

water retention

855
Q

Destruction of adrenal cortex causes ______ in K+ which are life threatening.

A

elevations

856
Q

Unregulated secretion of aldosterone by adrenal tumor can cause significant _____ in plasma K+ which are life threatening.

A

reductions

857
Q

Where are the collecting tubules and loops of henle located?

A

medulla

858
Q

The medulla is ____.

A

striated

859
Q

Where does urine collect, enter the ureter and travel to the bladder?

A

renal pelvis

860
Q

What does the proximal convulated tubule do?

A

reabsorbs most of the things the body needs, secretes wastes from blood into tubule

861
Q

What triggers the release of erythrpoietin from the kidney?

A

hypoxia

862
Q

Define hydronephrosis.

A

obstruction of urine flow with back flow of urine

Exits (12 decks)

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