Diseases Flashcards
(489 cards)
1
Q
Equine encephalitis is commonly called what?
A
sleeping sickness
2
Q
The equine disease “tetanus/lockjaw” is the result of invasion by what?
A
Clostridium sp.
3
Q
This is a reportable equine disease.
A
EIA
4
Q
When horses have “heaves” the proper medical terminology is:
A
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
5
Q
Equine “colic” may develop in several forms, select those that may qualify as “colic”.
A) Gaseous
B) Obstructive
C) Spasmodic
D) Stricture
A
Gaseous, obstructive, spasmodic, stricture
6
Q
T/F. Moldy or spoiled hay may be implicated in a “colic” episode.
A
true
7
Q
Lack of water may contribute to this form of colic.
A
impaction
8
Q
Is it possible that stress could contribute to a “colic” episode?
A
true
9
Q
From the list, select those that are neurological in nature.
A) sleeping sickness
B) west nile
C) influenza
D) EVA
A
sleeping sickness, west nile
10
Q
This disease may cause a horse to produce a brownish/red urine.
A
rhabomyolisis
11
Q
A benign tumor implies what?
A
not cancerous
12
Q
A cat that produces increased amounts of urine is described as what?
A
polyuric
13
Q
From the list below, select those that may commonly cause abortion in the pregnant mare.
A) strangles
B) rhino
C) azoturia
D) heaves
A
rhino
14
Q
T/F. There is no cure for Equine Infectious Anemia virus.
A
true
15
Q
West Nile Virus is transmitted principally by various species of what?
A
mosquitoes
16
Q
T/F. Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis is a bacterial organism.
A
false
17
Q
Azoturia is a disease that ____. Choose all that apply.
A) may be hereditary
B) may be readily transmitted via ticks
C) may be improved by dietary changes
D) may be prevented by vaccination
A
may be hereditary and may be improved by dietary changes
18
Q
T/F. Split a horse’s grain ration out into two or more feedings if the grain amount exceeds 0.5% of the horse’s body weight.
A
true
19
Q
EHV-1 and EHV-4 are versions of equine ____.
A
rhino
20
Q
Define emphysema.
A
a chronic, irreversible disease of the lungs characterized by abnormal enlargement of air spaces in the lungs accompanied by destruction of the tissue lining the walls of the air spaces
21
Q
Define emphysematous.
A
related, similar to or involving emphysema
22
Q
What term describes having been subject to decomposition.
A
decomposed
23
Q
Define evisceration.
A
the removal of internal organs
24
Q
What term describes the removal of internal organs.
A
evisceration
25
Define edema.
excess of fluids collecting in the cavities or tissues of the body
26
What term describes the excess of fluids collecting in the cavities or tissues of the body?
edema
27
Define edematous.
an abnormal accumulation of fluid in cells, tissues, or cavities of the body resulting in swelling
28
Define empyema.
collection of pus in the space between the lung and the inner surface of the chest wall
29
What term describes the collection of pus in the space between the lung and the inner surface of the chest wall.
empyema
30
Define purulent.
consisting of, containing, or discharging pus
31
What term means consisting of, containing, or discharging pus.
purulent
32
Define catarrhal.
inflammation of a mucous membrane, especially of the respiratory tract
33
What term means inflammation of a mucous membrane, especially of the respiratory tract?
catarrhal
34
Define serous.
of, resembling, or of the nature of mucus
35
What term means of, resembling, or of the nature of mucus?
serous
36
Define mucoid.
of, involving, resembling, or of the nature of mucus
37
What term means of, involving, resembling, or of the nature of mucus?
mucoid
38
Define cirrhosis.
scarring of the liver, disease marked by degeneration of cells, inflammation, and fibrous thickening
39
What term means scarring of the liver, disease marked by degeneration of cells, inflammation, and fibrous thickening?
cirrhosis
40
Define icterus.
presence of jaundice seen in the sclera of the eye
41
What term means presence of jaundice seen in the sclera of the eye?
icterus
42
Define phlegmon.
localized area of acute inflammation of the soft tissues
43
What term means localized area of acute inflammation of the soft tissues?
phlegmon
44
Define hematemesis.
vomiting of blood
45
What term means vomiting of blood?
hematemesis
46
Define hemoptysis.
coughing up of blood
47
What term means coughing up of blood?
hemoptysis
48
Define epistaxis.
bleeding from the nose
49
What term means bleeding from the nose?
epistaxis
50
Define hemopericardium.
blood in the pericardial sac of the heart
51
What term means blood in the pericardial sac of the heart?
hemopericardium
52
Define hematuria.
presence of blood in urine
53
What term means presence of blood in urine?
hematuria
54
Define diapedesis.
passage of blood cells through the intact walls of the capillaries
55
What term means passage of blood cells through the intact walls of the capillaries?
diapedesis
56
Define rhexis.
rupture of an organ or blood vessel
57
What term means rupture of an organ or blood vessel?
rhexis
58
Define septicemia.
bloodstream infection
59
What term means bloodstream infection?
septicemia
60
Define bacteremia.
presence of bacteria in the blood
61
What term means presence of bacteria in the blood?
bacteremia
62
Define multifocal.
two or more foci or arising from two or more places
63
What term means two or more foci or arising from two or more places?
multifocal
64
Define circumscribed.
confined to a limited area
65
What term means confined to a limited area?
circumscribed
66
Define encapsulated.
confined to a specific area, surrounded by a thin layer of fibrous tissue
67
What term means confined to a specific area, surrounded by a thin layer of fibrous tissue?
encapsulated
68
Define serosanguineous.
containing or consisting of both blood and serous fluid
69
What term means containing or consisting of both blood and serous fluid?
serosanguineous
70
Define sanguinous.
of, relating to, or consisting of blood
71
What term means of, relating to, or consisting of blood?
sanguinous
72
Define liquefaction.
the process of making or becoming a liquid
73
What term means the process of making or becoming a liquid?
liquefaction
74
Define macule.
small, circumscribed changes in the color of skin that are neither raised or depressed
75
What term means a small, circumscribed changes in the color of skin that are neither raised or depressed?
macule
76
Define papule.
a small, raised, solid pimple or swelling
77
What term means a small, raised, solid pimple or swelling?
papule
78
Define cyst.
closed epithelium-lined sac or capsule containing a liquid or semi solid substance
79
What term means a closed epithelium-lined sac or capsule containing a liquid or semi solid substance?
cyst
80
Define ruptured.
tearing or disruption of tissues
81
What term means tearing or disruption of tissues?
ruptured
82
Define obstruction.
the act of blocking or clogging
83
What term means the act of blocking or clogging?
obstruction
84
Define necrotic membrane.
death of the membrane cells
85
What term means the death of the membrane cells?
necrotic membrane
86
Define peritonitis.
inflammation of the peritoneum, the cause may be infectious or chemical
87
What term means inflammation of the peritoneum, and the cause may be infectious or chemical?
peritonitis
88
Define meconium.
yellow/orange mucilaginous material in the intestine of the full-term fetus
89
What term means yellow/orange mucilaginous material in the intestine of the full-term fetus?
meconium
90
Define impacted.
being wedged in firmly
91
What term means being wedged in firmly?
impacted
92
Define bifurcation.
division of two branches
93
What term means division of two branches?
bifurcation
94
Define meningitis.
inflammation of the meninges
95
What term means inflammation of the meninges?
meningitis
96
Define trauma.
wound or injury, especially damage produced by external force
97
What term means wound or injury, especially damage produced by external force?
trauma
98
Define broken mouth.
dentition when some of the incisors have been lost or badly worn and irregular so they are unable to graze/eat effectively
99
What term means dentition when some of the incisors have been lost or badly worn and irregular so they are unable to graze/eat effectively?
broken mouth
100
Define malformation.
an abnormally formed part of the body
101
What term means an abnormally formed part of the body?
malformation
102
Define hernia.
part of an organ is displaced and protrude through the wall of the cavity containing it
103
What term means part of an organ is displaced and protrude through the wall of the cavity containing it?
hernia
104
Define defect.
an imperfection
105
What term means an imperfection?
defect
106
Define renal fat?
fat padding in the kidney
107
What term means fat padding in the kidney?
renal fat
108
Define buccal mucosa.
inside lining of the cheeks and floor of the mouth
109
What term means inside lining of the cheeks and floor of the mouth?
buccal mucosa
110
Define mycotic.
relating to, or caused by a fungus
111
Define thickened.
to make or become thicker
112
Define gaseous.
relating to or having the characteristics of a gas
113
Define blood-tinged.
something that has characteristics similar to blood
114
What term means something that has characteristics similar to blood?
blood tinged
115
Define calvarium.
skull cap, top of skull
116
What term means skull cap, top of skull?
calvarium
117
Define neoplasia.
the formation or presence of a new, abnormal growth of tissue
118
What term means the formation or presence of a new, abnormal growth of tissue?
neoplasia
119
Define oncology.
the study and treatment of tumors
120
What term means the study and treatment of tumors?
oncology
121
Define malignant.
very virulent or infectious
122
What term means very virulent or infectious?
malignant
123
Define ascites.
the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity, causing abdominal swelling
124
What term means the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity, causing abdominal swelling?
ascites
125
Define aneurysm.
an excessive localized enlargement of an artery caused by a weakening of the artery wall
126
What term means an excessive localized enlargement of an artery caused by a weakening of the artery wall?
aneurysm
127
Define stenosis.
the abnormal narrowing of a passage in the body
128
What term means the abnormal narrowing of a passage in the body?
stenosis
129
Define crepitus.
a grating sound or sensation produced by friction between bone and cartilage or the fractured parts of a bone
130
What term means a grating sound or sensation produced by friction between bone and cartilage or the fractured parts of a bone?
crepitus
131
Define adhesion.
an abnormal union of membranous surfaces due to inflammation or injury
132
What term refers to an abnormal union of membranous surfaces due to inflammation or injury?
adhesion
133
Define diaphragmatic lobe.
the base of the lung that rests upon the diaphragm
134
What term refers to the base of the lung that rests upon the diaphragm?
diaphragmatic lobe
135
Define apical lobe.
top section of the lung
136
What term refers to the top section of the lung?
apical lobe
137
Define cardiac lobe.
middle section of the lung
138
What term refers to the middle section of the lung?
cardiac lobe
139
Define hyperemic.
having increased blood flow to a part of the body
140
What term refers to having increased blood flow to a part of the body?
hyperemic
141
Define necrotic.
dead cells or tissues through disease or injury
142
What term refers to dead cells or tissues through disease or injury?
necrotic
143
Define myocardium.
muscular tissue of the heart
144
What term refers to the muscular tissue of the heart?
myocardium
145
Define epicardium.
a serous membrane that forms the innermost layer of the pericardium and the outer surface of the heart
146
What term refers to a serous membrane that forms the innermost layer of the pericardium and the outer surface of the heart?
epicardium
147
Define endocardium.
the thin, smooth membrane that lines the inside of the chambers of the heart and forms the surface of the values
148
What term refers to the thin, smooth membrane that lines the inside of the chambers of the heart and forms the surface of the values?
endocardium
149
Define suppurative foci.
area of pus formation
150
What term refers to an area of pus formation?
suppurative foci
151
Define abscess.
a swollen area within body tissue, containing an accumulation of pus
152
What term refers to a swollen area within body tissue, containing an accumulation of pus?
abscess
153
Define petechiae.
tiny spots due to bleeding under the skin/mucous membranes due to either minor trauma or blood-clotting
154
What term refers to tiny spots due to bleeding under the skin/mucous membranes due to either minor trauma or blood-clotting?
petechiae
155
Define petechial.
having tiny red/brown/purple spots
156
What term refers to having tiny red/brown/purple spots?
petechial
157
Define ecchymosis.
a discoloration of the skin resulting from bleeding underneath, typically caused by bruising
158
What term refers to a discoloration of the skin resulting from bleeding underneath, typically caused by bruising?
ecchymosis
159
Define ecchymoses.
multiple spots of skin discoloration/bleeding from underneath from bruising
160
What term refers to multiple spots of skin discoloration/bleeding from underneath from bruising?
ecchymoses
161
Define coalescing.
coming together and forming one mass
162
What term refers to coming together and forming one mass?
coalescing
163
Define massive hemorrhage.
blood loss exceeding circulating blood volume within a 24hr period
164
What term refers to blood loss exceeding circulating blood volume within a 24hr period?
massive hemorrhage
165
Define clot.
thick mass of coagulated liquid, especially blood
166
What term refers to a thick mass of coagulated liquid, especially blood?
clot
167
Define embolism.
a moving clot or bubble of air
168
What term refers to a moving clot or bubble of air?
embolism
169
Define autolysis.
destruction of cells or tissues by their own enzymes, especially those released by lysosome
170
What term refers to destruction of cells or tissues by their own enzymes, especially those released by lysosome?
autolysis
171
Define hepatomegaly.
enlarged liver
172
What term refers to an enlarged liver?
hepatomegaly
173
Define hyperplastic.
cells that have gone through abnormal changes
174
What term refers to cells that have gone through abnormal changes?
hyperplastic
175
Define caries.
decay and crumbling of a tooth or bone
176
What term refers to decay and crumbling of a tooth or bone?
caries
177
Define rhinitis.
irritation/inflammation/swelling of the mucous membrane in the nose
178
What term refers to irritation/inflammation/swelling of the mucous membrane in the nose?
rhinitis
179
Define anasarca.
generalized swelling
180
What term refers to generalized swelling?
anasarca
181
Define decrement.
reduction or diminution
182
What term refers to reduction or diminution?
decrement
183
Define increment.
an increase or addition
184
What term refers to an increase or addition?
increment
185
Define etiology.
cause origin specifically
186
What term refers to cause origin specifically.
etiology
187
Define morphology.
study of the forms of things
188
What term refers to the study of the forms of things?
morphology
189
Define pneumonia.
infection that inflame air sacs in one or both lungs
190
What term refers to an infection that inflame air sacs in one or both lungs?
pneumonia
191
Define infarct.
small or localized area of dead tissue resulting from failure of blood supply
192
What term refers to a small or localized area of dead tissue resulting from failure of blood supply?
infarct
193
Define friable.
easily crumbled
194
What term refers to easily crumbled?
friable
195
Define anamnesis.
patient's medical history
196
What term refers to a patient's medical history?
anamnesis
197
Define fibrinonecrotic.
mucosa covered by adherent layer of necrotic cells
198
What term refers to mucosa covered by adherent layer of necrotic cells?
fibrinonecrotic
199
Define enteritis
inflammation of the intestine
200
What term refers to inflammation of the intestine?
enteritis
201
Define forensic.
scientific tests or techniques
202
What term refers to scientific tests or techniques?
forensic
203
Define calcinosis cutis.
calcium deposits in the skin
204
What term refers to calcium deposits in the skin?
calcinosis cutis
205
Define calcification.
accumulation of calcium salts in a body tissue
206
What term refers to accumulation of calcium salts in a body tissue?
calcification
207
Define crust.
outer hard layer
208
What term refers to the outer hard later?
crust
209
Define vesicle.
a fluid or air filled cavity or sac
210
What term refers to a fluid or air filled cavity or sac?
vesicle
211
Define diffuse.
to break up and distribute
212
What term refers to breaking up and distributing?
diffuse
213
Define erythema.
superficial reddening of the skin
214
What term refers to superficial reddening of the skin?
erythema
215
Define erythematous.
exhibiting abnormal redness of the skin
216
What term refers to exhibiting abnormal redness of the skin?
erythematous
217
Define purpura.
condition of red or purple discolored spots on the skin
218
What term refers to a condition of red or purple discolored spots on the skin?
purpura
219
Define hematoma.
solid swelling of clotted blood within the tissues
220
What term refers to a solid swelling of clotted blood within the tissues?
hematoma
221
Define ulcer.
sore developed on the lining of the esophagus, stomach, or small intestine
222
What term refers to a sore developed on the lining of the esophagus, stomach, or small intestine?
ulcer
223
Define erosion.
gradual destruction of tissue
224
What term refers to gradual destruction of tissue?
erosion
225
Define focal.
main point of interest
226
What term refers to the main point of interest?
focal
227
Define patchy.
existing or happening in small, isolated area
228
What term refers to existing or happening in small, isolated area?
patchy
229
Define congested vessels.
engorgement of blood vessels with blood
230
What term refers to the engorgement of blood vessels with blood?
congested vessels
231
Define congested (in reference to tissues).
containing an abnormal amount of blood
232
What term refers to containing an abnormal amount of blood?
congested
233
Define pallor (in reference to tissues).
tissue that has a paler appearance than normal
234
What term refers to tissue that has a paler appearance than normal?
pallor
235
Define hemorrhagic.
accompanied by, or produced by hemorrhage of or relating to a hemorrhage
236
What term refers to being accompanied by, or produced by hemorrhage of or relating to a hemorrhage?
hemorrhagic
237
Define gelatinous.
having a jelly-like consistency
238
What term refers to having a jelly-like consistency?
gelatinous
239
Define purulent discharge.
discharge that is full of, containing or forming pus
240
What term refers do discharge that is full of, containing or forming pus?
purulent discharge
241
Define hydrocephalus.
fluid accumulated in the brain, enlarges the head
242
What term refers to fluid accumulated in the brain, enlarges the head?
hydrocephalus
243
Define hydrometra.
a distended uterus filled with clear, non-infected fluid
244
What term refers to a distended uterus filled with clear, non-infected fluid?
hydrometra
245
Define atelactasis.
incomplete expansion of the lungs, collapse of the lung or a part of the lung
246
What term refers to incomplete expansion of the lungs, collapse of the lung or a part of the lung?
atelactasis
247
Define fibrin.
an insoluble protein formed from fibrinogen during the clotting of blood
248
What term refers to an insoluble protein formed from fibrinogen during the clotting of blood?
fibrin
249
Define fibrin tags.
excess fibrin that causes scar tissue or growth
250
What term refers to excess fibrin that causes scar tissue or growth?
fibrin tags
251
Define fibrinous.
marked by the presence of fibrin
252
What term means marked by the presence of fibrin?
fibrinous
253
Define prosector.
a person who dissects corpses for examination or anatomical demonstration
254
What term means a person who dissects corpses for examination or anatomical demonstration?
prosector
255
Define myoglobinuria.
presence of myoglobin in the urine, usually associated with rhabdomyolysis or muscle destruction
256
What term means the presence of myoglobin in the urine, usually associated with rhabdomyolysis or muscle destruction?
myoglobinuria
257
Define melena.
dark sticky feces containing partly digested food
258
What term means dark sticky feces containing partly digested food?
melena
259
Define artifact.
any change or a feature that is likely to lead to misinterpretation of medically significant antemortem findings
260
What term means any change or a feature that is likely to lead to misinterpretation of medically significant antemortem findings?
artifact
261
Define pigment.
a coloring matter in animals and plants especially in a cell or tissue
262
What term means a coloring matter in animals and plants especially in a cell or tissue?
pigment
263
Define deposits.
extraneous inorganic matter collected in the tissues or in an organ of the body
264
What term means extraneous inorganic matter collected in the tissues or in an organ of the body?
deposits
265
Define deposition.
the process of depositing something
266
What term means the process of depositing something?
deposition
267
Define idiopathic.
a symptom or syndrome that appears without apparent cause
268
What term means a symptom or syndrome that appears without apparent cause?
idiopathic
269
Define iatrogenic.
relating to illness caused by medical examination or treatment
270
What term means relating to illness caused by medical examination or treatment?
iatrogenic
271
Define nosocomial.
an infection that is acquired in a hospital or other health care facility
272
What term means an infection that is acquired in a hospital or other health care facility?
nosocomial
273
Define zoonosis.
infectious diseases that can be naturally transmitted between animals and humans
274
What term means infectious diseases that can be naturally transmitted between animals and humans?
zoonosis
275
Define pathognomonic.
specifically characteristic or indicative of a particular disease or condition
276
What term means specifically characteristic or indicative of a particular disease or condition?
pathognomonic
277
Define pedunculated.
having, growing on, or being attached be a peduncle
278
What term means having, growing on, or being attached be a peduncle?
pedunculated
279
Define sessile.
fixed in one place, immobile
280
What term means fixed in one place, immobile.
sessile
281
Define pendulous.
hanging down freely
282
What term means hanging down freely?
pendulous
283
Define thrombus.
a blood clot formed within the vascular system of the body and impeding blood flow
284
What term means a blood clot formed within the vascular system of the body and impeding blood flow?
thrombus
285
Define thrombi.
blood clots formed within the vascular system of the body and impede blood flow
286
What term means blood clots formed within the vascular system of the body and impede blood flow?
thrombi
287
Define embolus.
a blood clot, air bubble, piece of fatty deposit or other object which has been carried in the bloodstream to lodge in a vessel and cause an embolism
288
What term means a blood clot, air bubble, piece of fatty deposit or other object which has been carried in the bloodstream to lodge in a vessel and cause an embolism?
embolus
289
Define segmental.
composed of separate parts of sections
290
What term means being composed of separate parts of sections?
segmental
291
Define necrosis.
the death of most or all of the cells in an organ or tissue due to disease, injury, or failure of the bloody supply
292
What term means the death of most or all of the cells in an organ or tissue due to disease, injury, or failure of the bloody supply?
necrosis
293
Define metastasis.
the spread of a disease-producing agency from the initial or primary site of disease to another part of the body
294
What term means the spread of a disease-producing agency from the initial or primary site of disease to another part of the body?
metastasis
295
Define metastases.
multiple growths/tumors that have spread from a primary tumor
296
What term means multiple growths/tumors that have spread from a primary tumor?
metastases
297
Define atrophy.
waste away, typically due to the degeneration of cells, or become vestigial during evolution
298
What term means to waste away, typically due to the degeneration of cells, or become vestigial during evolution?
atrophy
299
Define hypertrophy.
the enlargement of an organ or tissue from the increase in size of its cells
300
What term means the enlargement of an organ or tissue from the increase in size of its cells?
hypertrophy
301
Define hyperplasia.
the enlargement of an organ or tissue caused by an increase in the reproduction rate of its cells
302
What term means the enlargement of an organ or tissue caused by an increase in the reproduction rate of its cells?
hyperplasia
303
Define granulation.
process of forming of grains or granules from a powdery or solid substance, producing a granular material
304
What term means the process of forming of grains or granules from a powdery or solid substance, producing a granular material?
granulation
305
Define hemosiderin.
a yellowish brown granular pigment formed by breakdown of hemoglobin
306
What term means a yellowish brown granular pigment formed by breakdown of hemoglobin?
hemosiderin
307
Tissue death (necrosis) due to inadequate blood supply to the affected area. It may be caused by artery blockages, rupture, mechanical compression, or vasoconstriction is call a/an ____.
infarct
308
Which of the following are key to successful swine management?
A) immunization
B) strict sanitation
C) excellent nutrition
D) all of the above
all of the above
309
What is the definition of SPF?
specific pathogen free
310
T/F. rotavirus in pigs is an enteric, species specific disease.
true
311
T/F. Rotavirus is usually a problem in nursing and post-weaned pigs.
true
312
One clinical signs of rotavirus in pigs is:
A) coughing
B) reddened skin
C) scouring
D) all of the above
scouring
313
This bacteria may cause rectal strictures in pigs.
Salmonella sp
314
______ is a severe disease affecting the colon (large intestine) of pigs causing diarrhea, frequently mixed with mucus and blood, which can lead to death.
swine dysentery
315
Which disease has a "garden hose" description?
proliferative enteropathy
316
Hypoglycemia, Streptococcus suis, Salt poisoning and Edema disease in pigs all exhibit ______ signs.
neurological
317
Water deprivation may result in a condition of ______.
salt poisoning
318
This disease can result due to fighting or contaminated surgical equipment.
suppurative arthritis
319
This nutritional deficiency results in watery muscle tissue and is called ______.
white muscle disease
320
White muscle disease is the result of what?
selenium deficiency
321
Parvovirus, Leptospirosis, PRRS, and Brucellosis are considered ____ diseases of the pig.
reproductive
322
T/F. PRRS and Parvovirus are viruses that can be controlled by vaccination.
true
323
T/F. Leptospirosis, erysipelis and pasturellosis are bacteria that can be controlled by vaccination.
true
324
Autogenous vaccines are those that are _____ for pig facilities.
specially designed
325
SMEDI refers to the clinic signs often seen with ____ diseases of swine.
reproductive
326
Meconium is _____.
neonatal initial feces
327
The glandular stomach of the chicken is the _____.
proventriculus
328
This is a necessary part of attire when a wild caught or disease suspect is an avian species.
mask
329
The lungs of the chicken are located _____.
adhered to the thorax
330
An example of a diphtheritic membrane might be what?
a milk coating on a tracheal surface
331
Esophageal lesions found upon necropsy of a feedlot steer are sometimes due to:
A) parasite migration
B) improper placement of bolus
C) poor ration
D) all of the above
improper placement of bolus
332
Which of the following is NOT included as a core vaccine for dogs?
A) distemper
B) adenovirus type 2
C) coronavirus
D) rabies
coronavirus
333
T/F. The infectious agent responsible for Canine Infectious Tracheobronchitis, is restrited to the virus, Bordetella bronchiseptica.
false
334
"Kennel cough" is said to show clinical signs of "acute onset of a paroxysmal hacking cough lasting several days to a few week." What does this mean?
sudden fit of coughing and retching
335
Fomites involved in transmission of many diseases of animals and humans may include:
A) contaminated cages and exam tables
B) food/water dishes
C) human hands/clothing
D) all of the above
all of the above
336
When cleaning surfaces in the necropsy area, why would a slow stream of water to clear or rinse an area be better than a hard, pressurized flow?
it would not aerosolize and present a potential agent for disease transmission
337
Which contagious canine disease can shed infective organisms 6-9 months in urine post recovery?
hepatitis
338
T/F. Innate immunity is non-specific, genetically based and passed on to offspring.
true
339
T/F. Older, vaccinated animals that break with parvo probably still had robust maternal immunity at time of vaccination.
true
340
What is the term that refers to the branch of medicine that deals with the incidence, distribution, and possible control of diseases and other factors relating to health?
epidemiology
341
When was the germ theory proven?
1800's
342
What are examples of non-infectious diseases?
nutritional deficiencies, metabolic disorders, trauma, toxic materials, venom, congenital defects
343
What are non-infectious diseases caused by?
non-living agents
344
What are infectious diseases caused by?
living agents
345
When does decompisition begin?
immediately
346
What is a prion?
a small protein
347
What does prion cause?
spongiform encephalopathies of humans and animals
348
In which dog disease are foot pads hard like concrete?
distemper
349
What are the four forms of canine distemper?
GI, respiratory, epithelial, neurologic
350
In canine distemper, there is hardening of what?
foot pads, planum nasale, pustular dermatitis
351
What causes canine distemper?
Paramyxovirus
352
When will death occur with canine distemper?
3-4 weeks
353
How is canine distemper transmitted/
aerosal droplet secretions, the virus is shed in all secretions
354
What is the incubation period for canine distemper?
approx. 3 days
355
Will common disinfectants kill canine distemper?
yes
356
What does ICH stand for?
infectious canine hepatitis
357
What causes infectious canine hepatitis?
canine adenovirus type 1
358
In which canine disease is hepatic necrosis associated with?
infectious canine hepatitis
359
What canine disease has ocular lesions that include corneal edema?
infectious canine hepatitis
360
How long can infectious canine hepatitis shed in urine post recovery?
6-9 months
361
Is infectious canine hepatitis resistant to disinfectants?
yes
362
How is infectious canine hepatitis spread?
shed in all secretions, oronasal
363
What can canine parvovirus cause in utero or postnatal infection?
acute neonatal myocarditis with acute heart failure, sudden death, delayed onset CHF if survive
364
How is canine parvovirus spread?
feco-oral route
365
Which canine disease has severe leukopenia due to lymphopenia and granulocytopenia?
parvo
366
Why is a dog with parvo given glucose?
to counteract hypoglycemia and sepsis
367
What breeds are susceptible to canine parvovirus?
Dobermans, Pit Bulls, Rotties, English Springer Spaniel, Dalmatian, Siberian Huskey, GSD, Lab, Greyhound
368
How would you disinfect canine parvovirus?
1:32 dilution of bleach (1oz bleach in 1 quart water)
369
What does canine infectious tracheobronchitis refer to?
a collection of highly contagious infectious diseases of the canine resp. tract that cause tracheobronchitis and acute onset of a paroxysmal
370
What are the most frequently isolated diseases in canine infectious tracheobronchitis?
bordetella bronchiseptica, parainfluenza
371
T/F. Canine Coronavirus enteritis is mostly asymptomatic and afebrile.
true
372
How many tablespoons are in an ounce?
2
373
What is lyme disease caused by?
a spirochete called Borrelia burgdorferi
374
How many days of antibiotics is an animal with lyme disease given?
14-21 days
375
T/F. Rabies causes encephalitis.
true
376
What are the 2 forms of rabies?
dumb (paralytic), furious (excitative)
377
Giardia is a ________ disease.
water-borne
378
What 3 diseases make up feline infectious respiratory disease complex?
feline viral rhinotracheitis, feline calicivirus, chlamydia
379
What is the predominant manifestation of feline chlamydia?
persistent mucopurulent conjunctivitis
380
Which feline virus is susceptible to drying and most disinfectants?
FHV
381
Which feline virus can live 8-10days outside of the cat?
FCV
382
FCV carriers shed from where and for how long?
pharynx and for months-years
383
Chlamydia vaccines seem to have _____ reactions.
adverse
384
What is panleukopenia also known as?
feline distemper
385
Panleukopenia is shed in what? How long?
all body excretions, up to 6 weeks
386
How long can panleukopenia survive?
for years
387
Which feline disease can cause palpable ropey intestines?
panleukopenia
388
FeLV and FIV are caused by what?
retrovirus
389
What is FIP caused by?
a coronavirus
390
What is a leading viral killer of cats?
FeLV (feline leukemia virus)
391
What does FIV stand for?
Feline immunodeficiency virus
392
What is FIV primarily spread by?
bite wounds
393
Most cats with clinical signs of FIV are how old?
6+ years old
394
Up to one in 12 cats in North America test positive for which disease?
FIV
395
Which feline diseases have oral lesions?
calici, FeLV, FIV
396
What does FIP stand for?
feline infectious peritonitis
397
What breeds seem to be more susceptible to FIP?
Siamese, Burmese, Persian
398
What is the most frequent early sign of FIP?
chronic fluctuating fever
399
How long is the clinical course to death of FIP?
3-6 weeks
400
Microsporum canis accounts for ____ of feline ringworm cases.
98%
401
Up to ___ of long-haired cats are shown to carry spores of Microsporum canis?
35%
402
What is giardia caused by?
protozoa
403
Up to 70% of surface H20 is contaminated with what?
giardia
404
What causes swine dysentery?
brachyspira hyodysenteriae
405
What does feces look like with swine dysentery?
gray to yellow, mucoid feces
406
What causes proliferative enteropathy?
lawsonia intracellulare
407
What is salt poisoning usually due to?
water deprivation
408
What causes suppurative arthritis?
streptococcus suis
409
What does mycoplasmal arthritis cause?
edema of synovial tissue
410
Which swine disease has a 100% prevalence?
porcine parvovirus
411
What does SMEDI stand for?
still birth, mummy, embryonic death, infertility
412
T/F. Brucellosis was the first agent to be weaponized by the US.
true
413
What are the three types of equine encephalitis?
eastern, western, venezuelan
414
What causes west nile virus?
flavivirus
415
What causes equine influenza virus?
orthomyxovirus
416
What causes strangles?
streptococcus equi
417
What is tetanus caused by?
Clostridium tetani
418
What is exertional rhabomyolysis?
azoturia
419
What causes azoturia?
abnormal carbohydrate metabolism
420
What causes anthrax?
bacillus anthracis
421
The spore of what may survive for decades in the soil?
anthrax
422
US will not import cattle from countries with a history of what?
foot and mouth
423
What can brucellosis cause in humans?
Undulant fever
424
The following clinical signs, might suggest that a dog is suffering from ______.
Fever
Secondary bacterial infections
pneumonia
serous to mucopurulent discharge
mucopurulent ocular discharge
GI - enteritis with diarrhea and vomiting
hardening of footpads, planum nasale, pustular dermatitis
distemper
425
Treatment for the contagious, enteric diseases such as parvo and distemper continues to be:
supportive with fluids and antibiotics
426
The incubation period for canine distemper is approximately ____.
3 days
427
The following clinical signs would be in keeping with which contagious, canine disease?
Hepatic necrosis with subsequent related bleeding disorders as DIC due to liver damage
ocular lesions include corneal edema
pneumonia, pylenephritis
hepatitis
428
Hemostatic congestion refers to:
pooled blood on the "down" side
429
What is the importance of a necropsy?
A) legal issue
B) quality control tool
C) comfort to owner
D) all of the above
all of the above
430
The current trend in disease management is _____.
prevention
431
T/F. Chickens have no teeth to grind their food.
true
432
Birds have _____ which are thin walled extensions of the lungs that assist in oxygenation of the tissues.
air sacs
433
What structure of anatomy is responsible for producing the bird's song?
syrinx
434
Snake venom is an example of a/an _____ disease.
false
435
Check this when performing a feedlot necropsy as an indicator of acidosis when examining the rumen.
pH
436
Do rats have a gall bladder?
no
437
What anatomical structure of the rat allows it to utilize low quality and fibrous foods?
cecum
438
T/F. The hen produces eggs by alternating ova from two ovaries.
false
439
A hen will normally produce about _ egg/eggs per day.
one
440
T/F. Decomposition of a carcass begins immediately after death.
true
441
T/F. The cecum of the chicken has two blind pockets.
true
442
Vaccination protocols may vary from "core" recommendations due to which of the following situations?
A) animal use
B) exposure level
C) breed characteristics
D) all of the above
all of the above
443
T/F. Ferrets and Mink are also susceptible to the "distemper" virus.
true
444
T/F. Canine "distemper" varies from canine "parvo" in clinical signs because "distemper" has no gastrointestinal symptoms.
false
445
T/F. A dog with ICH may later develop a bleeding disorder, due to liver damage.
true
446
ICH is ___ to disinfectations.
very resistant
447
T/F. Although "parvo" is a viral disease, therapy for the patient should still include the addition of antibiotics.
true
448
The "infection zone" for Bordetella bronchiseptica in the canine is located ____.
at the base of the throat
449
A term often used to describe the look of inflamed and abnormal intestines is "__".
angry
450
A dog owner may often mistake the onset of "kennel cough" for ____.
choke
451
The bovine carcass at necropsy, should be positioned in ___ recumbency if possible.
left lateral
452
T/F. Letting your dog finish your supreme pizza should have no ill effects.
false
453
Compared to other states, Nebraska livestock producers are generally fortunate in having fewer poisonous plant problems.
A) true
B) false
C) NE has the highest percentage of toxic plants in the nation
true
454
T/F. Poison hemlock is found state-wide in Nebraska.
true
455
T/F. Grazing stocking rates are an important consideration when a pasture has areas of toxic plant species.
true
456
T/F. Cellular changes in diseased tissues are often characteristic of a specific disease or group of diseases.
true
457
Samples intended for histology are:
A) fresh
B) frozen
C) fixed
D) could be from any of these
fixed
458
Samples intended for bacteriology are:
A) fresh
B) frozen
C) fixed
D) could be from any of these
fresh
459
Autolyzed tissues are generally useless for histopathologic examination.
A) true
B) false
C) true unless intended for toxicology
true unless intended for toxicology
460
T/F. Samples of the various organs that are intended for histopath should be cut <1 cm thick (preferably 7mm) and placed immediately into >or= times their volume of phosphate-buffered 10% formalin for fixation.
true
461
T/F. Often, the brain is sent in one piece and fixed in formalin, properly refrigerated, for microbiologic tests.
false
462
T/F. If feed or water is suspected as the source of poisoning, samples of these and any descriptive feed tag should accompany the tissue samples.
true
463
T/F. If legal action is a possibility, all containers for shipment should be either sealed so that tampering can be detected or hand-carried to the laboratory and a receipt obtained. The chain of custody must be accurately documented.
true
464
The definition of "pathology" is:
the study of disease
465
T/F. Well-trained veterinary technicians may perform necropsies under appropriate supervision.
true
466
T/F. The owner's permission must be obtained before a necropsy can be conducted.
true
467
It is important that a necropsy be performed as soon as possible to avoid ____.
autolysis
468
Decomposition occurs most rapidly in ____ animals.
obese
469
If the necropsy must be delayed the animal or animal samples should be kept _____.
refrigerated
470
Which of these descriptive choices is best included in a necropsy report?
A) "there are multiple, dark, red 1-4mm diameter soft nodules"
B) "hermangiosarcoma noted"
there are multiple, dark, red 1-4mm diameter soft nodules
471
This is the fixative of choice for preserving tissues.
A) 10% buffered formalin
B) 4% formaldehyde
C) 70% isopropol alcohol
D) none of the above
10% buffered formalin
472
T/F. Slices of tissue no more than 1 cm thick should be placed in no more than twice the volume of fixative.
false
473
T/F. Tissue fixatives may be irritants and carcinogens.
true
474
All containers of fixed tissue samples should be: (choose all that apply)
A) mailed or delivered within 4 hours
B) clearly labeled
C) packaged to follow delivery guidelines
D) shipped in glass containers
clearly labeled, packaged to follow delivery guidelines
475
Prosectors should wear ____ when performing a necropsy on wild ____.
masks/birds
476
T/F. Animals that are suspected to have rabies must undergo necropsy at the clinic prior to shipping to the diagnostic lab.
false
477
T/F. Formalin fixed tissues do not need refrigeration.
true
478
T/F. Fetuses are often severely autolyzed so sample collection is not justified.
true
479
Other than cost, cosmetic necropsies are unwise because:
the prosector may miss vital information
480
Histopath is the examination of"
fixed tissues
481
Look for the heart of the snake in this part of the body.
cranieal third
482
T/F. Samples for toxicology may be frozen.
true
483
This structure should be palpated to determine the nutritional status of a bird of flight.
keel bone
484
A sharp knife is an important instrument which ______.
prevents crushing of tissues
485
T/F. All personnel involved in packaging and shipping biological samples must be trained and tested every three years.
true
486
T/F. Category A specimens for shipment might include a pure Salmonella culture.
true
487
T/F. All packages for shipment of biological samples must be leak proof and contain sufficient absorbent in case a fluid container should rupture.
true
488
T/F. Checking the pH of rumen contents may sometimes be a useful tool in determining acidosis.
true
489
The interior surface of the ruminant's reticulum has a ____ appearance.
honeycomb surface
