Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 5 barriers to drug distribution?

A

drug’s chemical properties, tissue blood flow, protein binding, tissue binding, anatomic barriers

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2
Q

What are examples of anatomic barriers?

A

blood-brain barrier, epidural barrier, blood-testis barrier

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3
Q

What is the definition of the therapeutic range of a drug?

A

the drug concentration in the body that produces the desired effect in the animal with minimal or no signs or toxicity

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4
Q

What is the drug concentration in the body that produces the desired effect in the animal with minimal or no signs or toxicity?

A

therapeutic range of a drug

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5
Q

What are the 3 major drug factors that keep drugs in their therapeutic range?

A

route of administration, drug dose, dosage interval

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6
Q

How do you find the therapeutic range?

A

LD50/ED50

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7
Q

What is LD50/ED50 used to find?

A

a drug’s therapeutic range

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8
Q

The larger the therapeutic range the ___ the drug

A

safer

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9
Q

What is LD50?

A

lethal dose

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10
Q

What is ED50?

A

effective dose

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11
Q

What are the most common diseases that impact drug pharmacokinetics?

A

liver disease, kidney disease, cardiovascular disease

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12
Q

How does cardiovascular disease effect pharmacokinetics?

A

alters the distribution of blood flow to tissues

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13
Q

How does kidney diseases effect drugs?

A

decreased drug elimination, increases plasma drug concentrations, risk of adverse drug reactions or toxicity, increased fluid retention.

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14
Q

What is the primary site of drug metabolism?

A

the liver

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15
Q

The liver is the primary site of what?

A

drug metabolism

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16
Q

What has the most significant impact on drug disposition?

A

reduced kidney function

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17
Q

Reduced kidney function has what kind of impact on drug disposition?

A

the most significant

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18
Q

What kind of adverse drug reaction are predictable?

A

dose-dependent drug reactions

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19
Q

What kind of adverse drug reaction are unpredictable?

A

idiosyncratic drug reactions

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20
Q

What kind of adverse drug reaction affects all members of a species?

A

dose-dependent drug reaction

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21
Q

What kind of adverse drug reaction affects only a small portion of treated animals?

A

idiosyncratic drug reaction

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22
Q

What kind of adverse drug reaction has a likelihood of reaction increasing as the dose increases?

A

dose-dependent drug reaction

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23
Q

What kind of adverse drug reaction has a risk of reaction that increases with the dose?

A

idiosyncratic drug reaction

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24
Q

How do you treat idiosyncratic drug reactions?

A

drug withdrawal and drug avoidance

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25
Q

How do you treat dose-dependent drug reactions?

A

dose reduction and brief drug withdrawal

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26
Q

Do idiosyncratic drug reactions occur immediately?

A

no

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27
Q

What is therapeutic drug monitoring?

A

periodic measurement of amount of drug in the blood

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28
Q

When is therapeutic drug monitoring recommended?

A

pharmacokinetics of drug varies significantly among individuals, drug has narrow therapeutic range

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29
Q

What is the goal of therapeutic drug monitoring?

A

to optimize drug plasma concentrations to maximize efficacy and minimize toxicity

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30
Q

What is optimizing drug plasma concentrations to maximize efficacy and minimize toxicity a goal of?

A

therapeutic drug monitoring

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31
Q

T or F. Glucocorticoids are eliminated from the body quickly.

A

False. They’re eliminated from the body very slowly.

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32
Q

What does the federal government do?

A

assure available drugs are safe, effective, and prepared in accordance with manufacturing standards

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33
Q

What does the state laws do?

A

control the distribution of drugs within the state

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34
Q

What does the FDA’s Center for Veterinary Medicine (CVM) do?

A

regulates manufacturing and distribution of drugs, food additives and medical devices. Oversees regulations including approval, safety, efficacy, and postapproval monitoring

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35
Q

Who regulates drug residues in food animals?

A

FDA and EPA

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36
Q

What does EPA stand for?

A

Environmental Protection Agency

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37
Q

Drug compounding is limited to what kind of drugs?

A

FDA-approved drugs only

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38
Q

What are the uses of compounding drugs?

A

creating discontinued drugs, creating dosages and strength specific to an animal’s weight and health, creating alternative dose forms such a liquids/ointments/tablets, adding flavoring, customizing formula that combine multiple drugs

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39
Q

What are some concerns of compounding drugs?

A

might turn an FDA approved drug into an unapproved drug, made without FDA oversight, may not be sterile and cause infections, errors may result in disease or death

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40
Q

What does FARAD stand for?

A

Food Animal Residue Avoidance Bank

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41
Q

What is the abbreviation for Food Animal Residue Avoidance Bank?

A

FARAD

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42
Q

What is FARAD?

A

a computer-based system designed to provide information on how to avoid drug, pesticide, and environmental contaminant residue problems

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43
Q

Which agency provides a list of drugs prohibited for use in livestock?

A

FARAD

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44
Q

How long should records of controlled substances be kept?

A

2 years

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45
Q

What are the four major steps in drug development?

A

synthesis/discovery of a new drug compound, safety/effectiveness evaluation, submission and review of the new animal drug application, postmarketing surveillance stage

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46
Q

What are short term tests used for when looking at safety and effectiveness evaluation?

A

to check the animal for obvious adverse reactions

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47
Q

What are long term tests used for when looking at safety and effectiveness evaluation?

A

check the animal’s various organ systems for toxicity damage

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48
Q

How long are long term tests ran for when looking at safety and effectiveness evaluation

A

3-24 months of repeated dosing

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49
Q

How long are long term tests done for when looking at safety and effectiveness evaluation

A

hours following a test dose

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50
Q

What do carcinogenicity tests look at in terms of safety and effectiveness evaluation?

A

cancer causing

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51
Q

What do teratogenicity tests look at in terms of safety and effectiveness evaluation?

A

fetal defects in pregnant animals

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52
Q

What are 6 rights of drug administration?

A

the right drug, the right dose, the right time, the right route, the right patient, the right documentation

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53
Q

How many times should you check the label on a container?

A

three times

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54
Q

Should you ever give a medication from a container that is unlabeled?

A

no

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55
Q

Why are daily drug doses given at specific times during the day?

A

to keep plasma levels at the proper level to cause the desired effect

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56
Q

What should be included in the documentation when you administer drugs?

A

the drug, dosage administered, time and date administered, the route and site, patient’s response, signature or initials

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57
Q

What are factors that affect the route of drug administration?

A

drug may have on effect when given parenterally and another nonparenterally, water-insoluble drugs can be given IM but not IV, some drugs are destroyed or modified by stomach acid and cannot be given orally

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58
Q

Why should air bubbles be removed from drugs being administered IV?

A

to avoid causing air emboli and tissue damage

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59
Q

Are drugs administered IM volume limited?

A

yes

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60
Q

What does the sympathetic (adrenergic) nervous system do to the body?

A

increases heart rate, increases respiration rate, increases blood flow to muscles, decreases GI function, causes pupillary dilation

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61
Q

What does the parasympathetic (cholinergic) nervous system do to the body?

A

brings heart rate/respiration rate/and blood flow to muscles back to normal levels, returns GI function to normal, constricts pupils to normal size

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62
Q

What do cholinergic drugs do?

A

mimic the action of the parasympathetic nervous system

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63
Q

Examples of cholinergic drugs?

A

bethanechol, metoclopramide, pilocarpine, edrophonium, neostigmine, demecarium, organophosphates

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64
Q

What do anticholinergic drugs do?

A

inhibit the actions of acetylcholine by occupying the acetylcholine receptors

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65
Q

Examples of anticholinergic drugs?

A

atropine, glycopyrrolate, aminopentamide, propantheline

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66
Q

What do adrenergic drugs do?

A

stimulate the action of the sympathetic nervous system

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67
Q

What are side effects of adrenergic drugs?

A

tachycardia, hypertension, cardiac arrhythmias

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68
Q

Examples of adrenergic drugs?

A

epinephrine, norepinephrine, isoproterenol, dopamine, dobutamine, phenylpropanolamine, isoetharine, albuterol, terbutaline, ephedrine, xylazine

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69
Q

What do adrenergic blocking agents do?

A

block the effects of the adrenergic neurotransmitters

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70
Q

What are examples of alpha-blockers?

A

phenoxybenzamine, prazosin, yohimbine

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71
Q

What are examples of beta-blockers?

A

propranolol, metoprolol, timolol

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72
Q

What are dendrites?

A

branch-like extensions that receive impulses and carry them toward the cell body

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73
Q

What do you call branch-like extensions that receive impulses and carry them toward the cell body?

A

dendrites

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74
Q

What is an axon?

A

single extension of the neuron that carries impulses away from the cell body

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75
Q

What do you call a single extension of the neuron that carries impulses away from the cell body?

A

axon

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76
Q

What do sensory neurons do?

A

carry impulses from inside and outside the body to brain and spinal cord

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77
Q

What do interneurons do?

A

process incoming impulses and pass them on to motor neurons

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78
Q

What do motor neurons do?

A

carry impulses away from the brain and spinal cord

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79
Q

How do anticonvulsants help prevent seizures?

A

by suppressing the spread of abnormal electric impulses from the seizure focus to other areas of the cerebral cortex

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80
Q

Examples of barbituates used as an anticonvulsant.

A

phenobarbital, pentobarbital

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81
Q

What do benzodiazepines do when used as an anticonvulsant?

A

potentiate effects of GABA, cause muscle relaxtion, relieve anxiety

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82
Q

Examples of benzodiazepines used as an anticonvulsant.

A

diazepam, lorazepam, clorazepate

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83
Q

What is Flumazenil?

A

benzodiazepine reversal agent

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84
Q

What is a benzodiazepine reversal agent?

A

Flumazenil

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85
Q

What are side effects of gabapentin?

A

sedation, ataxia, potential for hepatotoxicity

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86
Q

How does Gabapentin work?

A

inhibiting calcium channels resulting in decreased excitatory neurotransmission

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87
Q

What do tranquilizers do?

A

calm animals, reduce anxiety and aggression

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88
Q

What do sedatives do?

A

quiet excited animals, decrease irritability and excitement

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89
Q

What is an example of a phenothiazine derivatives?

A

acepromazine

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90
Q

What does acepromazine do?

A

causes sedation, relieves fear and anxiety

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91
Q

What do phenothiazine derivatives do when used as a calming agent?

A

causes sedation, relieves fear and anxiety

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92
Q

What are side effects of phenothiazine derivatives when used as a calming agent?

A

hypotension, lower seizure threshold, protrusion of nictitating membrane, paraphimosis

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93
Q

What are side effects of acepromazine when used as a calming agent?

A

hypotension, lower seizure threshold, protrusion of nictitating membrane, paraphimosis

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94
Q

What are examples of benzodiazepines used as a calming agent?

A

midazolam, diazepam

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95
Q

What are benzodiazepines used for when used as a calming agent?

A

anti-anxiety, produce muscle relaxation, reduce anxiousness

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96
Q

What are examples of alpha-2 agonists used as a calming agent?

A

xylazine, detomidine, medetomidine

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97
Q

What are side effects when using alpha-2 agonists as a calming agent?

A

bradycardia and heart block

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98
Q

What reversal agents are available for alpha-2 agonists? calming agent

A

yohimbine and atipamezole

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99
Q

What are side effects of opioids?

A

respiratory depression and excitement if given rapidly

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100
Q

What are the three opioid receptors? Where are they found/

A
Mu = found in the brain
Kappa = found in the cerebral cortex and spinal cord
Sigma = found in the brain
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101
Q

What do opioid antagonists do?

A

block the binding of opioids to their receptors

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102
Q

What are opioid receptors used for?

A

to treat respiratory and CNS depression of opioid use

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103
Q

What is an example of an opioid antagonists?

A

naloxone

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104
Q

What is naloxone used for?

A

to reverse respiratory depression following narcotic overdose

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105
Q

What is a neuroleptanalgesic?

A

combination of an opioid and a tranquilizer or sedative

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106
Q

What are examples of neuroleptanalgesics?

A

acepromazine + morphine, xylazine + butorphanol

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107
Q

What do local anesthetics do?

A

block nerve transmission in the area of application with no loss of consciousness

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108
Q

What are examples of local anesthetics?

A

lidocaine, proparacaine, tetracaine, mepivacaine, bupivacaine

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109
Q

What are side effects of barbituates used as an injectable general anesthetic?

A

potent cardiovascular and respiratory depression

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110
Q

What are side effects of dissociatives used as an injectable general anesthetic?

A

cardiac stimulation, respiratory depression, exaggerated reflexes

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111
Q

What do dissociatives cause when used as an injectable general anesthetic?

A

muscle rigidity, amnesia, mild analgesia

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112
Q

What can halothane cause?

A

hepatic problems, malignant hyperthermia, cardiac problems, tachypnea

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113
Q

When is halothane contraindicated?

A

gastric dilation, pneumothorax, twisted intestines

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114
Q

What are side effects of isoflurane?

A

respiratory depression and malignant hyperthermia

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115
Q

What does Doxapram do?

A

stimulates brainstem to increase respiration in animals with apnea or bradypnea

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116
Q

When is Doxapram commonly used?

A

when animals have C-sections

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117
Q

What do euthanasia solutions usually contain?

A

pentobarbital

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118
Q

When is euthanasia solution a C-2 controlled substance?

A

when pentobarbital is the only narcotic agent present

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119
Q

When is euthanasia solution a C-3 controlled substance?

A

when pentobarbital is in combination with other agents

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120
Q

When pentobarbital is the only narcotic agent present, what class of a controlled substance is a euthanasia solution?

A

class 2

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121
Q

When pentobarbital is in combination with other agents, what class of a controlled substance is a euthanasia solution?

A

class 3

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122
Q

What is an example of an expectorant?

A

guaifenesin

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123
Q

What is guaifenesin?

A

an expectorant

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124
Q

What do expectorants do?

A

increase the fluidity of mucus, increase the flow of respiratory secretions to allow material to be coughed up from the lungs

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125
Q

What do mucolytics do?

A

decrease the viscosity or thickness of respiratory secretions

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126
Q

What is acetylcysteine an example of?

A

mucolytic

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127
Q

What is an example of a mucolytic?

A

acetylcysteine

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128
Q

What is acetylcysteine also used to treat?

A

acetaminophen toxicity

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129
Q

What is used to treat acetaminophen toxicity?

A

acetylcysteine

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130
Q

What may be centrally acting or locally acting?

A

antitussives

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131
Q

What do antitussives do?

A

suppress coughs

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132
Q

What respiratory drug suppresses cough?

A

antitussives

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133
Q

Antitussives may be ___ acting or ___ acting.

A

centrally, locally

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134
Q

What are examples of centrally acting antitussives?

A

butorphanol, hydrocodone, codeine, dextromethorphan, trimeprazine

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135
Q

What is butorphanol, hydrocodone, codeine, dextromethorphan, trimeprazine an example of?

A

centrally acting antitussives

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136
Q

What are examples of locally acting antitussives?

A

cough syrups

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137
Q

Are locally acting antitussives common in veterinary medicine?

A

no

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138
Q

What type of respiratory drug decreases the viscosity or thickness of respiratory secretions?

A

mucolytics

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139
Q

What type of respiratory drug increases the fluidity of mucus and increases the flow of respiratory secretions to allow material to be coughed up from the lungs?

A

expectorants

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140
Q

What do decongestants do?

A

decrease the congestion of nasal passages by reducing swelling

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141
Q

What respiratory drug decreases the congestion of nasal passages by reducing swelling?

A

decongestants

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142
Q

What are examples of decongestants?

A

phenylephrine and pseudophedrine

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143
Q

What are phenylephrine and pseudophedrine and example of?

A

decongestant

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144
Q

What do antihistamines do?

A

block the effects of histamine

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145
Q

What respiratory drug blocks the effects of histamine?

A

antihistamines

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146
Q

What are side effects of antihistamines?

A

CNS depression and anticholinergic effects such as dry mouth

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147
Q

What do bronchodilators do?

A

widen the lumen of the bronchi and counteract bronchoconstriction

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148
Q

What respiratory drugs widen the lumen of the bronchi and counteract bronchoconstriction?

A

bronchodilators

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149
Q

What are examples of bronchodilators?

A

cholinergic blocking agents (aminopentamide, atropine, glycopyrrolate)

beta-2-adrenergic agonists (epinephrine, isoproterenol, terbutaline, albuterol)

methylxanthines (aminophylline, theophylline)

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150
Q

What are examples of respiratory stimulants?

A

naloxone and yohimbine

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151
Q

What are 4 examples of asthma drugs?

A

glucocorticoids, bronchodilators, methylxanthines, cyclosporin

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152
Q

Glucocorticoids are orally used to treat ___ asthma.

A

feline

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153
Q

What is orally used to treat feline asthma?

A

glucocorticoids

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154
Q

There are ___ side effects with inhaled glucocorticoids than with ___ ones

A

inhaled, oral

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155
Q

What are inhaled glucocorticoids used for?

A

to decrease swollen and narrowed airways by decreasing inflammation

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156
Q

What asthma drug is used to decrease swollen and narrowed airways by decreasing inflammation?

A

inhaled glucocorticoids

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157
Q

What is used in addition to glucocorticoids in the treatment of feline asthma?

A

bronchodilators

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158
Q

What side effects of bronchodilators when used as an asthma drug?

A

tracheal or bronchial irritation

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159
Q

Which asthma drug has a narrow therapeutic index?

A

methylxanthines

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160
Q

What is a cyclosporin when speaking about asthma drugs?

A

a fungal derived protein useful in the allergic response in feline asthma

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161
Q

Which asthma drug is a fungal derived protein useful in the allergic response in feline asthma?

A

cyclosporin

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162
Q

What are side effects of cyclosporin?

A

nephrotoxicity and vomiting

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163
Q

What are some good management practices to help horses with COPD?

A

keeping horses outside as much as possible, reducing dust, storing hay in a dry place, improving ventilation in horse stables

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164
Q

How do glucocorticoids help COPD?

A

help decrease smooth muscle contraction, suppress inflammation, and reduce mucus production

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165
Q

What COPD drugs help decrease smooth muscle contraction, suppress inflammation, and reduce mucus production?

A

glucocorticoids

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166
Q

What does the urinary system do?

A

filter waste from blood, help control system pH, help produce blood, help control blood volume, help control blood pressure, help control system ion concentrations

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167
Q

What kinds of drugs affect the urinary system?

A

antihypertensive, diuretics

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168
Q

What do antihypertensive drugs do?

A

decrease hypertension (lower blood pressure)

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169
Q

What kind of drugs decrease hypertension (lower blood pressure)?

A

antihypertensive drugs

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170
Q

What are 4 types of antihypertensive drugs that affect the urinary system?

A

diuretics, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACE inhibitors), calcium-channel blockers, direct-acting arteriole vasodilators

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171
Q

What do diuretics do?

A

promote sodium and water loss

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172
Q

What do ACE inhibitors do?

A

block the conversion of angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2, which results in decreased aldosterone secretion

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173
Q

What are examples of ACE inhibitors that affect the urinary system?

A

enalapril, captopril, lisinopril, benazepril

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174
Q

What drugs block the converson of angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2?

A

ACE inhibitors

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175
Q

What do calcium-channel blockers do?

A

block the influx of calcium ions into the myocardial cells, resulting in an inhibition of cardiac and smooth muscle contractility

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176
Q

What kind of drug blocks the influx of calcium ions into the myocardial cells, resulting in an inhibition of cardiac and smooth muscle contractility?

A

calcium-channel blockers

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177
Q

What are examples of calcium-channel blockers that affect the urinary system?

A

amlodipine, verapamil, nifedipine, diltiazem

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178
Q

What do direct-acting arteriole vasodilators do?

A

relax smooth muscles of blood vessels causing vasodil

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179
Q

What kind of drug relaxes smooth muscles of blood vessels causing vasodil?

A

direct-acting arteriole vasodilators

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180
Q

What are examples of direct-acting arteriole vasodilators?

A

hydralazine and minoxidil

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181
Q

What are examples of alpha-adrenergic antagonists that affect the urinary system?

A

phenoxybenzamine, prazosin, nicergoline

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182
Q

What do diuretics do?

A

increase the volume of urine excreted by the kidneys and promote release of water from tissues, lower the fluid volume in tissues

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183
Q

What are the 5 types of diuretics?

A

thiazides, loop diuretics, potassium-sparing diuretics, carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, osmotics

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184
Q

What do thiazide diuretics do?

A

act directly on the renal tubules to block sodium reabsorption and promote chloride ion excretion

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185
Q

What type of diuretic acts directly on the renal tubules to block sodium reabsorption and promote chloride ion excretion?

A

thiazides

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186
Q

What are side effects of thiazide diuretics?

A

hypokalemia and cardiac dysfunction

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187
Q

What are examples of thiazide diuretics?

A

hydrochlorothiazide, chlorothiazide, hydroflumethiazide, bendroflumethiazide

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188
Q

Hydrochlorothiazide, chlorothiazide, hydroflumethiazide, bendroflumethiazide are examples of what?

A

thiazide diuretics

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189
Q

What do loop diuretics do?

A

influence the reabsorption action at the loop of Henle, resulting in tremendous diuresis

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190
Q

What type of diuretic influences the reabsorption action at the loop of Henle, resulting in tremendous diuresis?

A

loop diuretics

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191
Q

What are side effects of loop diuretics?

A

electrolyte imbalances (especially hypokalemia)

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192
Q

What is an example of a loop diuretic?

A

furosemide

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193
Q

What is furosemide an example of?

A

loop diuretic

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194
Q

What do potassium-sparing diuretics do?

A

act on the distal convulated tubules to promote sodium and water excretion and potassium retention

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195
Q

What type of diuretic acts on the distal convulated tubules to promote sodium and water excretion and potassium retention?

A

potassium-sparing diuretics

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196
Q

What is the main side effect of potassium-sparing diuretics?

A

hyperkalemia

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197
Q

What are examples of potassium-sparing diuretics?

A

spironolactone, triamterene, amiloride

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198
Q

Spironolactone, triamterene, amiloride are examples of what?

A

potassium-sparing diuretics

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199
Q

What do carbonic anhydrase inhibitors do?

A

block the action of the enzyme carbonic anhydrase, which is used by the body to maintain acid-base balance

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200
Q

Which diuretic blocks the action of the enzyme carbonic anhydrase, which is used by the body to maintain acid-base balance?

A

carbonic anhydrase inhibtors

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201
Q

What are carbonic anhydrase inhibitors used for?

A

decrease intraocular pressure with open-angle glaucoma

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202
Q

What diuretic is used to decrease intraoclar pressure with open-angle glaucoma.

A

carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

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203
Q

What is the main side effects of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors?

A

metabolic acidosis

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204
Q

What are examples of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors?

A

acetazolamide and dichlorphenamide

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205
Q

What do osmotic diuretics do?

A

increase the osmolality (concentration) of the urine filtrate in the renal tubules, resulting in the excretion of chloride, potassium, and water

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206
Q

What kind of diuretics increase the osmolality (concentration) of the urine filtrate in the renal tubules, resulting in the excretion of chloride, potassium, and water?

A

osmotic diuretics

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207
Q

What are osmotic diuretics used for?

A

to prevent kidney failure and to decrease intracranial and intraocular pressure

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208
Q

What kind of diuretics are used to prevent kidney failure and to decrease intracranial and intraocular pressure?

A

osmotic diuretics

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209
Q

What are side effects of osmotic diuretics?

A

fluid/electrolyte imbalance and vomiting

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210
Q

What are examples of osmotic diuretics?

A

mannitol and glycerin

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211
Q

What are uroliths?

A

abnormal mineral masses in the urinary system

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212
Q

What are abnormal mineral masses in the urinary system called?

A

urolith

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213
Q

What are the drug categories used to treat uroliths?

A

urinary acidifiers, urinary alkalinizers, xanthine oxidase inhibitors

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214
Q

What are urinary acidifiers used for?

A

to produce acid urine, which dissolves and helps prevent formation of struvite uroliths

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215
Q

What is used to produce acid urine, which dissolves and helps prevent formation of struvite uroliths?

A

urinary acidifiers

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216
Q

What are examples of urinary acidifiers?

A

methionine and ammonium chloride

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217
Q

What is methionine and ammonium chloride examples of?

A

urinary acidifers

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218
Q

What are urinary alkalinizers used for?

A

to treat calcium oxalate, cystine, and ammonium urate uroliths

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219
Q

What is used to to treat calcium oxalate, cystine, and ammonium urate uroliths?

A

urinary alkalinizers

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220
Q

What is an example of a urinary alkalinizer?

A

potassium citrate

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221
Q

What do xanthine oxidase inhibitors do?

A

decrease the production of uric acid, which helps decrease the formation of ammonium urate uroliths

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222
Q

What is used to decrease the production of uric acid, which helps decrease the formation of ammonium urate uroliths?

A

xanthine oxidase inhibitors

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223
Q

What are two things that may cause urinary incontinence?

A

neurologic disorders and non-neurologic disorders

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224
Q

What is urinary incontinence caused by neurologic disorders result from?

A

trauma to the spinal cord, tumors of the nervous system, or degeneration of the nervous system tracts

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225
Q

What is urinary incontinence caused by non-neurologic disorders result from?

A

hormone-responsive, stress, urge, ectopic ureter formation, or urinary bladder over-distention

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226
Q

What are the two types of drugs used to treat neurologically caused incontinence?

A

cholinergic agonists and anticholinergics

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227
Q

What do cholinergic agonists treat animals with neurologically caused urinary incontinence?

A

urinary retention, promote voiding of urine from the urinary bladder (relaxation of the urinary bladder)

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228
Q

What do anticholinergic treat animals with neurologically caused urinary incontinence?

A

block binding of ACh to its receptor site, causing muscle relaxation (promote urine retention)

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229
Q

What is an example of a cholinergic agonist used to treat neurologically caused urinary incontinence?

A

bethanechol

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230
Q

What are examples of a anticholinergic used to treat neurologically caused urinary incontinence?

A

propantheline, dicyclomine, butylhyoscine

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231
Q

How do alpha-adrenergic antagonists help treat neurologically caused urinary incontinence?

A

decrease the tone of internal urethral sphincters and are used to treat over-distention of the bladder (treat urinary retention)

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232
Q

What are examples of alpha-adrenergic antagonists used to treat neurologically caused urinary incontinence?

A

phenoxybenzamine, prazosin, nicergoline

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233
Q

What are used to treat non-neurologically caused urinary incontinence?

A

hormones (estrogen and testosterone)

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234
Q

What is an example of estrogen used to treat non-neurologically caused urinary incontinence?

A

diethylstilbestrol

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235
Q

What are examples of testosterone used to treat non-neurologically caused urinary incontinence?

A

testosterone cypionate and testosterone propionate

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236
Q

What are four purposes of the cardiovascular system?

A

distribute metabolites and O2, collect wastes and CO2, thermoregulation, hormone distribution

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237
Q

What is systole?

A

contraction of heart chambers

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238
Q

What is diastole?

A

relaxation of heart chambers

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239
Q

What are types of cardiovascular drugs?

A

positive inotropic drugs, negative inotropic drugs, positive chronotropic drugs, negative chronotropic drugs, positive dromotropic drugs, negative dromotropic drugs

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240
Q

What do positive inotropic drugs do?

A

increase the force of myocardial contraction

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241
Q

What type of cardiovascular drug increases the force of myocardial contraction?

A

positive inotropic drugs

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242
Q

What do negative inotropic drugs do?

A

decrease the force of myocardial contraction

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243
Q

What type of cardiovascular drug decreases the force of myocardial contraction?

A

negative inotropic drugs

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244
Q

What do positive chronotropic drugs do?

A

increase heart rate by altering the rate of impulse formation at the SA node

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245
Q

What type of cardiovascular drug increases heart rate by altering the rate of impulse formation at the SA node?

A

positive chronotropic drugs

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246
Q

What do negative chronotropic drugs do?

A

decrease heart rate by altering the rate of impulse formation at the SA node

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247
Q

What type of cardiovascular drug decreases heart rate by altering the rate of impulse formation at the SA node?

A

negative chronotropic drugs

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248
Q

What do positive dromotropic drugs do?

A

increase the conduction of electrical impulses

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249
Q

What type of cardiovascular drug increases the conduction of electrical impulses?

A

positive dromotropic drugs

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250
Q

What do negative dromotropic drugs do?

A

decreases the conduction of electrical impulses

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251
Q

What type of cardiovascular drug decreases the conduction of electrical impulses?

A

negative dromotropic drugs

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252
Q

What are examples of positive inotropes?

A

cardiac glycosides, catecholamines, benzimidazole-pyridazinones

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253
Q

What are cardiac glycosides, catecholamines, benzimidazole-pyridazinones an example of?

A

positive inotropes

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254
Q

What do cardiac glycosides do?

A

increase the strength of cardiac contractions, decrease heart rate, have an antiarrhythmic effect, and decrease signs of dyspnea

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255
Q

What are cardiac glycosides used to treat?

A

CHF, atrial fibrillation, supraventricular

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256
Q

What are side effects of cardiac glycosides?

A

anorexia, vomiting, diarrhea, cardiac arrhythmias

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257
Q

What are examples of cardiac glycosides?

A

digoxin and digitoxin

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258
Q

What are digoxin and digitoxin an example of?

A

cardiac glycosides

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259
Q

What do catecholamines do?

A

increase the force and rate of myocardial contraction, constrict peripheral blood vessels, and increase blood glucose levels

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260
Q

What are examples of catecholamines?

A

epinephrine, dopamine, dobutamine, isoproterenol

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261
Q

What is epinephrine, dopamine, dobutamine, isoproterenol examples of?

A

catecholamines

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262
Q

What do benzimidazole-pyridazinones do?

A

increase force of contraction and cause widening of blood vessels

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263
Q

What kind of positive inotrope increases force of contraction and cause widening of blood vessels?

A

benzimidazole-pyridazinones

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264
Q

What kind of positive inotrope increases the force and rate of myocardial contraction, constrict peripheral blood vessels, and increase blood glucose levels?

A

catecholamines

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265
Q

What kind of positive inotrope increases the strength of cardiac contractions, decrease heart rate, have an antiarrhythmic effect, and decrease signs of dyspnea?

A

cardiac glycosides

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266
Q

What are side effects of benzimidazole-pyridazinones?

A

anorexia, lethargy, diarrhea, dyspnea

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267
Q

What is an example of a benzimidazole-pyridazinone?

A

pimobendan (Vetmedin)

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268
Q

What are types of antiarrythmic drugs?

A

local anesthetics, membrane stabilizers, beta-adrenergic blockers, action potential prolongation drugs, calcium-channel blockers

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269
Q

What are Class 2 antiarrythmic drugs?

A

beta-blockers

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270
Q

What do vasodilators do?

A

dilate arteries and/or veins, which alleviates vessel constriction and improves cardiac output

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271
Q

What are examples of vasodilators?

A

angiotension-converticing enzyme inhibitors, arteriole dilators, venodilators, combined vasodilators

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272
Q

What does mastication mean?

A

chewing

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273
Q

What does deglutition mean?

A

swallowing

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274
Q

What are the three parts of the intestine in order?

A

duodenum, jejunum, ileum

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275
Q

How are most antiemetics given?

A

parenterally

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276
Q

What are some examples of types of antiemetics?

A

phenothiazine derivatives, antihistamines, anticholinergics, procainamide derivatives, serotonin receptor antagonists, neurokinin receptor antagonist

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277
Q

What do phenothiazine derivatives do?

A

inhibit dopamine in the chemoreceptor trigger zone, thus decreasing the stimulation to vomit

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278
Q

What are some indications to use phenothiazine derivatives?

A

motion sickness

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279
Q

What are examples of phenothiazine derivatives used as antiemetics?

A

acepromazine, chlorpromazine, prochlorperazine

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280
Q

What do procainamide derivatives do?

A

blocking the CRTZ and peripherally by speeding gastric emptying, strengthening cardiac sphincter tone, increasing the force of gastric contractions

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281
Q

What kind of animals should you not use procainamide derivatives in?

A

animals with GI obstructions, GI perforation, or GI hemorrhage

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282
Q

What is an example of procainamide derivatives used as an antiemetic?

A

metoclopramide (Reglan)

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283
Q

Metoclopramide (Reglan) is an example of what type of antiemetic?

A

procainamide derivatives

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284
Q

What are examples of antihistamines used as an antiemetic?

A

trimethobenzamide, dimenhydrinate, diphenhydramine (benadryl)

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285
Q

What is Cerenia?

A

maropitant citrate

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286
Q

What is maropitant citrate?

A

Cerenia

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287
Q

When is activated charcoal given?

A

if emesis is contraindicated

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288
Q

When should vomiting not be induced?

A

if caustic substances have been ingested

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289
Q

What are centrally acting emetics?

A

apomorphine (IV or mucosal) or xylazine (Cats)

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290
Q

What are peripherally acting emetics?

A

ipecac syrup, home remedies

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291
Q

What are categories of antiulcer drugs?

A

antacids, histamine-2 receptor antagonists, mucosal protective drugs, prostaglandin analogs, and proton pump inhibitors

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292
Q

What do antacids do?

A

promote ulcer healing by neutralizing HCl and reducing pepsin activity

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293
Q

How long should you wait before or after giving prostanglandins before giving other drugs?

A

1-2 hours

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294
Q

Antacids can be ____ or ____.

A

systemic, non-systemic

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295
Q

What are examples of systemic antacids?

A

sodium bicarbonate and calcium carbonate

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296
Q

What kind of antiulcer drugs are sodium bicarbonate and calcium carbonate an example of?

A

systemic antacids

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297
Q

What are examples of nonsystemic antacids?

A

magnesium hydroxide (milk of magnesia), aluminum/magnesium hydroxide, aluminum hydroxide

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298
Q

What kind of antiulcer drugs are magnesium hydroxide (milk of magnesia), aluminum/magnesium hydroxide, aluminum hydroxide examples of?

A

nonsystemic antacids

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299
Q

What do histamine-2 receptor antagonists do?

A

prevent acid reflux by competitively blocking the H2 receptors of the parietal cells in the stomach, thus reducing gastric acid

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300
Q

What are examples of histamine-2 receptor antagonists?

A

Cimetidine (Tagamet), Ranitidine (zantac), and Famotidine (Pepcid)

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301
Q

What kind of antiulcer drugs are Cimetidine (Tagamet), Ranitidine (zantac), and Famotidine (Pepcid) examples of?

A

histamine-2 receptor antagonists

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302
Q

What do mucosal protective drugs do?

A

combine with protein to form an adherent substance that covers the ulcer and protects it from stomach acid and pepsin

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303
Q

What is an example of a mucosal protective drug?

A

sucralfate

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304
Q

What kind of antiulcer drug is sucralfate?

A

mucosal protective drug

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305
Q

What do prostaglandin analogs do?

A

suppress gastric secretions and increase mucus production in the GI tract

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306
Q

What kind of antiulcer drug suppresses gastric secretions and increase mucus production in the GI tract?

A

prostaglandin analogs

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307
Q

What kind of antiulcer drug combines with protein to form an adherent substance that covers the ulcer and protects it from stomach acid and pepsin?

A

mucosal protective drug

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308
Q

What kind of antiulcer drug prevents acid reflux by competitively blocking the H2 receptors of the parietal cells in the stomach, thus reducing gastric acid?

A

histamine-2 receptor antagonists

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309
Q

What kind of antiulcer drug promotes ulcer healing by neutralizing HCl and reducing pepsin activity?

A

antacid

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310
Q

What kind of antiulcer drug is usually given to animals taking NSAIDs?

A

prostaglandin analogs

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311
Q

What is an example of prostaglandin analogs?

A

misoprostol

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312
Q

Misoprostol is an example of which antiulcer drug?

A

prostaglandin analogs

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313
Q

What do proton pump inhibitors do?

A

bind irreversibly to the H+-K+-ATPase enzyme on the surface of parietal cells of the stomach; this inhibits hydrogen ion transport into the stomach so that it cannot secrete HCl

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314
Q

What kind of antiulcer drug binds irreversibly to the H+-K+-ATPase enzyme on the surface of parietal cells of the stomach; this inhibits hydrogen ion transport into the stomach so that it cannot secrete HCl?

A

proton pump inhibitors

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315
Q

What are examples of proton pump inhibitors?

A

omeprazole (Prilosec) and lansoprazole

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316
Q

Omeprazole (Prilosec) and lansoprazole are examples of what kind of antiulcer drug?

A

proton pump inhibitors

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317
Q

What do antifoaming drugs do?

A

reduce or prevent the formation of foam

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318
Q

How are antifoaming drugs administered?

A

as solutions by stomach tube

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319
Q

What are examples of antifoaming drugs?

A

poloxalene and polymerized methyl silicone

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320
Q

Poloxalene and polymerized methyl silicone are examples of what?

A

antifoaming drugs

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321
Q

What do antidiarrheals do?

A

decrease peristalsis, which allows fluid absorption from the intestinal contents

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322
Q

What are examples of antidiarrheals?

A

anticholinergics, protectants/adsorbents, opiate-related agents, probiotics, metronidazole

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323
Q

What are anticholinergics used to treat when it comes to antidiarrheals?

A

tenemus and vomiting

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324
Q

What are side effects of anticholinergics when used for antidiarrheals?

A

dry mucous membranes, urine retention, tachycardia, constipation

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325
Q

What are examples of adsorbents used as an antidiarrheal?

A

bismuth subsalicylate, kaolin/pectin, activated charcoal

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326
Q

What are side effects of adsorbents?

A

constipation

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327
Q

How do opiate-related agents control diarrhea?

A

by decreasing both intestinal secretion and the flow of feces and increasing segmental contractions

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328
Q

What are examples of opiate-related agents control diarrhea?

A

loperamide, diphenoxylate, paregoric

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329
Q

What are side effects of opiate-related agents used as an antidiarrheal?

A

CNS depression, ileus, urine retention, bloat, and constipation

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330
Q

T or F. Probiotics must be refrigerated to maintain the viability of the bacteria.

A

True.

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331
Q

What is an antibiotic used to treat diarrhea?

A

metronidazole

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332
Q

What do laxatives do?

A

loosen the bowel contents and encourages evacuation of stool

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333
Q

What kind of laxatives are harsher laxatives?

A

cathartics

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334
Q

What are the four types of laxatives?

A

osmotic, stimulant, bulk-forming, emollient

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335
Q

What do osmotic laxatives do?

A

pull water into the colon and increase water content in the feces, thereby increasing bulk and stimulating peristalsis

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336
Q

What kind of laxative pulls water into the colon and increase water content in the feces, thereby increasing bulk and stimulating peristalsis?

A

osmotic

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337
Q

What are examples of osmotic laxatives?

A

lactulose, sodium phosphate w/ sodium biphosphate (fleet enema), magnesium sulfate (epsom salts), magnesium hydroxide (milk of magnesia)

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338
Q

Lactulose, sodium phosphate w/ sodium biphosphate (fleet enema), magnesium sulfate (epsom salts), magnesium hydroxide (milk of magnesia) are examples of what kind of laxative?

A

osmotic

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339
Q

What do bulk-forming laxatives do?

A

absorb water into the intestine, increase fecal bulk, and stimulate peristalsis, resulting in large, soft stool production

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340
Q

What kind of laxative absorbs water into the intestine, increase fecal bulk, and stimulate peristalsis, resulting in large, soft stool production?

A

bulk-forming

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341
Q

Are bulk-forming laxatives systemically absorbed?

A

no

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342
Q

What are examples of bulk-forming laxatives?

A

psyllium hydrophilic mucilloid (Metamucil), polycarbophin, bran

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343
Q

Psyllium hydrophilic mucilloid (Metamucil), polycarbophin, bran are examples of what kind of laxative?

A

bulk-forming

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344
Q

What are examples of emollients?

A

docusate sodium, docusate calcium, docusate potassium, mineral oil, and petroleum products (Laxatone)

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345
Q

Docusate sodium, docusate calcium, docusate potassium, mineral oil, and petroleum products (Laxatone) are examples of what kind of laxative?

A

emollient

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346
Q

What do prokinetic agents do?

A

increase the motility of parts of the GI tract to enhance movement of material through it

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347
Q

What are types of prokinetic agents?

A

parasympathomimetics, dopaminergic antagonists, serotonergic agents

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348
Q

What do serotonin antagonist antihistamines do?

A

promote appetite by inhibition at the serotoninergic receptors which control satiety

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349
Q

What are side effects of serotonin antagonist antihistamines?

A

sedation and dry mouth

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350
Q

What is an example of serotonin antagonist antihistamines?

A

cyproheptadine

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351
Q

Cyproheptadine is an exampe of what?

A

serotonin antagonist antihistamines

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352
Q

What do antisialogues do?

A

decrease salivary flow

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353
Q

What are the two categories that analgesics fall into?

A

narcotics and non-narcotics

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354
Q

What are the two main groups of anti-inflammatory drugs?

A

steroidal and non-steroidal

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355
Q

What do steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs do?

A

block the action of phospholipase

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356
Q

What group of anti-inflammatory drugs block the action of phospholipase?

A

steroidal

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357
Q

What group of anti-inflammatory drugs block the action of cyclooxygenase?

A

non-steroidal

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358
Q

What do non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs do?

A

block the action of cyclooxygenase

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359
Q

Corticosteroids are homones produced by what?

A

adrenal cortex

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360
Q

What do glucocorticoids have anti-inflammatory effects?

A

their inhibition of phospholipase

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361
Q

What do glucocorticoids do to inhibit phospholipase?

A

raise the concentration of liver glycogen and increase blood glucose levels

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362
Q

What do glucocorticoids affect?

A

carbohydrate, protein, fat metabolism

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363
Q

What are glucocorticoids regulated by?

A

negative feedback

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364
Q

What are examples of short-acting glucocorticoids?

A

cortisone and hydrocortisone

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365
Q

Cortison and hydrocortisone are examples of why kind of glucocorticoids?

A

short-acting

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366
Q

What are examples of intermediate-acting glucocorticoids?

A

prednisone, prednisolone, methylprednisolone, triamcinolone, prednisolone sodium succinate, methylprednisolone acetate

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367
Q

Prednisone, prednisolone, methylprednisolone, triamcinolone, prednisolone sodium succinate, methylprednisolone acetate were examples of what kind of glucocorticoids?

A

intermediate-acting

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368
Q

What are examples of long-acting glucocorticoids?

A

dexamethasone, betamethasone, fluocinolone

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369
Q

Dexamethasone, betamethasone, fluocinolone are examples of what kind of glucocorticoids?

A

long-acting

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370
Q

How long do short acting glucocorticoids last for?

A

less than 12 hours

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371
Q

How long do intermediate acting glucocorticoids last for?

A

12-36 hours

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372
Q

How long do long acting glucocorticoids last for?

A

over 36 hours

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373
Q

How may glucocorticoids be given?

A

orally, parenterally, topically

374
Q

What are benefits of using glucocorticoids?

A

reduce inflammation, relieve pruritis, reduce tissue damage, reduce scarring by delaying wound healing

375
Q

What are some drawbacks of glucocorticoid use?

A

delay wound healing, increase risk of infection, may cause GI ulceration and bleeding, increase the risk of corneal ulceration if corneal damage exists, may induce abortion in some species

376
Q

Why should you taper animals off glucocorticoids?

A

to prevent iatrogenic Addison’s disease

377
Q

What should be tapered off to prevent iatrogenic Addison’s disease?

A

glucocorticoids

378
Q

If an animal has a corneal ulcer, what should you not use?

A

glucocorticoids

379
Q

What is Cox-1 involved with?

A

stomach, platelet function

380
Q

What is Cox-2 involved with/

A

inflammation

381
Q

What are side effects of NSAIDs?

A

GI ulceration and bleeding, bone marrow suppression, LV & KD problems

382
Q

How do NSAIDs work?

A

inhibiting cyclooxygenase

383
Q

What is aspirin?

A

analgesic, antipyretic, anti-inflammatory, reducer of platelet aggregation

384
Q

What animal should aspirin be used with caution in?

A

cats

385
Q

What is another name for aspirin toxicity?

A

salicylate toxicity

386
Q

What is another name for salicylate toxicity?

A

aspirin toxicity

387
Q

What are signs of salicylate/aspirin toxicity?

A

GI problems, respiratory problems, neurological problems, bleeding problems, kidney failure

388
Q

What type of anti-inflammatory is pyrazolone derivatives?

A

NSAID

389
Q

What do pyrazolone derivatives do?

A

inhibit prostaglandin synthesis

390
Q

Pyrazolone derivatives are used for what?

A

musculoskeletal pain in horses

391
Q

What is flunixin meglumine?

A

banamine

392
Q

What is banamine?

A

flunixin meglumine

393
Q

What does Flunixin meglumine do?

A

inhibit cyclooxygenase

394
Q

What is flunixin meglumine used for?

A

cattle and horses for colic pain (not really musculoskeletal)

395
Q

What does diclofenac sodium do?

A

inhibit both COX-1 and COX-2

396
Q

Are side effects minimal in diclofenac sodium?

A

yes

397
Q

What is diclofenac sodium used for?

A

osteoarthritis for use in hock, knee, fetlock and pastern joints of horse

398
Q

What do propionic acid derivatives do?

A

block both cyclooxygenase and lipoxygenase

399
Q

What are examples of propionic acid derivatives?

A

ibuprofen, ketoprofen, carprofen, naproxen

400
Q

Ibuprofen, ketoprofen, carprofen, and naproxen are examples of what kind of NSAID?

A

propionic acid derivatives

401
Q

What do propionic acid derivatives do?

A

block both cyclooxygenase and lipoxygenase

402
Q

What kind of NSAID blocks both cyclooxygenase and lipoxygenase?

A

propionic acid derivatives

403
Q

What are side effects of propionic acid derivatives?

A

GI problems, renal dysfunction, possible liver toxicities

404
Q

What kind of pain are propionic acid derivatives used to treat?

A

musculoskeletal pain, post-op

405
Q

What do indol acetic acid derivatives do?

A

inhibit cyclooxygenase (more selective for COX-2)

406
Q

What type of NSAID inhibits cyclooxygenase (more selective for COX-2)?

A

indol acetic acid derivates

407
Q

What is an example of an indol acetic acid derivative?

A

etodolac

408
Q

Etodolac is an example of what kind of NSAID?

A

indol acetic acid derivative

409
Q

What do COX-2 inhibitors do?

A

inhibit cyclooxygenase-2 without interfering with the protective cyclooxygenase-1

410
Q

What type of NSAID inhibits cyclooxygenase-2 without interfering with the protective cyclooxygenase-1?

A

cox-2 inhibitors

411
Q

What are examples of cox-2 inhibitors?

A

deracoxib (Deramaxx), firocoxib (Previcox), meloxicam (Metacam)

412
Q

Deracoxib (Deramaxx), firocoxib (Previcox), meloxicam (Metacam) are examples of what kind of NSAID?

A

cox-2 inhibitors

413
Q

What are the 5 hallmarks of inflammation?

A

heat, redness, swelling, pain, loss of function

414
Q

What are side effects of cox-2 inhibitors?

A

anorexia, vomiting, lethargy, potentially KD and LV dysfunction

415
Q

What do dual-pathway NSAIDs do?

A

block arachidonic acid cycle (both cyclooxygenase and lipoxygenase pathways)

416
Q

What type of NSAID blocks arachidonic acid cycle (both cyclooxygenase and lipoxygenase pathways)?

A

dual-pathway NSAIDs

417
Q

What is an example of a dual-pathway NSAID?

A

tepoxalin (Zubrin)

418
Q

Tepoxalin is an example of what type of NSAID?

A

dual-pathway NSAID

419
Q

What kind of properties does piroxicam have?

A

anti-inflammatory, analgesic, antipyretic

420
Q

What is piroxicam used for?

A

an adjunct treatment of urinary bladder transitional cell carcinoma

421
Q

What NSAID is used as an adjunct treatment of urinary bladder transitional cell carcinoma?

A

Piroxicam

422
Q

What is some information about piroxicam?

A

has a very long half life, GI ulcers, may have teratogenic effects

423
Q

What is Buscopan used for?

A

as an antispasmodic, for colic in horses

424
Q

What is DMSO?

A

dimethyl sulfoxide

425
Q

What does DMSO do?

A

inactivates superoxide radicals produced by inflammation

426
Q

What does dimethyl sulfoxide do?

A

inactivates superoxide radicals produced by inflammation

427
Q

What is dimethyl sulfoxide able to do?

A

penetrate skin and serve as a carrier of other drugs

428
Q

What is DMSO able to do?

A

penetrate skin and serve as a carrier of other drugs

429
Q

What do glycosaminoglycans do?

A

form part of the extracellular matrix of cartilage

430
Q

Define parasitism.

A

relationship between two different organisms in which one of the organisms benefits while the other is harmed

431
Q

Do all parasites cause clinical signs in the animal?

A

no

432
Q

Define endoparasites.

A

parasites that live within the body of the host and cause internal parasite infections

433
Q

Define ectoparasites.

A

parasites that live on the body surface of the host and cause external parasite infestations

434
Q

How do benzimidazoles work?

A

by interfereing with energy metabolism of the worm

435
Q

What are examples of benzimidazoles?

A

fenbendazole, albendazole, mebendazole, oxibendazole, thiabendazole

436
Q

What are side effects of benzimidazoles?

A

while uncommon, they are vomiting and diarrhea

437
Q

Fenbendazole, albendazole, mebendazole, oxibendazole, thiabendazole are examples of what type of anti-parasitic?

A

Benzimidazoles

438
Q

What is the brand name of fenbendazole?

A

Panacur

439
Q

What are the types of antinematodals?

A

organophosphates, tetrahydropyrimidines, imidazothiazoles, piperazine, avermections and benzimidazoles

440
Q

What do organophosphates do?

A

inhibit cholinesterase activity, causing ACh to remain active in the neuromuscular junction of the parasite

441
Q

What kind of antinematodal inhibits cholinesterase activity, causing ACh to remain active in the neuromuscular junction of the parasite?

A

organophosphates

442
Q

Organophosphates are ____ to parasites.

A

neurotixic

443
Q

Is it possible for organophosphates to cause neurologic side effects in the host?

A

yes

444
Q

What kind of parasites does organophosphates work on?

A

endo and ecto parasites

445
Q

What kind of range of safety do organophosphates have?

A

narrow

446
Q

You should not use organophosphates in what kind of dogs?

A

heartworm-positive dogs

447
Q

What are examples of organophosphates?

A

dichlorvos and coumaphos

448
Q

Dichlorvos and coumaphos are examples of what type of antinematodal?

A

organophosphates

449
Q

What do Tetrahydropyrimidines do?

A

mimic the action of ACh and cause paralysis of the worm

450
Q

What kind of antinematodal mimics the action of ACh and cause paralysis of the worm?

A

tetrahydropyrimidines

451
Q

What are tetrahydropyrimidines effective against?

A

ascarids, pinworms, strongyles and hookworms

452
Q

What are examples of tetrahydropyrimidines?

A

pyrantel pamoate (Nemex/Strongid), pyrantel tartrate, morantel tartrate

453
Q

Pyrantel pamoate (Nemex/Strongid), pyrantel tartrate, morantel tartrate are examples of what kind of antinematodal?

A

tetrahydropyrimidines

454
Q

What are side effects of tetrahydropyrimidines? Are they common?

A

increased respiration, profuse sweating, incoordination. no.

455
Q

How do imidazothiazoles work?

A

by stimulating the nematode’s cholinergic nervous system, leading to paralysis of the parasite

456
Q

What are imidazothiazoles effective against?

A

ascarids, strongyles, whipworms, hookworms

457
Q

What is an example of an imidazothiazole?

A

levamisole

458
Q

Levamisole is an example of what kind of antinematodal?

A

imidazothiazole

459
Q

What is a side effect of imidazothiazoles?

A

transient foaming at the mouth

460
Q

What does piperazine do?

A

blocks neuromuscular transmission in the parasite

461
Q

What is piperazine effect against?

A

ascarids

462
Q

What do avermectins do?

A

bind to certain chloride channels in the parasite nerve and muscle cells, causing paralysis and death of the parasite

463
Q

What are examples of avermectins?

A

ivermection (Ivomec) and moxidectin (Quest)

464
Q

What are avermectins not effective against?

A

cestodes or trematodes

465
Q

What are some side effects of avermectins? Common?

A

mydriasis, ataxia, tremors, depression. No.

466
Q

What are the four types of heartworm prevention?

A

Ivermectin (heartgard), Milbemycin (interceptor, sentinel), Selamectin (revolution), Moxydectin (proheart)

467
Q

What is Ivermectin also known as?

A

heartgard

468
Q

What is milbemycin also known as?

A

interceptor, sentinel

469
Q

What is selamectin also known as?

A

revolution

470
Q

What is moxydectin also known as?

A

pro heart

471
Q

What is heartgard also known as?

A

ivermectin

472
Q

What is interceptor/sentinel also known as?

A

milbemycin

473
Q

What is revolution also known as?

A

selamectin

474
Q

What is pro heart also known as?

A

moxydectin

475
Q

What is sulfadimethoxine also known as?

A

albon

476
Q

What is albon also known as?

A

sulfadimethoxine

477
Q

What do penicillins have?

A

a beta-lactam structure that interferes with bacterial cell wall synthesis

478
Q

What does penicillin’s spectrum of activity depend on?

A

the type of penicillin

479
Q

Which two penicillins are narrow-spectrum gram positive antibiotics?

A

Penicillin G and Penicillin V

480
Q

How is Penicillin G given?

A

parenterally

481
Q

How is Penicillin V given?

A

orally

482
Q

What are examples of broader-spectrum penicillins?

A

amoxicillin, ampicillin, methicillin, carbenicillin, ticarcillin

483
Q

What are potentiated penicillins?

A

penicillins that are chemically cobined with another drug to ehance the effects of both

484
Q

What is an example of a potentiated penicillin? What does it do?

A

amoxicillin + clavulanic acid. it binds to beta-lactamase to prevent the beta-lactam ring from being destroyed.

485
Q

What are cephalosporins?

A

semi-synthetic, broad spectrum antibiotics that are structurally related to the penicillins

486
Q

Do cephalosporins have a beta-lactam ring?

A

yes

487
Q

What are examples of cephalosporins?

A

cefadroxil (cefa-drops), cephalexin (keflex), ceftiofur (naxcel), cefpodoxime (simplicef)

488
Q

With cephalosporins, as the number of the generation increases, the spectrum of activity ____.

A

broadens

489
Q

What do tetracyclines do?

A

interfere with the production of protein in bacterial cells

490
Q

What are side effects of tetracyclines?

A

nephrotoxicity, and ototoxicity

491
Q

What are examples of tetracyclines?

A

tetracycline, oxytetracycline, doxycycline, minocycline, chlortetracycline

492
Q

What does bacitracin do?

A

disrupts the bacterial cell wall and is effective against gram-positive bacteria

493
Q

How is bacitracin used?

A

topically or as a feed additive

494
Q

How does polymyxin B work?

A

by attacking the cell membrane of bacteria

495
Q

What do aminoglycosides do?

A

interfere with the production of protein in bacterial cells

496
Q

Do aminoglycosides work on gram pos or gram neg bacteria?

A

gram neg

497
Q

Why are aminoglycosides given parenterally?

A

not absorbed well from the GI tract

498
Q

What are side effects of aminoglycosides?

A

nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity

499
Q

What are examples of aminoglycosides?

A

gentamicin, neomycin, amikacin, tobramycin, and dihydrostreptomycin

500
Q

What are fluoroquinolones?

A

antibiotics with fluorine bound to the quinolone base, which increases the drog’s potency, spectrum of activity, and absorption

501
Q

What are side effects of fluoroquinolones?

A

development of bubble-like cartilage lesions in growing dogs, crystalluria

502
Q

What are examples of fluroquinolones?

A

enrofloxacin (Baytril), ciprofloxacin, orbifloxacin, difloxacin, marbofloxacin, sarafloxacin

503
Q

What does chloramphenicol do?

A

interferes with the production of protein in bacterial cells

504
Q

What is chloramphenicol?

A

a broad-spectrum antibiotic that penetrates tissues and fluids well (including the eyes and CNS)

505
Q

Which antibiotic should you use caution when handling?

A

chloramphenicol

506
Q

Which antibiotic has toxic side effects (bone marrow depression) that extremely limits its use?

A

chloramphenicol

507
Q

Can you use chloramphenicol in food animals?

A

no

508
Q

What does florfenicol do?

A

interferes with the production of protein in bacterial cells

509
Q

What is florfenicol?

A

a synthetic, broad-spectrum antibiotic

510
Q

What are side effects of florfenicol?

A

local tissue reaction (possible loss of tissue at slaughter), inappetence, decreased water consumption, diarrhea

511
Q

What do macrolides do?

A

interfere with the production of protein in bacterial cells

512
Q

What are macrolides?

A

braod-spectrum antibiotics that have a large molecular structure

513
Q

What are macrolides used to treat?

A

penicillin-resistant infections or in anials that have allergic reactions to penicillins

514
Q

What are examples of macrolides?

A

erythromycin, tylosin, tilmicosin

515
Q

Erythromycin, tylosin, tilmicosin are examples of what kinds of antibiotics?

A

macrolides

516
Q

What do lincosamides do?

A

interfere with the production of protein in bacterial cells

517
Q

What are lincosamides?

A

narrow-spectrum, gram-positive antibiotics

518
Q

What are side effects of lincosamides?

A

GI problems

519
Q

What are examples of lincosamides?

A

clindamycin, pirlimycin, lincosamide

520
Q

Clindamycin, pirlimycin, lincosamide are examples of what kind of antibiotic?

A

lincosamides

521
Q

What are nitrofurans?

A

broad-spectrum antibiotics

522
Q

What are nitrofurans used to treat?

A

treat wounds and urinary tract infections

523
Q

What are examples of nitrofurans?

A

furazolidone, nitrofurazone, nitrofurantoin

524
Q

Furazolidone, nitrofurazone, nitrofurantoin are examples of what kind of anibiotic?

A

nitrofurans

525
Q

How do nitroimiazoles work?

A

by disrupting DNA and nucleic acid synthesis

526
Q

What is an example of a nitroimiazole?

A

metronidazole

527
Q

Nitroimiazoles have what kind of activity?

A

antibacterial and antiprotozoal

528
Q

What does rifampin do?