Pharmacology Flashcards
(930 cards)
1
Q
What are the 5 barriers to drug distribution?
A
drug’s chemical properties, tissue blood flow, protein binding, tissue binding, anatomic barriers
2
Q
What are examples of anatomic barriers?
A
blood-brain barrier, epidural barrier, blood-testis barrier
3
Q
What is the definition of the therapeutic range of a drug?
A
the drug concentration in the body that produces the desired effect in the animal with minimal or no signs or toxicity
4
Q
What is the drug concentration in the body that produces the desired effect in the animal with minimal or no signs or toxicity?
A
therapeutic range of a drug
5
Q
What are the 3 major drug factors that keep drugs in their therapeutic range?
A
route of administration, drug dose, dosage interval
6
Q
How do you find the therapeutic range?
A
LD50/ED50
7
Q
What is LD50/ED50 used to find?
A
a drug’s therapeutic range
8
Q
The larger the therapeutic range the ___ the drug
A
safer
9
Q
What is LD50?
A
lethal dose
10
Q
What is ED50?
A
effective dose
11
Q
What are the most common diseases that impact drug pharmacokinetics?
A
liver disease, kidney disease, cardiovascular disease
12
Q
How does cardiovascular disease effect pharmacokinetics?
A
alters the distribution of blood flow to tissues
13
Q
How does kidney diseases effect drugs?
A
decreased drug elimination, increases plasma drug concentrations, risk of adverse drug reactions or toxicity, increased fluid retention.
14
Q
What is the primary site of drug metabolism?
A
the liver
15
Q
The liver is the primary site of what?
A
drug metabolism
16
Q
What has the most significant impact on drug disposition?
A
reduced kidney function
17
Q
Reduced kidney function has what kind of impact on drug disposition?
A
the most significant
18
Q
What kind of adverse drug reaction are predictable?
A
dose-dependent drug reactions
19
Q
What kind of adverse drug reaction are unpredictable?
A
idiosyncratic drug reactions
20
Q
What kind of adverse drug reaction affects all members of a species?
A
dose-dependent drug reaction
21
Q
What kind of adverse drug reaction affects only a small portion of treated animals?
A
idiosyncratic drug reaction
22
Q
What kind of adverse drug reaction has a likelihood of reaction increasing as the dose increases?
A
dose-dependent drug reaction
23
Q
What kind of adverse drug reaction has a risk of reaction that increases with the dose?
A
idiosyncratic drug reaction
24
Q
How do you treat idiosyncratic drug reactions?
A
drug withdrawal and drug avoidance
25
How do you treat dose-dependent drug reactions?
dose reduction and brief drug withdrawal
26
Do idiosyncratic drug reactions occur immediately?
no
27
What is therapeutic drug monitoring?
periodic measurement of amount of drug in the blood
28
When is therapeutic drug monitoring recommended?
pharmacokinetics of drug varies significantly among individuals, drug has narrow therapeutic range
29
What is the goal of therapeutic drug monitoring?
to optimize drug plasma concentrations to maximize efficacy and minimize toxicity
30
What is optimizing drug plasma concentrations to maximize efficacy and minimize toxicity a goal of?
therapeutic drug monitoring
31
T or F. Glucocorticoids are eliminated from the body quickly.
False. They're eliminated from the body very slowly.
32
What does the federal government do?
assure available drugs are safe, effective, and prepared in accordance with manufacturing standards
33
What does the state laws do?
control the distribution of drugs within the state
34
What does the FDA's Center for Veterinary Medicine (CVM) do?
regulates manufacturing and distribution of drugs, food additives and medical devices. Oversees regulations including approval, safety, efficacy, and postapproval monitoring
35
Who regulates drug residues in food animals?
FDA and EPA
36
What does EPA stand for?
Environmental Protection Agency
37
Drug compounding is limited to what kind of drugs?
FDA-approved drugs only
38
What are the uses of compounding drugs?
creating discontinued drugs, creating dosages and strength specific to an animal's weight and health, creating alternative dose forms such a liquids/ointments/tablets, adding flavoring, customizing formula that combine multiple drugs
39
What are some concerns of compounding drugs?
might turn an FDA approved drug into an unapproved drug, made without FDA oversight, may not be sterile and cause infections, errors may result in disease or death
40
What does FARAD stand for?
Food Animal Residue Avoidance Bank
41
What is the abbreviation for Food Animal Residue Avoidance Bank?
FARAD
42
What is FARAD?
a computer-based system designed to provide information on how to avoid drug, pesticide, and environmental contaminant residue problems
43
Which agency provides a list of drugs prohibited for use in livestock?
FARAD
44
How long should records of controlled substances be kept?
2 years
45
What are the four major steps in drug development?
synthesis/discovery of a new drug compound, safety/effectiveness evaluation, submission and review of the new animal drug application, postmarketing surveillance stage
46
What are short term tests used for when looking at safety and effectiveness evaluation?
to check the animal for obvious adverse reactions
47
What are long term tests used for when looking at safety and effectiveness evaluation?
check the animal's various organ systems for toxicity damage
48
How long are long term tests ran for when looking at safety and effectiveness evaluation
3-24 months of repeated dosing
49
How long are long term tests done for when looking at safety and effectiveness evaluation
hours following a test dose
50
What do carcinogenicity tests look at in terms of safety and effectiveness evaluation?
cancer causing
51
What do teratogenicity tests look at in terms of safety and effectiveness evaluation?
fetal defects in pregnant animals
52
What are 6 rights of drug administration?
the right drug, the right dose, the right time, the right route, the right patient, the right documentation
53
How many times should you check the label on a container?
three times
54
Should you ever give a medication from a container that is unlabeled?
no
55
Why are daily drug doses given at specific times during the day?
to keep plasma levels at the proper level to cause the desired effect
56
What should be included in the documentation when you administer drugs?
the drug, dosage administered, time and date administered, the route and site, patient's response, signature or initials
57
What are factors that affect the route of drug administration?
drug may have on effect when given parenterally and another nonparenterally, water-insoluble drugs can be given IM but not IV, some drugs are destroyed or modified by stomach acid and cannot be given orally
58
Why should air bubbles be removed from drugs being administered IV?
to avoid causing air emboli and tissue damage
59
Are drugs administered IM volume limited?
yes
60
What does the sympathetic (adrenergic) nervous system do to the body?
increases heart rate, increases respiration rate, increases blood flow to muscles, decreases GI function, causes pupillary dilation
61
What does the parasympathetic (cholinergic) nervous system do to the body?
brings heart rate/respiration rate/and blood flow to muscles back to normal levels, returns GI function to normal, constricts pupils to normal size
62
What do cholinergic drugs do?
mimic the action of the parasympathetic nervous system
63
Examples of cholinergic drugs?
bethanechol, metoclopramide, pilocarpine, edrophonium, neostigmine, demecarium, organophosphates
64
What do anticholinergic drugs do?
inhibit the actions of acetylcholine by occupying the acetylcholine receptors
65
Examples of anticholinergic drugs?
atropine, glycopyrrolate, aminopentamide, propantheline
66
What do adrenergic drugs do?
stimulate the action of the sympathetic nervous system
67
What are side effects of adrenergic drugs?
tachycardia, hypertension, cardiac arrhythmias
68
Examples of adrenergic drugs?
epinephrine, norepinephrine, isoproterenol, dopamine, dobutamine, phenylpropanolamine, isoetharine, albuterol, terbutaline, ephedrine, xylazine
69
What do adrenergic blocking agents do?
block the effects of the adrenergic neurotransmitters
70
What are examples of alpha-blockers?
phenoxybenzamine, prazosin, yohimbine
71
What are examples of beta-blockers?
propranolol, metoprolol, timolol
72
What are dendrites?
branch-like extensions that receive impulses and carry them toward the cell body
73
What do you call branch-like extensions that receive impulses and carry them toward the cell body?
dendrites
74
What is an axon?
single extension of the neuron that carries impulses away from the cell body
75
What do you call a single extension of the neuron that carries impulses away from the cell body?
axon
76
What do sensory neurons do?
carry impulses from inside and outside the body to brain and spinal cord
77
What do interneurons do?
process incoming impulses and pass them on to motor neurons
78
What do motor neurons do?
carry impulses away from the brain and spinal cord
79
How do anticonvulsants help prevent seizures?
by suppressing the spread of abnormal electric impulses from the seizure focus to other areas of the cerebral cortex
80
Examples of barbituates used as an anticonvulsant.
phenobarbital, pentobarbital
81
What do benzodiazepines do when used as an anticonvulsant?
potentiate effects of GABA, cause muscle relaxtion, relieve anxiety
82
Examples of benzodiazepines used as an anticonvulsant.
diazepam, lorazepam, clorazepate
83
What is Flumazenil?
benzodiazepine reversal agent
84
What is a benzodiazepine reversal agent?
Flumazenil
85
What are side effects of gabapentin?
sedation, ataxia, potential for hepatotoxicity
86
How does Gabapentin work?
inhibiting calcium channels resulting in decreased excitatory neurotransmission
87
What do tranquilizers do?
calm animals, reduce anxiety and aggression
88
What do sedatives do?
quiet excited animals, decrease irritability and excitement
89
What is an example of a phenothiazine derivatives?
acepromazine
90
What does acepromazine do?
causes sedation, relieves fear and anxiety
91
What do phenothiazine derivatives do when used as a calming agent?
causes sedation, relieves fear and anxiety
92
What are side effects of phenothiazine derivatives when used as a calming agent?
hypotension, lower seizure threshold, protrusion of nictitating membrane, paraphimosis
93
What are side effects of acepromazine when used as a calming agent?
hypotension, lower seizure threshold, protrusion of nictitating membrane, paraphimosis
94
What are examples of benzodiazepines used as a calming agent?
midazolam, diazepam
95
What are benzodiazepines used for when used as a calming agent?
anti-anxiety, produce muscle relaxation, reduce anxiousness
96
What are examples of alpha-2 agonists used as a calming agent?
xylazine, detomidine, medetomidine
97
What are side effects when using alpha-2 agonists as a calming agent?
bradycardia and heart block
98
What reversal agents are available for alpha-2 agonists? calming agent
yohimbine and atipamezole
99
What are side effects of opioids?
respiratory depression and excitement if given rapidly
100
What are the three opioid receptors? Where are they found/
```
Mu = found in the brain
Kappa = found in the cerebral cortex and spinal cord
Sigma = found in the brain
```
101
What do opioid antagonists do?
block the binding of opioids to their receptors
102
What are opioid receptors used for?
to treat respiratory and CNS depression of opioid use
103
What is an example of an opioid antagonists?
naloxone
104
What is naloxone used for?
to reverse respiratory depression following narcotic overdose
105
What is a neuroleptanalgesic?
combination of an opioid and a tranquilizer or sedative
106
What are examples of neuroleptanalgesics?
acepromazine + morphine, xylazine + butorphanol
107
What do local anesthetics do?
block nerve transmission in the area of application with no loss of consciousness
108
What are examples of local anesthetics?
lidocaine, proparacaine, tetracaine, mepivacaine, bupivacaine
109
What are side effects of barbituates used as an injectable general anesthetic?
potent cardiovascular and respiratory depression
110
What are side effects of dissociatives used as an injectable general anesthetic?
cardiac stimulation, respiratory depression, exaggerated reflexes
111
What do dissociatives cause when used as an injectable general anesthetic?
muscle rigidity, amnesia, mild analgesia
112
What can halothane cause?
hepatic problems, malignant hyperthermia, cardiac problems, tachypnea
113
When is halothane contraindicated?
gastric dilation, pneumothorax, twisted intestines
114
What are side effects of isoflurane?
respiratory depression and malignant hyperthermia
115
What does Doxapram do?
stimulates brainstem to increase respiration in animals with apnea or bradypnea
116
When is Doxapram commonly used?
when animals have C-sections
117
What do euthanasia solutions usually contain?
pentobarbital
118
When is euthanasia solution a C-2 controlled substance?
when pentobarbital is the only narcotic agent present
119
When is euthanasia solution a C-3 controlled substance?
when pentobarbital is in combination with other agents
120
When pentobarbital is the only narcotic agent present, what class of a controlled substance is a euthanasia solution?
class 2
121
When pentobarbital is in combination with other agents, what class of a controlled substance is a euthanasia solution?
class 3
122
What is an example of an expectorant?
guaifenesin
123
What is guaifenesin?
an expectorant
124
What do expectorants do?
increase the fluidity of mucus, increase the flow of respiratory secretions to allow material to be coughed up from the lungs
125
What do mucolytics do?
decrease the viscosity or thickness of respiratory secretions
126
What is acetylcysteine an example of?
mucolytic
127
What is an example of a mucolytic?
acetylcysteine
128
What is acetylcysteine also used to treat?
acetaminophen toxicity
129
What is used to treat acetaminophen toxicity?
acetylcysteine
130
What may be centrally acting or locally acting?
antitussives
131
What do antitussives do?
suppress coughs
132
What respiratory drug suppresses cough?
antitussives
133
Antitussives may be ___ acting or ___ acting.
centrally, locally
134
What are examples of centrally acting antitussives?
butorphanol, hydrocodone, codeine, dextromethorphan, trimeprazine
135
What is butorphanol, hydrocodone, codeine, dextromethorphan, trimeprazine an example of?
centrally acting antitussives
136
What are examples of locally acting antitussives?
cough syrups
137
Are locally acting antitussives common in veterinary medicine?
no
138
What type of respiratory drug decreases the viscosity or thickness of respiratory secretions?
mucolytics
139
What type of respiratory drug increases the fluidity of mucus and increases the flow of respiratory secretions to allow material to be coughed up from the lungs?
expectorants
140
What do decongestants do?
decrease the congestion of nasal passages by reducing swelling
141
What respiratory drug decreases the congestion of nasal passages by reducing swelling?
decongestants
142
What are examples of decongestants?
phenylephrine and pseudophedrine
143
What are phenylephrine and pseudophedrine and example of?
decongestant
144
What do antihistamines do?
block the effects of histamine
145
What respiratory drug blocks the effects of histamine?
antihistamines
146
What are side effects of antihistamines?
CNS depression and anticholinergic effects such as dry mouth
147
What do bronchodilators do?
widen the lumen of the bronchi and counteract bronchoconstriction
148
What respiratory drugs widen the lumen of the bronchi and counteract bronchoconstriction?
bronchodilators
149
What are examples of bronchodilators?
cholinergic blocking agents (aminopentamide, atropine, glycopyrrolate)
beta-2-adrenergic agonists (epinephrine, isoproterenol, terbutaline, albuterol)
methylxanthines (aminophylline, theophylline)
150
What are examples of respiratory stimulants?
naloxone and yohimbine
151
What are 4 examples of asthma drugs?
glucocorticoids, bronchodilators, methylxanthines, cyclosporin
152
Glucocorticoids are orally used to treat ___ asthma.
feline
153
What is orally used to treat feline asthma?
glucocorticoids
154
There are ___ side effects with inhaled glucocorticoids than with ___ ones
inhaled, oral
155
What are inhaled glucocorticoids used for?
to decrease swollen and narrowed airways by decreasing inflammation
156
What asthma drug is used to decrease swollen and narrowed airways by decreasing inflammation?
inhaled glucocorticoids
157
What is used in addition to glucocorticoids in the treatment of feline asthma?
bronchodilators
158
What side effects of bronchodilators when used as an asthma drug?
tracheal or bronchial irritation
159
Which asthma drug has a narrow therapeutic index?
methylxanthines
160
What is a cyclosporin when speaking about asthma drugs?
a fungal derived protein useful in the allergic response in feline asthma
161
Which asthma drug is a fungal derived protein useful in the allergic response in feline asthma?
cyclosporin
162
What are side effects of cyclosporin?
nephrotoxicity and vomiting
163
What are some good management practices to help horses with COPD?
keeping horses outside as much as possible, reducing dust, storing hay in a dry place, improving ventilation in horse stables
164
How do glucocorticoids help COPD?
help decrease smooth muscle contraction, suppress inflammation, and reduce mucus production
165
What COPD drugs help decrease smooth muscle contraction, suppress inflammation, and reduce mucus production?
glucocorticoids
166
What does the urinary system do?
filter waste from blood, help control system pH, help produce blood, help control blood volume, help control blood pressure, help control system ion concentrations
167
What kinds of drugs affect the urinary system?
antihypertensive, diuretics
168
What do antihypertensive drugs do?
decrease hypertension (lower blood pressure)
169
What kind of drugs decrease hypertension (lower blood pressure)?
antihypertensive drugs
170
What are 4 types of antihypertensive drugs that affect the urinary system?
diuretics, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACE inhibitors), calcium-channel blockers, direct-acting arteriole vasodilators
171
What do diuretics do?
promote sodium and water loss
172
What do ACE inhibitors do?
block the conversion of angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2, which results in decreased aldosterone secretion
173
What are examples of ACE inhibitors that affect the urinary system?
enalapril, captopril, lisinopril, benazepril
174
What drugs block the converson of angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2?
ACE inhibitors
175
What do calcium-channel blockers do?
block the influx of calcium ions into the myocardial cells, resulting in an inhibition of cardiac and smooth muscle contractility
176
What kind of drug blocks the influx of calcium ions into the myocardial cells, resulting in an inhibition of cardiac and smooth muscle contractility?
calcium-channel blockers
177
What are examples of calcium-channel blockers that affect the urinary system?
amlodipine, verapamil, nifedipine, diltiazem
178
What do direct-acting arteriole vasodilators do?
relax smooth muscles of blood vessels causing vasodil
179
What kind of drug relaxes smooth muscles of blood vessels causing vasodil?
direct-acting arteriole vasodilators
180
What are examples of direct-acting arteriole vasodilators?
hydralazine and minoxidil
181
What are examples of alpha-adrenergic antagonists that affect the urinary system?
phenoxybenzamine, prazosin, nicergoline
182
What do diuretics do?
increase the volume of urine excreted by the kidneys and promote release of water from tissues, lower the fluid volume in tissues
183
What are the 5 types of diuretics?
thiazides, loop diuretics, potassium-sparing diuretics, carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, osmotics
184
What do thiazide diuretics do?
act directly on the renal tubules to block sodium reabsorption and promote chloride ion excretion
185
What type of diuretic acts directly on the renal tubules to block sodium reabsorption and promote chloride ion excretion?
thiazides
186
What are side effects of thiazide diuretics?
hypokalemia and cardiac dysfunction
187
What are examples of thiazide diuretics?
hydrochlorothiazide, chlorothiazide, hydroflumethiazide, bendroflumethiazide
188
Hydrochlorothiazide, chlorothiazide, hydroflumethiazide, bendroflumethiazide are examples of what?
thiazide diuretics
189
What do loop diuretics do?
influence the reabsorption action at the loop of Henle, resulting in tremendous diuresis
190
What type of diuretic influences the reabsorption action at the loop of Henle, resulting in tremendous diuresis?
loop diuretics
191
What are side effects of loop diuretics?
electrolyte imbalances (especially hypokalemia)
192
What is an example of a loop diuretic?
furosemide
193
What is furosemide an example of?
loop diuretic
194
What do potassium-sparing diuretics do?
act on the distal convulated tubules to promote sodium and water excretion and potassium retention
195
What type of diuretic acts on the distal convulated tubules to promote sodium and water excretion and potassium retention?
potassium-sparing diuretics
196
What is the main side effect of potassium-sparing diuretics?
hyperkalemia
197
What are examples of potassium-sparing diuretics?
spironolactone, triamterene, amiloride
198
Spironolactone, triamterene, amiloride are examples of what?
potassium-sparing diuretics
199
What do carbonic anhydrase inhibitors do?
block the action of the enzyme carbonic anhydrase, which is used by the body to maintain acid-base balance
200
Which diuretic blocks the action of the enzyme carbonic anhydrase, which is used by the body to maintain acid-base balance?
carbonic anhydrase inhibtors
201
What are carbonic anhydrase inhibitors used for?
decrease intraocular pressure with open-angle glaucoma
202
What diuretic is used to decrease intraoclar pressure with open-angle glaucoma.
carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
203
What is the main side effects of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors?
metabolic acidosis
204
What are examples of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors?
acetazolamide and dichlorphenamide
205
What do osmotic diuretics do?
increase the osmolality (concentration) of the urine filtrate in the renal tubules, resulting in the excretion of chloride, potassium, and water
206
What kind of diuretics increase the osmolality (concentration) of the urine filtrate in the renal tubules, resulting in the excretion of chloride, potassium, and water?
osmotic diuretics
207
What are osmotic diuretics used for?
to prevent kidney failure and to decrease intracranial and intraocular pressure
208
What kind of diuretics are used to prevent kidney failure and to decrease intracranial and intraocular pressure?
osmotic diuretics
209
What are side effects of osmotic diuretics?
fluid/electrolyte imbalance and vomiting
210
What are examples of osmotic diuretics?
mannitol and glycerin
211
What are uroliths?
abnormal mineral masses in the urinary system
212
What are abnormal mineral masses in the urinary system called?
urolith
213
What are the drug categories used to treat uroliths?
urinary acidifiers, urinary alkalinizers, xanthine oxidase inhibitors
214
What are urinary acidifiers used for?
to produce acid urine, which dissolves and helps prevent formation of struvite uroliths
215
What is used to produce acid urine, which dissolves and helps prevent formation of struvite uroliths?
urinary acidifiers
216
What are examples of urinary acidifiers?
methionine and ammonium chloride
217
What is methionine and ammonium chloride examples of?
urinary acidifers
218
What are urinary alkalinizers used for?
to treat calcium oxalate, cystine, and ammonium urate uroliths
219
What is used to to treat calcium oxalate, cystine, and ammonium urate uroliths?
urinary alkalinizers
220
What is an example of a urinary alkalinizer?
potassium citrate
221
What do xanthine oxidase inhibitors do?
decrease the production of uric acid, which helps decrease the formation of ammonium urate uroliths
222
What is used to decrease the production of uric acid, which helps decrease the formation of ammonium urate uroliths?
xanthine oxidase inhibitors
223
What are two things that may cause urinary incontinence?
neurologic disorders and non-neurologic disorders
224
What is urinary incontinence caused by neurologic disorders result from?
trauma to the spinal cord, tumors of the nervous system, or degeneration of the nervous system tracts
225
What is urinary incontinence caused by non-neurologic disorders result from?
hormone-responsive, stress, urge, ectopic ureter formation, or urinary bladder over-distention
226
What are the two types of drugs used to treat neurologically caused incontinence?
cholinergic agonists and anticholinergics
227
What do cholinergic agonists treat animals with neurologically caused urinary incontinence?
urinary retention, promote voiding of urine from the urinary bladder (relaxation of the urinary bladder)
228
What do anticholinergic treat animals with neurologically caused urinary incontinence?
block binding of ACh to its receptor site, causing muscle relaxation (promote urine retention)
229
What is an example of a cholinergic agonist used to treat neurologically caused urinary incontinence?
bethanechol
230
What are examples of a anticholinergic used to treat neurologically caused urinary incontinence?
propantheline, dicyclomine, butylhyoscine
231
How do alpha-adrenergic antagonists help treat neurologically caused urinary incontinence?
decrease the tone of internal urethral sphincters and are used to treat over-distention of the bladder (treat urinary retention)
232
What are examples of alpha-adrenergic antagonists used to treat neurologically caused urinary incontinence?
phenoxybenzamine, prazosin, nicergoline
233
What are used to treat non-neurologically caused urinary incontinence?
hormones (estrogen and testosterone)
234
What is an example of estrogen used to treat non-neurologically caused urinary incontinence?
diethylstilbestrol
235
What are examples of testosterone used to treat non-neurologically caused urinary incontinence?
testosterone cypionate and testosterone propionate
236
What are four purposes of the cardiovascular system?
distribute metabolites and O2, collect wastes and CO2, thermoregulation, hormone distribution
237
What is systole?
contraction of heart chambers
238
What is diastole?
relaxation of heart chambers
239
What are types of cardiovascular drugs?
positive inotropic drugs, negative inotropic drugs, positive chronotropic drugs, negative chronotropic drugs, positive dromotropic drugs, negative dromotropic drugs
240
What do positive inotropic drugs do?
increase the force of myocardial contraction
241
What type of cardiovascular drug increases the force of myocardial contraction?
positive inotropic drugs
242
What do negative inotropic drugs do?
decrease the force of myocardial contraction
243
What type of cardiovascular drug decreases the force of myocardial contraction?
negative inotropic drugs
244
What do positive chronotropic drugs do?
increase heart rate by altering the rate of impulse formation at the SA node
245
What type of cardiovascular drug increases heart rate by altering the rate of impulse formation at the SA node?
positive chronotropic drugs
246
What do negative chronotropic drugs do?
decrease heart rate by altering the rate of impulse formation at the SA node
247
What type of cardiovascular drug decreases heart rate by altering the rate of impulse formation at the SA node?
negative chronotropic drugs
248
What do positive dromotropic drugs do?
increase the conduction of electrical impulses
249
What type of cardiovascular drug increases the conduction of electrical impulses?
positive dromotropic drugs
250
What do negative dromotropic drugs do?
decreases the conduction of electrical impulses
251
What type of cardiovascular drug decreases the conduction of electrical impulses?
negative dromotropic drugs
252
What are examples of positive inotropes?
cardiac glycosides, catecholamines, benzimidazole-pyridazinones
253
What are cardiac glycosides, catecholamines, benzimidazole-pyridazinones an example of?
positive inotropes
254
What do cardiac glycosides do?
increase the strength of cardiac contractions, decrease heart rate, have an antiarrhythmic effect, and decrease signs of dyspnea
255
What are cardiac glycosides used to treat?
CHF, atrial fibrillation, supraventricular
256
What are side effects of cardiac glycosides?
anorexia, vomiting, diarrhea, cardiac arrhythmias
257
What are examples of cardiac glycosides?
digoxin and digitoxin
258
What are digoxin and digitoxin an example of?
cardiac glycosides
259
What do catecholamines do?
increase the force and rate of myocardial contraction, constrict peripheral blood vessels, and increase blood glucose levels
260
What are examples of catecholamines?
epinephrine, dopamine, dobutamine, isoproterenol
261
What is epinephrine, dopamine, dobutamine, isoproterenol examples of?
catecholamines
262
What do benzimidazole-pyridazinones do?
increase force of contraction and cause widening of blood vessels
263
What kind of positive inotrope increases force of contraction and cause widening of blood vessels?
benzimidazole-pyridazinones
264
What kind of positive inotrope increases the force and rate of myocardial contraction, constrict peripheral blood vessels, and increase blood glucose levels?
catecholamines
265
What kind of positive inotrope increases the strength of cardiac contractions, decrease heart rate, have an antiarrhythmic effect, and decrease signs of dyspnea?
cardiac glycosides
266
What are side effects of benzimidazole-pyridazinones?
anorexia, lethargy, diarrhea, dyspnea
267
What is an example of a benzimidazole-pyridazinone?
pimobendan (Vetmedin)
268
What are types of antiarrythmic drugs?
local anesthetics, membrane stabilizers, beta-adrenergic blockers, action potential prolongation drugs, calcium-channel blockers
269
What are Class 2 antiarrythmic drugs?
beta-blockers
270
What do vasodilators do?
dilate arteries and/or veins, which alleviates vessel constriction and improves cardiac output
271
What are examples of vasodilators?
angiotension-converticing enzyme inhibitors, arteriole dilators, venodilators, combined vasodilators
272
What does mastication mean?
chewing
273
What does deglutition mean?
swallowing
274
What are the three parts of the intestine in order?
duodenum, jejunum, ileum
275
How are most antiemetics given?
parenterally
276
What are some examples of types of antiemetics?
phenothiazine derivatives, antihistamines, anticholinergics, procainamide derivatives, serotonin receptor antagonists, neurokinin receptor antagonist
277
What do phenothiazine derivatives do?
inhibit dopamine in the chemoreceptor trigger zone, thus decreasing the stimulation to vomit
278
What are some indications to use phenothiazine derivatives?
motion sickness
279
What are examples of phenothiazine derivatives used as antiemetics?
acepromazine, chlorpromazine, prochlorperazine
280
What do procainamide derivatives do?
blocking the CRTZ and peripherally by speeding gastric emptying, strengthening cardiac sphincter tone, increasing the force of gastric contractions
281
What kind of animals should you not use procainamide derivatives in?
animals with GI obstructions, GI perforation, or GI hemorrhage
282
What is an example of procainamide derivatives used as an antiemetic?
metoclopramide (Reglan)
283
Metoclopramide (Reglan) is an example of what type of antiemetic?
procainamide derivatives
284
What are examples of antihistamines used as an antiemetic?
trimethobenzamide, dimenhydrinate, diphenhydramine (benadryl)
285
What is Cerenia?
maropitant citrate
286
What is maropitant citrate?
Cerenia
287
When is activated charcoal given?
if emesis is contraindicated
288
When should vomiting not be induced?
if caustic substances have been ingested
289
What are centrally acting emetics?
apomorphine (IV or mucosal) or xylazine (Cats)
290
What are peripherally acting emetics?
ipecac syrup, home remedies
291
What are categories of antiulcer drugs?
antacids, histamine-2 receptor antagonists, mucosal protective drugs, prostaglandin analogs, and proton pump inhibitors
292
What do antacids do?
promote ulcer healing by neutralizing HCl and reducing pepsin activity
293
How long should you wait before or after giving prostanglandins before giving other drugs?
1-2 hours
294
Antacids can be ____ or ____.
systemic, non-systemic
295
What are examples of systemic antacids?
sodium bicarbonate and calcium carbonate
296
What kind of antiulcer drugs are sodium bicarbonate and calcium carbonate an example of?
systemic antacids
297
What are examples of nonsystemic antacids?
magnesium hydroxide (milk of magnesia), aluminum/magnesium hydroxide, aluminum hydroxide
298
What kind of antiulcer drugs are magnesium hydroxide (milk of magnesia), aluminum/magnesium hydroxide, aluminum hydroxide examples of?
nonsystemic antacids
299
What do histamine-2 receptor antagonists do?
prevent acid reflux by competitively blocking the H2 receptors of the parietal cells in the stomach, thus reducing gastric acid
300
What are examples of histamine-2 receptor antagonists?
Cimetidine (Tagamet), Ranitidine (zantac), and Famotidine (Pepcid)
301
What kind of antiulcer drugs are Cimetidine (Tagamet), Ranitidine (zantac), and Famotidine (Pepcid) examples of?
histamine-2 receptor antagonists
302
What do mucosal protective drugs do?
combine with protein to form an adherent substance that covers the ulcer and protects it from stomach acid and pepsin
303
What is an example of a mucosal protective drug?
sucralfate
304
What kind of antiulcer drug is sucralfate?
mucosal protective drug
305
What do prostaglandin analogs do?
suppress gastric secretions and increase mucus production in the GI tract
306
What kind of antiulcer drug suppresses gastric secretions and increase mucus production in the GI tract?
prostaglandin analogs
307
What kind of antiulcer drug combines with protein to form an adherent substance that covers the ulcer and protects it from stomach acid and pepsin?
mucosal protective drug
308
What kind of antiulcer drug prevents acid reflux by competitively blocking the H2 receptors of the parietal cells in the stomach, thus reducing gastric acid?
histamine-2 receptor antagonists
309
What kind of antiulcer drug promotes ulcer healing by neutralizing HCl and reducing pepsin activity?
antacid
310
What kind of antiulcer drug is usually given to animals taking NSAIDs?
prostaglandin analogs
311
What is an example of prostaglandin analogs?
misoprostol
312
Misoprostol is an example of which antiulcer drug?
prostaglandin analogs
313
What do proton pump inhibitors do?
bind irreversibly to the H+-K+-ATPase enzyme on the surface of parietal cells of the stomach; this inhibits hydrogen ion transport into the stomach so that it cannot secrete HCl
314
What kind of antiulcer drug binds irreversibly to the H+-K+-ATPase enzyme on the surface of parietal cells of the stomach; this inhibits hydrogen ion transport into the stomach so that it cannot secrete HCl?
proton pump inhibitors
315
What are examples of proton pump inhibitors?
omeprazole (Prilosec) and lansoprazole
316
Omeprazole (Prilosec) and lansoprazole are examples of what kind of antiulcer drug?
proton pump inhibitors
317
What do antifoaming drugs do?
reduce or prevent the formation of foam
318
How are antifoaming drugs administered?
as solutions by stomach tube
319
What are examples of antifoaming drugs?
poloxalene and polymerized methyl silicone
320
Poloxalene and polymerized methyl silicone are examples of what?
antifoaming drugs
321
What do antidiarrheals do?
decrease peristalsis, which allows fluid absorption from the intestinal contents
322
What are examples of antidiarrheals?
anticholinergics, protectants/adsorbents, opiate-related agents, probiotics, metronidazole
323
What are anticholinergics used to treat when it comes to antidiarrheals?
tenemus and vomiting
324
What are side effects of anticholinergics when used for antidiarrheals?
dry mucous membranes, urine retention, tachycardia, constipation
325
What are examples of adsorbents used as an antidiarrheal?
bismuth subsalicylate, kaolin/pectin, activated charcoal
326
What are side effects of adsorbents?
constipation
327
How do opiate-related agents control diarrhea?
by decreasing both intestinal secretion and the flow of feces and increasing segmental contractions
328
What are examples of opiate-related agents control diarrhea?
loperamide, diphenoxylate, paregoric
329
What are side effects of opiate-related agents used as an antidiarrheal?
CNS depression, ileus, urine retention, bloat, and constipation
330
T or F. Probiotics must be refrigerated to maintain the viability of the bacteria.
True.
331
What is an antibiotic used to treat diarrhea?
metronidazole
332
What do laxatives do?
loosen the bowel contents and encourages evacuation of stool
333
What kind of laxatives are harsher laxatives?
cathartics
334
What are the four types of laxatives?
osmotic, stimulant, bulk-forming, emollient
335
What do osmotic laxatives do?
pull water into the colon and increase water content in the feces, thereby increasing bulk and stimulating peristalsis
336
What kind of laxative pulls water into the colon and increase water content in the feces, thereby increasing bulk and stimulating peristalsis?
osmotic
337
What are examples of osmotic laxatives?
lactulose, sodium phosphate w/ sodium biphosphate (fleet enema), magnesium sulfate (epsom salts), magnesium hydroxide (milk of magnesia)
338
Lactulose, sodium phosphate w/ sodium biphosphate (fleet enema), magnesium sulfate (epsom salts), magnesium hydroxide (milk of magnesia) are examples of what kind of laxative?
osmotic
339
What do bulk-forming laxatives do?
absorb water into the intestine, increase fecal bulk, and stimulate peristalsis, resulting in large, soft stool production
340
What kind of laxative absorbs water into the intestine, increase fecal bulk, and stimulate peristalsis, resulting in large, soft stool production?
bulk-forming
341
Are bulk-forming laxatives systemically absorbed?
no
342
What are examples of bulk-forming laxatives?
psyllium hydrophilic mucilloid (Metamucil), polycarbophin, bran
343
Psyllium hydrophilic mucilloid (Metamucil), polycarbophin, bran are examples of what kind of laxative?
bulk-forming
344
What are examples of emollients?
docusate sodium, docusate calcium, docusate potassium, mineral oil, and petroleum products (Laxatone)
345
Docusate sodium, docusate calcium, docusate potassium, mineral oil, and petroleum products (Laxatone) are examples of what kind of laxative?
emollient
346
What do prokinetic agents do?
increase the motility of parts of the GI tract to enhance movement of material through it
347
What are types of prokinetic agents?
parasympathomimetics, dopaminergic antagonists, serotonergic agents
348
What do serotonin antagonist antihistamines do?
promote appetite by inhibition at the serotoninergic receptors which control satiety
349
What are side effects of serotonin antagonist antihistamines?
sedation and dry mouth
350
What is an example of serotonin antagonist antihistamines?
cyproheptadine
351
Cyproheptadine is an exampe of what?
serotonin antagonist antihistamines
352
What do antisialogues do?
decrease salivary flow
353
What are the two categories that analgesics fall into?
narcotics and non-narcotics
354
What are the two main groups of anti-inflammatory drugs?
steroidal and non-steroidal
355
What do steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs do?
block the action of phospholipase
356
What group of anti-inflammatory drugs block the action of phospholipase?
steroidal
357
What group of anti-inflammatory drugs block the action of cyclooxygenase?
non-steroidal
358
What do non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs do?
block the action of cyclooxygenase
359
Corticosteroids are homones produced by what?
adrenal cortex
360
What do glucocorticoids have anti-inflammatory effects?
their inhibition of phospholipase
361
What do glucocorticoids do to inhibit phospholipase?
raise the concentration of liver glycogen and increase blood glucose levels
362
What do glucocorticoids affect?
carbohydrate, protein, fat metabolism
363
What are glucocorticoids regulated by?
negative feedback
364
What are examples of short-acting glucocorticoids?
cortisone and hydrocortisone
365
Cortison and hydrocortisone are examples of why kind of glucocorticoids?
short-acting
366
What are examples of intermediate-acting glucocorticoids?
prednisone, prednisolone, methylprednisolone, triamcinolone, prednisolone sodium succinate, methylprednisolone acetate
367
Prednisone, prednisolone, methylprednisolone, triamcinolone, prednisolone sodium succinate, methylprednisolone acetate were examples of what kind of glucocorticoids?
intermediate-acting
368
What are examples of long-acting glucocorticoids?
dexamethasone, betamethasone, fluocinolone
369
Dexamethasone, betamethasone, fluocinolone are examples of what kind of glucocorticoids?
long-acting
370
How long do short acting glucocorticoids last for?
less than 12 hours
371
How long do intermediate acting glucocorticoids last for?
12-36 hours
372
How long do long acting glucocorticoids last for?
over 36 hours
373
How may glucocorticoids be given?
orally, parenterally, topically
374
What are benefits of using glucocorticoids?
reduce inflammation, relieve pruritis, reduce tissue damage, reduce scarring by delaying wound healing
375
What are some drawbacks of glucocorticoid use?
delay wound healing, increase risk of infection, may cause GI ulceration and bleeding, increase the risk of corneal ulceration if corneal damage exists, may induce abortion in some species
376
Why should you taper animals off glucocorticoids?
to prevent iatrogenic Addison's disease
377
What should be tapered off to prevent iatrogenic Addison's disease?
glucocorticoids
378
If an animal has a corneal ulcer, what should you not use?
glucocorticoids
379
What is Cox-1 involved with?
stomach, platelet function
380
What is Cox-2 involved with/
inflammation
381
What are side effects of NSAIDs?
GI ulceration and bleeding, bone marrow suppression, LV & KD problems
382
How do NSAIDs work?
inhibiting cyclooxygenase
383
What is aspirin?
analgesic, antipyretic, anti-inflammatory, reducer of platelet aggregation
384
What animal should aspirin be used with caution in?
cats
385
What is another name for aspirin toxicity?
salicylate toxicity
386
What is another name for salicylate toxicity?
aspirin toxicity
387
What are signs of salicylate/aspirin toxicity?
GI problems, respiratory problems, neurological problems, bleeding problems, kidney failure
388
What type of anti-inflammatory is pyrazolone derivatives?
NSAID
389
What do pyrazolone derivatives do?
inhibit prostaglandin synthesis
390
Pyrazolone derivatives are used for what?
musculoskeletal pain in horses
391
What is flunixin meglumine?
banamine
392
What is banamine?
flunixin meglumine
393
What does Flunixin meglumine do?
inhibit cyclooxygenase
394
What is flunixin meglumine used for?
cattle and horses for colic pain (not really musculoskeletal)
395
What does diclofenac sodium do?
inhibit both COX-1 and COX-2
396
Are side effects minimal in diclofenac sodium?
yes
397
What is diclofenac sodium used for?
osteoarthritis for use in hock, knee, fetlock and pastern joints of horse
398
What do propionic acid derivatives do?
block both cyclooxygenase and lipoxygenase
399
What are examples of propionic acid derivatives?
ibuprofen, ketoprofen, carprofen, naproxen
400
Ibuprofen, ketoprofen, carprofen, and naproxen are examples of what kind of NSAID?
propionic acid derivatives
401
What do propionic acid derivatives do?
block both cyclooxygenase and lipoxygenase
402
What kind of NSAID blocks both cyclooxygenase and lipoxygenase?
propionic acid derivatives
403
What are side effects of propionic acid derivatives?
GI problems, renal dysfunction, possible liver toxicities
404
What kind of pain are propionic acid derivatives used to treat?
musculoskeletal pain, post-op
405
What do indol acetic acid derivatives do?
inhibit cyclooxygenase (more selective for COX-2)
406
What type of NSAID inhibits cyclooxygenase (more selective for COX-2)?
indol acetic acid derivates
407
What is an example of an indol acetic acid derivative?
etodolac
408
Etodolac is an example of what kind of NSAID?
indol acetic acid derivative
409
What do COX-2 inhibitors do?
inhibit cyclooxygenase-2 without interfering with the protective cyclooxygenase-1
410
What type of NSAID inhibits cyclooxygenase-2 without interfering with the protective cyclooxygenase-1?
cox-2 inhibitors
411
What are examples of cox-2 inhibitors?
deracoxib (Deramaxx), firocoxib (Previcox), meloxicam (Metacam)
412
Deracoxib (Deramaxx), firocoxib (Previcox), meloxicam (Metacam) are examples of what kind of NSAID?
cox-2 inhibitors
413
What are the 5 hallmarks of inflammation?
heat, redness, swelling, pain, loss of function
414
What are side effects of cox-2 inhibitors?
anorexia, vomiting, lethargy, potentially KD and LV dysfunction
415
What do dual-pathway NSAIDs do?
block arachidonic acid cycle (both cyclooxygenase and lipoxygenase pathways)
416
What type of NSAID blocks arachidonic acid cycle (both cyclooxygenase and lipoxygenase pathways)?
dual-pathway NSAIDs
417
What is an example of a dual-pathway NSAID?
tepoxalin (Zubrin)
418
Tepoxalin is an example of what type of NSAID?
dual-pathway NSAID
419
What kind of properties does piroxicam have?
anti-inflammatory, analgesic, antipyretic
420
What is piroxicam used for?
an adjunct treatment of urinary bladder transitional cell carcinoma
421
What NSAID is used as an adjunct treatment of urinary bladder transitional cell carcinoma?
Piroxicam
422
What is some information about piroxicam?
has a very long half life, GI ulcers, may have teratogenic effects
423
What is Buscopan used for?
as an antispasmodic, for colic in horses
424
What is DMSO?
dimethyl sulfoxide
425
What does DMSO do?
inactivates superoxide radicals produced by inflammation
426
What does dimethyl sulfoxide do?
inactivates superoxide radicals produced by inflammation
427
What is dimethyl sulfoxide able to do?
penetrate skin and serve as a carrier of other drugs
428
What is DMSO able to do?
penetrate skin and serve as a carrier of other drugs
429
What do glycosaminoglycans do?
form part of the extracellular matrix of cartilage
430
Define parasitism.
relationship between two different organisms in which one of the organisms benefits while the other is harmed
431
Do all parasites cause clinical signs in the animal?
no
432
Define endoparasites.
parasites that live within the body of the host and cause internal parasite infections
433
Define ectoparasites.
parasites that live on the body surface of the host and cause external parasite infestations
434
How do benzimidazoles work?
by interfereing with energy metabolism of the worm
435
What are examples of benzimidazoles?
fenbendazole, albendazole, mebendazole, oxibendazole, thiabendazole
436
What are side effects of benzimidazoles?
while uncommon, they are vomiting and diarrhea
437
Fenbendazole, albendazole, mebendazole, oxibendazole, thiabendazole are examples of what type of anti-parasitic?
Benzimidazoles
438
What is the brand name of fenbendazole?
Panacur
439
What are the types of antinematodals?
organophosphates, tetrahydropyrimidines, imidazothiazoles, piperazine, avermections and benzimidazoles
440
What do organophosphates do?
inhibit cholinesterase activity, causing ACh to remain active in the neuromuscular junction of the parasite
441
What kind of antinematodal inhibits cholinesterase activity, causing ACh to remain active in the neuromuscular junction of the parasite?
organophosphates
442
Organophosphates are ____ to parasites.
neurotixic
443
Is it possible for organophosphates to cause neurologic side effects in the host?
yes
444
What kind of parasites does organophosphates work on?
endo and ecto parasites
445
What kind of range of safety do organophosphates have?
narrow
446
You should not use organophosphates in what kind of dogs?
heartworm-positive dogs
447
What are examples of organophosphates?
dichlorvos and coumaphos
448
Dichlorvos and coumaphos are examples of what type of antinematodal?
organophosphates
449
What do Tetrahydropyrimidines do?
mimic the action of ACh and cause paralysis of the worm
450
What kind of antinematodal mimics the action of ACh and cause paralysis of the worm?
tetrahydropyrimidines
451
What are tetrahydropyrimidines effective against?
ascarids, pinworms, strongyles and hookworms
452
What are examples of tetrahydropyrimidines?
pyrantel pamoate (Nemex/Strongid), pyrantel tartrate, morantel tartrate
453
Pyrantel pamoate (Nemex/Strongid), pyrantel tartrate, morantel tartrate are examples of what kind of antinematodal?
tetrahydropyrimidines
454
What are side effects of tetrahydropyrimidines? Are they common?
increased respiration, profuse sweating, incoordination. no.
455
How do imidazothiazoles work?
by stimulating the nematode's cholinergic nervous system, leading to paralysis of the parasite
456
What are imidazothiazoles effective against?
ascarids, strongyles, whipworms, hookworms
457
What is an example of an imidazothiazole?
levamisole
458
Levamisole is an example of what kind of antinematodal?
imidazothiazole
459
What is a side effect of imidazothiazoles?
transient foaming at the mouth
460
What does piperazine do?
blocks neuromuscular transmission in the parasite
461
What is piperazine effect against?
ascarids
462
What do avermectins do?
bind to certain chloride channels in the parasite nerve and muscle cells, causing paralysis and death of the parasite
463
What are examples of avermectins?
ivermection (Ivomec) and moxidectin (Quest)
464
What are avermectins not effective against?
cestodes or trematodes
465
What are some side effects of avermectins? Common?
mydriasis, ataxia, tremors, depression. No.
466
What are the four types of heartworm prevention?
Ivermectin (heartgard), Milbemycin (interceptor, sentinel), Selamectin (revolution), Moxydectin (proheart)
467
What is Ivermectin also known as?
heartgard
468
What is milbemycin also known as?
interceptor, sentinel
469
What is selamectin also known as?
revolution
470
What is moxydectin also known as?
pro heart
471
What is heartgard also known as?
ivermectin
472
What is interceptor/sentinel also known as?
milbemycin
473
What is revolution also known as?
selamectin
474
What is pro heart also known as?
moxydectin
475
What is sulfadimethoxine also known as?
albon
476
What is albon also known as?
sulfadimethoxine
477
What do penicillins have?
a beta-lactam structure that interferes with bacterial cell wall synthesis
478
What does penicillin's spectrum of activity depend on?
the type of penicillin
479
Which two penicillins are narrow-spectrum gram positive antibiotics?
Penicillin G and Penicillin V
480
How is Penicillin G given?
parenterally
481
How is Penicillin V given?
orally
482
What are examples of broader-spectrum penicillins?
amoxicillin, ampicillin, methicillin, carbenicillin, ticarcillin
483
What are potentiated penicillins?
penicillins that are chemically cobined with another drug to ehance the effects of both
484
What is an example of a potentiated penicillin? What does it do?
amoxicillin + clavulanic acid. it binds to beta-lactamase to prevent the beta-lactam ring from being destroyed.
485
What are cephalosporins?
semi-synthetic, broad spectrum antibiotics that are structurally related to the penicillins
486
Do cephalosporins have a beta-lactam ring?
yes
487
What are examples of cephalosporins?
cefadroxil (cefa-drops), cephalexin (keflex), ceftiofur (naxcel), cefpodoxime (simplicef)
488
With cephalosporins, as the number of the generation increases, the spectrum of activity ____.
broadens
489
What do tetracyclines do?
interfere with the production of protein in bacterial cells
490
What are side effects of tetracyclines?
nephrotoxicity, and ototoxicity
491
What are examples of tetracyclines?
tetracycline, oxytetracycline, doxycycline, minocycline, chlortetracycline
492
What does bacitracin do?
disrupts the bacterial cell wall and is effective against gram-positive bacteria
493
How is bacitracin used?
topically or as a feed additive
494
How does polymyxin B work?
by attacking the cell membrane of bacteria
495
What do aminoglycosides do?
interfere with the production of protein in bacterial cells
496
Do aminoglycosides work on gram pos or gram neg bacteria?
gram neg
497
Why are aminoglycosides given parenterally?
not absorbed well from the GI tract
498
What are side effects of aminoglycosides?
nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
499
What are examples of aminoglycosides?
gentamicin, neomycin, amikacin, tobramycin, and dihydrostreptomycin
500
What are fluoroquinolones?
antibiotics with fluorine bound to the quinolone base, which increases the drog's potency, spectrum of activity, and absorption
501
What are side effects of fluoroquinolones?
development of bubble-like cartilage lesions in growing dogs, crystalluria
502
What are examples of fluroquinolones?
enrofloxacin (Baytril), ciprofloxacin, orbifloxacin, difloxacin, marbofloxacin, sarafloxacin
503
What does chloramphenicol do?
interferes with the production of protein in bacterial cells
504
What is chloramphenicol?
a broad-spectrum antibiotic that penetrates tissues and fluids well (including the eyes and CNS)
505
Which antibiotic should you use caution when handling?
chloramphenicol
506
Which antibiotic has toxic side effects (bone marrow depression) that extremely limits its use?
chloramphenicol
507
Can you use chloramphenicol in food animals?
no
508
What does florfenicol do?
interferes with the production of protein in bacterial cells
509
What is florfenicol?
a synthetic, broad-spectrum antibiotic
510
What are side effects of florfenicol?
local tissue reaction (possible loss of tissue at slaughter), inappetence, decreased water consumption, diarrhea
511
What do macrolides do?
interfere with the production of protein in bacterial cells
512
What are macrolides?
braod-spectrum antibiotics that have a large molecular structure
513
What are macrolides used to treat?
penicillin-resistant infections or in anials that have allergic reactions to penicillins
514
What are examples of macrolides?
erythromycin, tylosin, tilmicosin
515
Erythromycin, tylosin, tilmicosin are examples of what kinds of antibiotics?
macrolides
516
What do lincosamides do?
interfere with the production of protein in bacterial cells
517
What are lincosamides?
narrow-spectrum, gram-positive antibiotics
518
What are side effects of lincosamides?
GI problems
519
What are examples of lincosamides?
clindamycin, pirlimycin, lincosamide
520
Clindamycin, pirlimycin, lincosamide are examples of what kind of antibiotic?
lincosamides
521
What are nitrofurans?
broad-spectrum antibiotics
522
What are nitrofurans used to treat?
treat wounds and urinary tract infections
523
What are examples of nitrofurans?
furazolidone, nitrofurazone, nitrofurantoin
524
Furazolidone, nitrofurazone, nitrofurantoin are examples of what kind of anibiotic?
nitrofurans
525
How do nitroimiazoles work?
by disrupting DNA and nucleic acid synthesis
526
What is an example of a nitroimiazole?
metronidazole
527
Nitroimiazoles have what kind of activity?
antibacterial and antiprotozoal
528
What does rifampin do?
disrupts RNA synthesis
529
What is rifampin?
a broad-spectrum antibiotic used in conjunction with other antibiotics
530
What are examples of protein synthesis agents?
chloramphenicol, florfenicol, macrolides, lincosamides
531
What are examples of anticestodals?
praziquantel (droncit), epsiprantel (cestex), fenbendazole (Panacur)
532
How does praziquantel work?
by increasing the cestode's cell membrane permeability (this disintegrates the worm's outer tissue covering)
533
How does epsiprantel work?
causes disintegration of the cestod
534
What species does epsiprantel work on?
taenia and diplydium species
535
What are examples of antitrematodals?
clorsulon, albendazole, praziquantel
536
How does clorsulon work?
by inhibiting the trematode's enzyme systems for energy production
537
What is clorsulon effective against?
Fasciola hepatica
538
How does albendazole work?
interferes with the energy metabolism of the worm
539
What kind of trematode is praziquantel effective against in dogs and cats?
lung trematodes
540
What are the three stages of management of heartworm disease?
1. preventing third-stage larvae from reaching maturity (preventative)
2. adulticide therapy (none approved in cats)
3. eradication of circulating microfilariae after infection
541
What is an example of an adulticide therapy?
melarsomine (immidicide)
542
What is another name for melarsomine?
immidicide
543
What is another name for immidicide?
melarsomine
544
Where is melarsomine given?
in the epaxial muscles
545
What is melarsomine?
an arsenic compound
546
What are side effects of melarsomine?
injection site pain/swelling, respiratory signs, death
547
What is another name for imidacloprid?
Advantage
548
What is another name for Advantage?
imidacloprid
549
What is another name for imidacloprid + permethrin?
Advantix
550
What is another name for Advantix?
imidacloprid = permethrin
551
What is another name for fipronil?
frontline
552
What is another name for frontline?
fipronil
553
What is another name for nitenpyram?
capsar
554
What is another name for capstar?
nitenpyram
555
What is another name for fluralaner?
bravecto
556
What is another name for bravecto?
fluralaner
557
What is another name for afoxolaner?
nexgard
558
What is another name for nexgard?
afoxolaner
559
What is another name for dinotefuran/pyriproxyfen?
vectra
560
What is another name for vectra?
dinotefuran/pyriproxyfen
561
What are pyrethroids?
a group of quick-kill chemicals in flea products
562
T or F. All flea products also control ticks.
False
563
What are the two hormones involved in metabolism that the thyroid gland secretes?
Thyroxine (T4), Triiodothyronine (T3)
564
What is hypothyroidism?
a deficiency of thyroid hormone
565
What are signs of hypothyroidism?
decreased coat and hair luster, weight gain, listlessness, intolerance to cold, reproductive failure
566
How is hypothyroidism diagnosed?
by measuring serum total T4 or T3 by a thyroid stimulation test or by the thyrotropin-releasing hormone rsponse test
567
What are teh two things that hypothyroid animals are treated with?
levothyroxine (T4), liothyronine (T3)
568
What is hyperthyroidism?
an increased production of thyroid hormone
569
Whatare signs of hyperthyroidism?
increase thirst, weight loss, increased stool production, restlessness, tachycardia
570
What are hyperthyroid animals treated with?
antithyroid drugs or surgical removal
571
Radioactive isotopes of iodine ____ destroy the thyroid gland.
I-131
572
Why would methimazole be used in hyperthyroid animals?
it interferes with the incorporation of iodine in the molecules of T4 and T3
573
What is Addison's disease?
adrenocorticol insufficiency, a progressive condition associated with adrenal atrophy
574
What are signs of Addison's disease?
lethargy, weakness, anorexia, vomiting, diarrhea, PU/PD
575
How is Addison's disease diagnosed?
ACTH stimulation test
576
What does treatment of Addison's disease involve?
a long-acting mineralocorticoid and corticosteroids
577
What is Cushing's disease?
hyperadrenocorticism, characterized by excessive glucocorticoid production due to prolonged administration of adrenocortical hormones, adrenocortical tumors, or pituitary disorders
578
What are signs of cushing's disease?
PU/PD, hair loss, pendulous abdomen
579
How is cushing's disease diagnosed?
ACTH stimulation test or low-dose dexamethazone suppression test
580
What does treatment of cushing's disease involve?
destroying part of the adrenal cortex
581
What are examples of drugs used to treat cushing's diesease?
mitotane, trilostane, keoconazole, selegiline, cyproheptadine
582
What are gonadotropins?
hormones that stimulate the gonads
583
What are examples of gonadotropins?
LH, FSH, GnRH
584
What is PMSG is used for?
produce estrus and ovulation in horses and as a follicle stimulant in many species (superoovulation)
585
What does PMSG stand for?
pregnant mare serum gonadotropin
586
What does GnRH stand for?
gonadorelin
587
What is GnRH used to treat?
follicular cysts in cattle, for estrus synchronization in cattle, and to induce estrus in small animals
588
What does hCG stand for?
human chorionic gonadotropin
589
What is hCG used to treat?
cystic ovaries in cattle, to detect/treat? cryptorchidism in dogs, to get infertile bitches to cycle, and to make breeding mares ovulate
590
What are androgens?
male hormones
591
Where is testosterone made?
in the interstitial cells of the testes
592
What is testerone used to treat?
conditions such as infertility and hypogonadism, produce estrus detectors, and for testosterone-responsive urinary incontinence in dogs
593
Is testerone a controlled drug?
yes it's a class 3
594
What is are examples of testosterone?
testosterone cypionate in oil, testosterone enaanthate in oil, testosterone propionate in oil, danazol
595
What are examples of androgens?
testosterone, mibolerone, zinc gluconate with arginine,
596
How does mibolerone work?
it blocks the release of LH from the anterior pituitary gland, therefore the follicle does not fully develop
597
What male hormones blocks the release of LH from the anterior pituitary gland, therefore the follicle does not fully develop?
mibolerone
598
What is mibolerone used for?
to prevent estrus in adult female dogs and the treatment of false pregnancies (pseudocyesis)
599
What els is zinc gluconate with arginine known as?
neutersol and zeuterin
600
What is zinc gluconate with arginine?
a chemical sterilant approved for use in 3-10 month old male dogs. it's a nonsurgical neutering drug
601
What type of injection is zinc gluconate with arginine?
intratesticular
602
What are examples of female hormones?
estrogen, progesterone, prostaglandins
603
What does estrogen do?
promotes female sex characteristics and stimulates and maintains the reproductive tract
604
Why are synthetic estrogens used in dogs for?
prevent implantation of fertilized ova and to correct urinary incontinence, vaginitis, and dermatitis
605
Why are synthetic estrogens used in cattle?
to treat persistent corpus luteum, aid in expulsion of retained placentas and mummified feti, to promote weight gain
606
Why are synthetic estrogens used in horses?
to induce estrus in the non breeding season
607
What female hormone is used to prevent implantation of fertilized ova and to correct urinary incontinence, vaginitis, and dermatitis in dogs?
synthetic estrogen
608
What female hormone is used to treat persistent corpus luteum, aid in expulsion of retained placentas and mummified feti, to promote weight gain in cattle?
synthetic estrogen
609
What female hormone is used to induce estrus in the non breeding season in horses?
synthetic estrogen
610
What are some examples of estrogen?
estradiol cypionate, diethylstilbestrol
611
Estradiol cypionate and diethylstilbestrol are examples of what kind of female hormone?
estrogen
612
What does progesterone do?
decreases uterine activity when a female is in estrus or pregnant
613
What female hormone decreases uterine activity when a female is in estrus or pregnant?
progesterone
614
What is progesterone (progestins) used for in dogs?
to block estrus
615
What is progesterone used for in cattle?
to synchronize breeding and birth cycles
616
What may progestins be used to treat?
behavior problems and some forms of dermatitis
617
What female hormone is used to block estrus in dogs?
progesterone
618
What female hormone is used to synchronize breeding and birth cycles in cattle?
progesterone
619
What are examples of progesterone?
megestrol acetate, medroxyprogesterone acetate, altrenogest, progesterone, melengestrol
620
Megestrol acetate, medroxyprogesterone acetate, altrenogest, progesterone, melengestrol are examples of what kind of female hormone?
progesterone
621
What do prostaglandings do?
causes lysis of the corpus luteum, which initiates a new estrus cycle
622
What are prostaglandins used for in small animals?
to treat pyometra, cause abortion, and induce parturition
623
What female hormone is used to treat pyometra, cause abortion, and induce parturition in small animals?
prostaglandins
624
What are prostaglandins used for in cattle?
estrus synchronization and inducing uterine contractions to facilitate emptying of the uterus
625
What female hormone is used for estrus synchronization and inducing uterine contractions to facilitate emptying of the uterus in cattle?
prostaglandins
626
What are prostaglandins used for in horses?
estrus synchronization
627
What female hormone is used for estrus synchronization in horses?
prostaglandins
628
What are examples of prostaglandins?
dinoprost tromethamine (Lutalyse), fluprostenol, cloprostenol sodium
629
Dinoprost tromethamine (Lutalyse), fluprostenol, cloprostenol sodium are examples of what type of female hormone?
prostaglandins
630
What are examples of hormonal growth promotants?
estradiol, testosterone, progesterone (used in combination with estradiol)
631
What are examples of synthetic hormones?
TBA, MGA, Zeranol
632
What are examples of anabolic steroids?
Stanozolol and Boldenone
633
How long do you have to keep a VFD copy?
2 years minimum
634
What is milk replacer considered as?
a feed
635
What are negative foodback loops?
more common, work in response to low or high levels of hormone in the body
636
What are positive feedback loops?
occur when hormone levels continue to rise in response to stimuli
637
What are examples of anterior pituitary hormones used in vet med?
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH), adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), follicle stimulating hormone (FSH), luteinizing hormone (LH), growth hormone (GH)
638
What are examples of posterior pituitary hormones used in vet med?
antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and oxytocin
639
What is TSH used in the diagnosis of?
primary hypothyroidism
640
What is ACTH used for?
to stimulate the adrenal cortex to secrete corticosteroids in the diagnosis of adrenal cortex disease
641
What is GH used for?
to increase growth rate and feed use efficiency in livestock and increase milk production in dairy cows
642
Which anterior pituitary gland hormone is used in the diagnosis of primary hypothyroidism?
TSH
643
Which anterior pituitary gland hormone is used to stimulate the adrenal cortex to secrete corticosteroids in the diagnosis of adrenal cortex disease?
ACTH
644
Which anterior pituitary gland hormone is used to increase growth rate and feed use efficiency in livestock and increase milk production in dairy cows?
GH
645
What is ADH used for?
to diagnose and treat diabetes insipidus
646
What is oxytocin used for?
to aid in uterine contraction and induce labor in animals at term, expel the placenta, induce milk letdown, and as an adjunct therapy for animals with open pyometra
647
Which posterior pituitary gland hormones is used to diagnose and treat diabetes insipidus?
ADH
648
Which posterior pituitary gland hormones is used to aid in uterine contraction and induce labor in animals at term, expel the placenta, induce milk letdown, and as an adjunct therapy for animals with open pyometra?
oxytocin
649
What does the pancreas do?
secretes two hormones that help regulate blood glucose
650
What are the two hormones that the pancrease secretes?
insulin and glucagon
651
Insulin and glucagon are secreted from where?
the pancreas
652
What does insulin do?
responds to a rise in blood glucose and promotes the uptake and use of glucose for energy in cells
653
Which hormone from the pancreas responds to a rise in blood glucose and promotes the uptake and use of glucose for energy in cells?
insulin
654
What does glucagon do?
increases blood glucose levels by promoting the breakdown of glycogen into glucose
655
Which hormone from the pancreas increases blood glucose levels by promoting the breakdown of glycogen into glucose?
glucagon
656
What is diabetes mellitus?
a disease of fat, carbohydrate, and protein metabolism caused by lack of, or inefficient use of, insulin
657
What is a disease of fat, carbohydrate, and protein metabolism caused by lack of, or inefficient use of, insulin?
diabetes mellitus
658
What are some sources of insulin?
pork, synthetic, and recombinant forms
659
What is short-acting insulin used for?
initial treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis and to keep blood glucose stable
660
What are examples of short-acting insulin?
regular crystalline insulin and semilente insulin
661
What is intermediate-acting insulin used for?
to control blood glucose in uncomplicated cases of diabetes mellitus
662
What are examples of intermediate-acting insulin?
NPH and lente
663
What is long-acting insulin used for?
to control blood glucose for longer periods of time, especially in cats
664
What are examples of long-acting insulin?
protamine zinc insulin, ultralente
665
What kind of insulin can take a few days to achieve its maximal effect?
ultra long acting insulin
666
What are symptoms of insulin overdose?
seizures, lethargy, weakness, death
667
What is the treatment for insulin overdose?
do not give next dose of insulin, give karo syrup instead
668
What is an example of an oral hypoglycemic agent?
glipizide
669
What do oral hypoglycemic agents do?
stimulate pancreatic beta cells to secrete insulin
670
Do you need to have some pancreatic function with oral hypoglycemic agents?
yes
671
Are hypoglycemic agents more successful in cats or dogs?
cats
672
What are four categories of antifungals?
polyene antifungal agents, imidazole antifungal agents, antimetabolic antifungal agents, superficial antifungal agents
673
How do polene antifungals work?
by binding to the fungal cell membrane
674
What type of antifungal agent works by binding to the fungal cell membrane?
polyene antifungals
675
What are examples of polyene antifungals?
nystatin (used orally) and amphotericin B (used IV for systemic infections)
676
Amphotericin B is what?
extremely nephrotoxic, lighsensitive, can precipitate out of solution
677
How do imidazole antifungals work?
by causing leakage of the fungal cell membrane
678
What type of antifungal agents work by causing leakage of the fungal cell membrane?
imidazole antifungals
679
What are examples of imidazole antifungals?
ketoconazole, itraconazole, fluconazole, miconazole
680
How do antimetabolic antifungals work?
by interfering with the metabolism of RNA and proteins
681
What is an example of an antimetabolic antifungal?
flucytosine
682
How do superficial antifungals work?
by disrupting fungal cell division
683
What is an example of a superficial antifungal?
griseofulvin
684
Griseofulvin is what?
teratogenic
685
What is lyme sulfur used for?
to topically treat ringworm
686
What is lufenuron used for?
to treat ringworm in cats
687
How do antiviral drugs act?
by preventing viral penetration of the host cell or by inhibiting the virus's production fo RNA or DNA
688
Are ther any antiviral drugs labeled for veterinary use?
no
689
What are some antiviral drugs used in vet med?
acyclovir, interferon, and lysine
690
What is acyclovir used for?
to treat ocular feline herpes virus infections
691
What does acyclovir do?
interfere with the virus's synthesis of DNA
692
What does interferon do?
protects host cells from a number of different viruses
693
What is interferon used to treat?
ocular feline herpes virus infection and FeLV
694
What do disinfectants do?
kill or inhibit the growth of microorganisms on inanimate objects
695
What do antiseptics do?
kill or inhibit the growth of microorganisms on animate objects
696
Contact time is critical in what?
the efficacy of the product
697
What is SDS?
safety data sheets
698
What are types of disinfecting agents?
phenols, quaternary ammonium compounds, aldehydes, ethylene oxide, alcohols, halogens, biguanides
699
How do phenols work?
by destroying the selective permeability of cell membranes
700
What are phenols effective against?
gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria, fungi, some enveloped viruses
701
What is an example of a phenol?
lysol
702
How do quaternary ammonium compound work?
by concentrating at the cell membrane and dissolving lipids in the cell walls and membranes
703
What are quaternary ammonium compounds effective against?
gram pos and gram neg bacteria, fungi, enveloped viruses
704
What is an example of a quaternary ammonium compound?
roccal
705
How do aldehydes work?
by affecting protein structure
706
What are aldehydes effective against?
gram os and gram neg bacteria, fungi, viruses, bacterial spores
707
What are some examples of aldehydes?
formaldehyde, gluteraldehyde
708
How does ethylene oxide work?
by destroying DNA and proteins?
709
What is ethylene oxide used for?
a gas for chemical sterilization
710
What is ethylene oxide effective against?
gram pos and gram neg bacteria, fungi, viruses, bacterial spores
711
How do alcohols work?
by coagulating proteins and dissolving membrane lipids
712
What are alcohols effective against?
gram pos and gram neg bacteria, fungi, envelped viruses
713
How do halogens work?
by interfering with proteins and enzymes of the microbe
714
What does chlorine kill?
bacteria, fungi, viruses
715
What does iodine kill?
most classes of microbes if used at the proper concentration and exposure times
716
How do biguanides work?
by denaturing proteins
717
What are biguanides effective against?
gram pos and gram neg bacteria, fungi, enveloped viruses
718
What is an example of a biguanide?
chlorhexidine
719
Soaps and detergents have what?
limited bactericidal activity
720
What does hydrogen peroxide do?
damages proteins, kills anaerobic bacteria, can cause tissue damage
721
What are four reversal agents?
naloxone, atipamezole, yohimbine, tolazoline
722
What are examples of antidotes?
activated charcoal, calcium EDTA, dimercaprol, penicillamine, pralidoxime chloride (2-PAM), acetylsysteine, methylene blue, sodium thiosulfate, ethanol, vitamin K, antivenin
723
What is methylene blue used to treat?
nitrate toxicity
724
What is ethylene glycol used to treat?
ethanol
725
Do herbal supplements require FDA approval? Why?
No, they are considered food supplements
726
What is Ginkgo used for?
to reduce aging effects of the nervous system, to reduce hypertension, a general tonicqWhat are the active ingredients in ginkgo?
727
What are active ingredients in ginkgo?
ginkgo flavone glycosides, terpene lactones
728
What may ginkgo do?
inhibit cytochrome P450 and induce hypoglycemia
729
What is St. John's Wort used for?
to treat behavior disorders, aggression, separation anxiety, OCD
730
What may St. John's Wort do?
inhibit cytochrome P450, affect blood pressure, cause photosensitivity
731
What is the active compenent of St. John's Wort? What does it do?
hyperforin, regulates the effects of serotonin
732
What is ginkgo also known as?
ginkgo biloba
733
What is ginkgo biloba also known as?
ginkgo
734
What is St. John's Wort also known as?
hypericum perforatum
735
What is hypericum perforatum also known as?
St. John's Wort
736
What is ginseng also known as?
Panax ginseng
737
What is panax ginseng also known as?
ginseng
738
What does ginseng do?
stimulate natural killer cell activity, increses energy, counters stress, inhances physical performaance
739
What is ginseng used to treat?
weight loss, anorexia, systemic infections
740
What may ginseng effect?
blood glucose levels, increase blood pressure and heart rate, increase GI motility, induce seizures at high levels
741
What is garlic also known as?
allium sativum
742
What is allium sativum also known as?
garlic
743
Garlic is believed to have what kind of properties?
anticarcinogenic
744
In garlic, what does allicin cause?
reduction of chloesterol, triglyceride levels and hypertension
745
What is garlic used to treat?
parasitic infections, fungal infections, respiratory problems, to acidify urine
746
What may garlic cause?
inhibition of platelet aggregation, prolonged bleeding times, GI upset, Heinz body anemia
747
What is echinacea also known as?
echinacia purpurea
748
In echinacea, what do fructofuranosides do?
contribute to tissue regeneration, regulation of the inflammatory response, a mild cortisone-like effect
749
What does echinacea stimulate?
phagocytosis and natural killer cell activity
750
What is echinacea used for?
to shorten the severity and duration of infections
751
What is evening primrose also known as?
oenothera biennis
752
What does evening primrose contain?
gamma-linolenic acid
753
What is evening primrose used to treat?
premenstrual syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, diabetic neuropathy, eczema in humans
754
What are side effects of evening primrose?
loose stools and abdominal cramps
755
What may evening primrose do?
lower the seizure threshold on some animals on phenothiazine medications
756
What is goldenseal also known as?
hydrastis canadensis
757
What gives goldenseal it's antibacterial and antiparasitic properties?
berberine
758
What is goldenseal used to treat?
bacterial and parasitic infections
759
What are side effects of Goldenseal?
cardiac problems, stimulation of the CNS and uterine contractions
760
What is cranberry also known as?
vaccinium macrocarpon
761
What does cranberry do?
interferes with the attachment of urinary pathogens to the urinary bladder wall
762
What is cranberry used to treat?
urinary tract infections
763
What are some side effects of cranberry?
diarrhea, stomach problems, development of kidney stones
764
What is valerian also known as?
valeriana officinalis
765
What do volatile oils in valerian do?
break down the inhibitory substance GABA
766
What is Valerian used to treat?
hyperactivity in dogs, for mild tranquilization, as a sleep aid
767
What are side effects of Valerian?
hepatotoxicity with long-term use and interaction with other depressant drugs
768
What is Hawthorn berry also known as?
crataegus oxyacantha
769
What is hawthorn berry used as?
a heart and valvular tonic typically in animals in the early stages of congestive heart failure
770
Why is hawthorn berry used in animals with kidney disease?
it's ability to enhance blood flow
771
What is ginger also known as?
Zingiber officinale
772
How long before surgery do animals need to be off ginger?
one weeks
773
Why should you not use ginger in an animal with a temperature?
it raises body temperature
774
What is ginger used to treat?
intestinal disorders, motion sickness, gastric upset, artiritis
775
What is milk thistle also know as?
silybum marianum
776
What are milk thistle seeds used for?
to relieve congestion of the liver, spleen and kidneys
777
Milk thistle contains substances that ___.
are hepatoregenerative, hepatoprotective, reduce inflammation, have potent antioxidant effects
778
When should you not use herbs in animals?
pregnant or nursing animals, very young or very old
779
Why would proparacaine and tetracaine be used?
to help perform comprehensive eye exams or to remoe foreign material from the eye
780
What do mydriatics do?
dilate the pupil
781
What do cycloplegics do?
paralyze the ciliary muscles and minimize pain
782
What are exampes of mydriatics and cycloplegics?
atropine, homatropine, phenylephrine, tropicamide, epinephrine
783
What is glaucoma?
a group of diseases that increase intraocular pressure
784
Why do miotics do?
constrict the pupil
785
What are miotics used to treat? How?
open-angle glaucome, by increasing the outflor of aqueous humor
786
What is an example of a miotic?
pilocarpine
787
What do beta-adrenergic blockers do to the production of aqueous humor?
decreases it
788
How can prostaglandins treat glaucoma?
increasing outflow of aqueous humor
789
How do alpha-adrenergic agonists treat glaucoma?
reduce aqueous humor secretion
790
What is KCS?
a disease in which tear production is decreased
791
What does KCS result in?
mucopurulent conjunctivitis and corneal scarring/ulceration
792
What are some drugs sued to treat KCS?
artificial tears, antibiotic steroid preparations, lacrimogenic, cyclosporine
793
What are examples of systemic antipruritics?
cyclosporine (Atopica), oclacitinib (Apoquel)
794
What is seborrhea characterized by?
abnormal flaking or scaling of the epidermic
795
What do keratolytics do?
remove excess keratin and promote loosening of the outer layers of the epidermis
796
What are some drugs that are topically used to treat seborrhea?
sulfur, salicylic acid, coal tar, benzoyl peroxide, selenium sulfide
797
What are astringents?
agents that constrict tissues, decrease secretions
798
What are examples of astringents?
tannins, alcohol
799
What are antiseptics?
substances that kill or inhibit the growth of microbes on living tissues
800
What are examples of antiseptics?
alcohol, chlorhexidine
801
What are soaks and dressings?
substances applied to areas to draw out fluid or relieve itching
802
What are caustics?
substances that destroy tissues
803
What may fatty acid supplements do?
improve condition of skin and hair, and may reduce pruritis
804
What are examples of blood enhancing drugs?
iron and erythropoietin
805
What is erythropoietin?
a protein made by the kidneys that stimulates the differentiation of bone marrow stem cells to form red blood cells
806
What is an example of an erythropoietin product?
epogen
807
What is an erythropoietin product used to treat?
anemia in animals with chronic renal failure
808
What is an example of a thrombolytic drug?
streptokinase
809
Do anticoagulants break down existing clots?
No
810
Is heparin effective orally?
no
811
What are examples of parenteral hemostatic drugs?
Vitamin K, protamine sulfate
812
What are examples of topical hemostatic drugs?
silver nitrate, hemostat powder, gelfoam gelatin sponges, thrombogen topical thrombin solution
813
What are the 5 phases of the cell cycle and what do they do?
```
G1: enzymes needed for DNA synthesis are produced
S: DNA synthesis and replication
G2: RNA and protein synthesis
M: mitosis phase
G0: resting phase
```
814
Define growth fraction.
percentage of cancer cells that are actively dividing
815
A __ growth fraction occurs when cells are dividing rapidly.
high
816
When tumors age and enlarge, their growth fraction ___.
decreases
817
What is calculation of an antineoplastic drug dose based on?
body surface area in square meters
818
How does OSHA recommend antineoplastics be prepared?
under a vertical laminar hood
819
What is pulse dosing?
a method of delivering some types of chemotherapeutic agents that produces escalating levels of drugs early in the dose followed by a dose free interval
820
What do cell-cycle nonspecific antineoplastic agents do?
alkylating agents cross-link DNA to inhibit its replication
821
What are examples of cell-cycle nonspecific agents?
cyclophosphamide, cisplatin, chlorambucil, melphalan, carboplatin
822
Antitumor antibiotics inhibit what?
DNA, RNA, and protein synthesis
823
What are examples of antitumor antibiotics?
doxorubicin, dactinomycin, mitoxantrone
824
What do antitubulins do?
stop cancer cell division
825
What are examples of antitubulins?
vincristine and vinblastine
826
What do antimetabolites affect?
the S phase involving DNA synthesis
827
What are examples of antimetabolites used in cancer treatment?
methotrexate, 5-fluorouracil, cytarabine, azathoprine
828
What are the three types of interferon?
alpha, beta, gamma
829
What do colony stimulating factors do?
stimulate the growth, maturation and differentiation of bone marrow stem cells, treats neutropenia in dogs/cats
830
What is an example of a colony stimulating factor?
filgrastim
831
Monoclonal antibodies have what?
cytotoxic effects on tumor cells
832
Acemannan is what?
a potent stimulator of macrophage activity and is used to treat fibrosarcomas and mast cells in dogs/cats
833
Cyclosporine inhibits what?
the proliferation of T-lymphocytes
834
What does Azathioprine affect?
cells in the S phase of the cell cycle and also inhibits T and B lymphocytes
835
Cyclophosphamide interferes with what?
DNA and RNA replication, disrupting nucleic acid function
836
How do immunosuppressive drugs work?
by interfering with one of the stages of the cell cycle or by affecting cell messengers
837
Which immunosuppressive are cats more likely to develop severe side effects with?
azathiprine
838
What are side effects of cyclophosphamides?
bone marrow suppression, gastroenteritis, hemorrhagic cystitis
839
Nonspecific immunity includes what type of things?
physical barriers, mucus production, inflammation, fever, phagocytosis
840
What is nonspecific immunity directed at?
against all pathogens
841
When does specific immunity take over?
when nonspecific mechanisms fail
842
Specific immunity is targeted for what?
a specific antigen
843
Specific immunity arises from what?
B and T lymphocytes
844
What happens with cell-mediated immunity?
T-lymphocytes directly attack the invading antigen
845
What is cell-mediated immunity important for?
protecting against intracellular bacterial or viral infections, fungal diseases, and protozoal diseases
846
What happens with antibody-mediated immunity?
B-lymphocytes produce antibodies that react to antigen
847
What is antibody-mediated immunity important for?
extracellular phases of systemic viral and bacterial infections and protection against endotoxin and exotoxin-induced disease
848
What does active immunity arise from?
when an animal receives an antigen that activates B- and T-lymphocytes
849
What does active immunity create?
memory
850
What does passive immunity arise from?
when an animal receives antibodies from another animal
851
When is natural immunity acquired?
during normal biological processes
852
When is artificial immunity acquired?
through medical procedures
853
What is an inactivated vaccine made from?
microbes, microbe parts, or microbe by-products that have been chemically treated or heated to kill the microbe
854
What does inactivated vaccines contain?
adjuvants
855
What are adjuvants?
substances that enhance the immune response by increasing the stability of the vaccine in the body
856
Live vaccines are made from what?
live microorganisms that may be fully virulent
857
Modified live vaccines are made from what?
microorganisms that have lost their virulence
858
What is a recombinant vaccine?
when a gene or part of a microorganisms is removed from one organism and inserted into another microorganisms
859
What is a toxoid vaccine?
a vaccine used against a toxin that has been deactivated by heat or chemicals, but is still able to stimulate antibody production
860
What are antitoxins?
substances that contain antibodies obtained from an animal that has been hypersensitized to neutralize toxins
861
What are maternally derived antibodies?
antibodies that offspring receive passively from their mothers
862
What is intracellular fluid?
fluid within the cells
863
What is extracellular fluid?
fluid within the blood vessels and in the tissue spaces between the blood vessels and cells
864
What are cations?
positively charged ions
865
What are anions?
negatively charged ions
866
How does body water move in order to establish equilibrium?
along its concentration gradient
867
Where does fluid exchange occur?
only across capillary walls
868
What are crystalloids?
diffusible substances that dissolve in solution
869
What are colloids?
nondiffusible substances
870
What are disadvantages of intraperitoneal fluids?
possibility of sepsis, can't use IP routes in animals waiting for abdominal surgery, can't use hypertonic solutions
871
What is an isotonic solution?
one that has the same osmotic pressure as blood and extracellular water
872
What is a hypotonic solution?
one that has osmolality lower than that of blood, RBCs can swell
873
What is a hypertonic solution?
one that has osmolality higher than that of blood, RBCs can strink
874
Examples of isotonic solutions.
0.9% sodium chloride, LRS, Normosol, Plasmalyte
875
Examples of hypotonic solutions.
5% dexrose in water (D5W), 1/4 NS (0.25% normal saline), 1/2 NS (0.45&=% normal saline)
876
Examples of hypertonic solutions.
0.9% normal saline with 5% dextrose, 10% dextrose in water, 3% normal saline
877
What should the label on a prescrition have?
name and address of the dispenser, clients name, animals name and species, drug name , drug strength, drug quantity, date of order, directions for use, any refill information
878
What is fluid overload?
a condition in which the administration of fluid occurs at a greater rate than the rate at which the body can use or eliminate the fluid
879
What are signs of fluid overload?
respiratory changes, fluid deposition in the subcutaneous space, weight gain
880
What are colloid solutions?
fluids with large molecules that enhance the oncotic force of blood, causing fluid to move from the interstitial and intracellular spaces into the vascular space
881
Examples of natural colloids
plasma, albumin, whole blood
882
Examples of synthetic colloids.
dextrans, hydroxyethyl starch (hetastarch)
883
What are types of fluid additives?
50% dextrose, potassium, sodium bicarbonate, calcium, vitamins
884
Fenbendazole is used for treatment of what?
parasites
885
Atropine is used to treat toxicities of which drug that may cause SLUDGE?
organophosphates
886
Which of the following delivery methods treats the environment rather than the animal?
A) dips
B) foggers
C) injectables
D) tablets
foggers
887
What does the spectrum of an antibiotic indicate?
which kind of bacteria it is useful against
888
What other groups of antibiotics are cephalexins structurally similar to?
penicillins
889
Enrofloxacin is used to what?
treat a bacterial infection
890
Addison's disease involves which gland?
adrenal
891
Which of the following is generally not a reason for administration of hormones?
A) maximize weight gain
B) control urinary incontenince
C) synchronize estrous cycle
D) treat otitis externa
treat otitis externa
892
Which hormone may be used to assist in the diagnosis of Cushing's disease?
ACTH
893
What is the active ingredient in Strongid, which is often used for deworming?
pyrantel pamoate
894
Blood work is recommended during treatment with amphotericin B because it has a strong potential to damage what?
kidneys
895
T/F. Antiseptics are used to kill microorganisms on animals.
true
896
Dermatophytes are?
fungi
897
T/F. A veterinary feed directive is required when administering antibiotics to livestock via feed.
true
898
Which of the following is the best description of a pheromone?
A) a hormone used to treat blindness
B) a hormone with a positive feedback loop
C) a synthetic hormone that increases milk production in dairy cattle
D) volatile chemicals that affect behavior in other animals
volatile chemicals that affect behavior in other animals
899
Tresaderm is put directly into the ear canal to treat what?
bacteria
900
Selamectin is the active ingredient in which spot-on medication?
Revolution
901
Permethrin is not safe for which animals?
cats
902
Which medication is commonly used to treat giardia?
metronidazole
903
Clavamox is a brand of amoxicillin and clavulonic acid. It is significant because?
the combination increases the spectrum of activity
904
Which of the following is a topical antibiotic commonly found in OTC ointment?
A) cephalosporin
B) polymyxin
C) streptomycin
D) tilmycosin
polymyxin
905
Which species should not receive Chloramphenicol?
dairy cow
906
The radioactive isotope of which element is used to treat hyperthyroidism?
iodine
907
Which of the following is false.
A) insulin should be stored in the refrigerator
B) special syringes are used to administer insulin
C) too much insulin can cause dangerously low blood sugar
D) you must shake the bottle of insulin well, before administering it
you must shake the bottle of insulin well before administering it
908
The drug Albon used to treat coccidia contains what?
sulfadimethoxine
909
Some collies have mutations in a multi drug resistance gene, which makes them very sensitive to toxicity from which drug?
ivermectin
910
What drug is in Quest dewormer?
moxidectin
911
What disinfectant is used as a gas?
gluteraldehyde
912
What is antibiotic residue?
presence of an antibiotic or its netabolites in animal tissues or food products
913
Which of the following is not a type of antibiotic?
A) ceftiofur
B) ketoconazole
C) streptomycin
D) trimethoprim sulfa
ketoconazole
914
Prostaglanding F2 alpha is used to what?
synchronize estrous in cattle
915
Which of the followin is false regarding oxytocin?
A) it has a positive feedback loop
B) it is naturally produced by the ovaries
C) it should be efrigerated
D) it stimulates uterine contractions
it should be refrigerted
916
Mitotane is used for treatment of what?
Cushing's disease
917
which drug can affect the cartilage in growing dogs?
ampicillin
918
Coccidiostats are most effective against what?
protozoa
919
Regular insulin has what duration of action in animals?
short
920
Which of the following is an antibiotic?
A) acyclovir
B) levamisole
C) piperazine
D) tylosin
tylosin
921
Which drug is used to treat tapeworms in cats?
Praziquantel
922
Milbemycin is the active ingredient in Sentinel, which is used for which disease?
Heartworm
923
Which of the following drugs may be used to treat Lyme disease?
A) amoxicillin
B) doxycycline
C) florfenicol
D) ivermectin
amoxicillin
924
Amprolium (Corid) is used to treat which poutry disease?
coccidia
925
Which of the following would likely NOT be used to treat flea infestations?
A) fipronil
B) griseofulvin
C) inidaclopride
D) lufenuron
griseofulvin
926
The amino acid, Lysine, has been documented in some studies to be beneficial in treating which infection?
ringworm
927
Otomax would be contraindicated in what patient?
patient with reuptured ear drum
928
A cat is diagnosed with glaucoma. Which of these drugs could make the condition worse?
A) acetazolamide
B) pilocarpine
C) tetracaine
D) tropicamide
tetracaine
929
A dog is diagnosed with having a corneal ulcer. Which of the following could make it worse?
A) beta blocker
B) diuretic
C) miotic
D) steroid
steroid
930
Which drug is used for treating KCS?
A) albendazole
B) cyclosporine
C) glucosamine
D) lufenuron
cyclosporine
