Component 7: Care for the Medical Patient Flashcards

A review of common illnesses, treatments, and the NREMT Management of the Medical Patient skill sheet.

1
Q

Describe:

Medical Emergencies

A

These are caused by illness or disease processes (Nature of Illness).

NOI

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2
Q

What are the six major processes in order of assessment?

A
  1. Scene Size-up
  2. Primary Survey/Resuscitation
  3. History Taking
  4. Secondary Assessment
  5. Vital Signs
  6. Reassessment
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3
Q

List the causes/types of infectious diseases.

A
  • bacteria
  • viruses
  • fungi
  • parasites
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4
Q

List a minimum of five common communicable diseases.

A
  1. Covid
  2. Influenza
  3. Herpes Simplex
  4. HIV
  5. Hepatitis
  6. Meningitis
  7. Tuberculosis
  8. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus Aureus (MRSA)
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5
Q

True or false.

A mask should be placed on the patient with tuberculosis.

TB

A

True

As of 2020, a minimum for mask, gloves, and eye protection (PPE) should be worn.

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6
Q

If blood enters the heart from the superior vena cava, what is the order the blood will go through the chambers and ventricles?

A

Drop of blood path from the superior vena cava

  1. Right atria
  2. Right ventricle
  3. (Out the pulmonary vein, unoxygenated)
  4. (Returning through the vein, oxygenated)
  5. Left atria
  6. Left ventricle
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7
Q

What do we call a group of symptoms caused by cardiac ischemia including myocardial infarctions and angina?

A

Acute Coronary Syndrome

(ACS)

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8
Q

Define:

Referring to medical terminology, define the term acute.

A

It is the experience of sudden and most likely severe complaints of onset of symptoms.

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9
Q

Describe:

Pathophysiology of acute myocardial infarction.

(AMI)

A

This happens when there is an occlusion of a coronary artery causing ischemia progressing to injury of the cardiac tissue and then to infarction.

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10
Q

Define:

infarction

A

Death of a localized tissue.

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11
Q

Fill in the blank.

A temporary and transient blockage to the cardiac blood flow resulting in chest discomfort or pain is called ________ ________.

A

Angina Pectoris

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12
Q

What is the cardiac muscle’s ability to have its own electrical system not dependant on the nervous system called?

A

automaticity

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13
Q

What is the stroke volume multiplied by the heart rate called?

A

cardiac output

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14
Q

Differentiate:

The onset of pain and quality of pain of:

  • Acute Myocardial Infarction (AMI)
  • Dissecting Aneurysm
A

AMI:

  • Onset of pain- will be acute with additional signs/symptoms.
  • Quality of pain - will most likely be described as tight or pressure, increasing over time.

Dissecting Aneurysm:

  • Onset of pain- will be acute without additional signs/symptoms.
  • Quality of pain- will most commonly be described as tearing or burning from the onset.
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15
Q

What is a late vital sign finding of cardiogenic shock?

A

Hypotension, the drop in blood pressure below 90 mm Hg.

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16
Q

Define:

Orthopnea, and what disorder does it present with most commonly?

A

It is an increase or inability to breathe when lying flat, most commonly associated with patients suffering congestive heart failure (CHF).

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17
Q

What cardiac disorder frequently presents with jugular venous distension (JVD) and pedal edema?

A

Congestive Heart Failure

(CHF)

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18
Q

List:

Signs/symptoms of acute myocardial infarction

A
  • Acute onset of chest pain or discomfort
  • Diaphoresis
  • Dyspnea
  • Nausea/vomiting
  • Syncope
  • Additional pain in the jaw, arms, neck, and/or back
  • Death
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19
Q

True or false.

Best practices suggest we give high flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask (15 Lpm) for a patient who has no difficulty breathing, pulse oximetry of 97%, complaining of severe and acute chest pain radiating to their jaw that woke them from their sleep.

A

False

Too much oxygen in this situation may cause additional harm.

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20
Q

List:

Dysrhythmias that may present during a cardiac event

A
  • Tachycardia
  • Bradycardia
  • Ventricular Tachycardia (V-Tac)
  • Ventricular Fibrillation (V-Fib)
  • Asystole

Or the EKG could be normal, but normal is not a dysrhythmia.

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21
Q

List:

Components of high-quality CPR

A
  • Correct ventilation/compression ratio
  • Appropriate depth
  • Full recoil
  • Adequate breaths or ventilations
  • Minimizing interruptions
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22
Q

True or false.

CPR must be immediately initiated as soon as the patient is determined as pulseless.

A

True

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23
Q

What cardiac dysrhythmia(s) is the Automatic External Defibrillator (AED) designed to shock?

A

Ventricular Fibrillation (V-Fib) and Ventricular Tachycardia (V-Tach)

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24
Q

True or false.

The automatic external defibrillator (AED) will shock asystole.

A

False

The AED is designed to sense electrical activity in the cardiac muscle. Asystole is the absence of any electrical activity.

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25
# True or false. Even though angina most often occurs during exertion, we as EMTs should not differentiate angina from an acute myocardial infarction (AMI) in the field.
True ## Footnote Diagnosis of an AMI or angina should be done by a physician.
26
# List: Lobes of the cerebrum
* Frontal * Parietal * Temporal * Occipital
27
# List: Common types of headaches
* Tension * Migraines * Sinus
28
# Differentiate: Ischemic stroke and a hemorrhagic stroke
* **Ischemic Stroke**: is a blood vessel in the brain that is blocked either by thrombosis or an embolism. * **Hemorrhagic Stroke**: is the result of a ruptured aneurysm in a vessel of the brain.
29
# List: Signs/symptoms of a **cerebral vascular accident** (CVA)
* Facial drooping * Speech disturbances * Acute onset of a headache * Hemiparesis * Confusion * Loss of balance * Combativeness * Vision disturbances
30
# True or false. Just like differentiating between angina and an acute myocardial infarction, EMTs should differentiate an ischemic stroke from a hemorrhagic stroke.
False ## Footnote Diagnoses and differentiating require a physician's evaluation and tests.
31
# Fill in the blank. Transient Ischemic Attacks (TIA) are considered as a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ to having a stroke.
precursor
32
# True or false. The treatment for a patient presenting with stroke signs/symptoms should be given high flow oxygen (O2) and oral glucose.
False ## Footnote Because we do not differentiate types of strokes, glucose should not be given (only in hypoglycemic emergencies). Also, like myocardial infarctions, too much oxygen (O2) can cause additional damage to the tissues.
33
What are **two** common types of seizures?
**Generalized** (tonic/clonic) and **partial** (focal) siezures.
34
Which **phase** of a seizure does an **aura** present?
before ## Footnote Not all seizures present with auras, and some auras may present as a partial seizure and progress to a generalized seizure.
35
# True or false. All patients suffering first-time seizure activity should be evaluated by a doctor.
True
36
What is the medical term for **fainting**?
syncope
37
# Define: Altered Mental Status (AMS)
It is defined as any changes to a person's awareness of person, place, time, and event that are not considered normal for the patient.
38
Explain the mnemonic utilized when attempting to discover the cause of a patient suffering from **altered mental status** (AMS) from an unknown cause.
**A**lcohol/**a**cidosis **E**pilepsy, **e**ndocrine, **e**lectrolytes **I**nsuline **O**piates and/or other drugs **U**remia (kidney failure) **T**rauma, **t**emperature **I**nfection **P**oisoning or **p**sychogenic **S**hock, **s**troke, **s**eizure, **s**yncope
39
What does the mnemonic **BE FAST** represent?
**B**alance **E**yes (pupil response) **F**acial drooping **A** drift **S**peech **T**ime frame from last seen *normal*
40
Why would a patient be incontinent after a generalized seizure?
The spasmatic electrical activity in the brain causes all muscles to erratically contract. This would lead to the urinary sphincters to spasm and leak urine.
41
# True or false. Providing oxygen (O2) for a patient in a postictal state may shorten the postictal time frame.
True
42
# List: Potential causes of an **acute abdomen**.
* Cholecystitis and/or cholelithiasis * Ulcers * Pancreatitis * Appendicitis * GI bleed(s) * GERD (gastroesophageal reflux disorder/disease * Esophageal Varices
43
What is the medical term for a patient **vomiting blood**?
hematemesis
44
A patient complaining of having **abdominal pain** and **coffee-groud emesis** is most likely suffering from what disorder?
Gastrointestinal Bleed (GI Bleed)
45
What is the most common pertinent history of a patient presenting with esophageal varices?
alcoholism
46
What are **kidney stones** (nephrolithiasis) caused by?
Uric acid that is crystalizing urine.
47
# Fill in the blank. While palpating a patient's abdomen, they complain of shoulder pain. This is commonly called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_.
referred pain
48
What are two things the brain needs to survive?
* Oxygen (O2) * glucose
49
What is the **endocrine system** responsible for?
Production, secretion, and communication of hormones.
50
# List: Types of diabetes
* Diabetes mellitus type 1 * Diabetes mellitus type 2 * Gestational
51
What is the most common *first presentation* of a diabetic emergency: a **hypoglycemic patient** or a **hyperglycemic patient**?
hyperglycemic patient
52
# List: The "Polys" of diabetes
* Polyuria * Polyphagia * Polydipsia
53
What is the function of **insulin**?
It is a hormone that enables glucose to move into cells.
54
What hyperglycemic syndrome causes profound dehydration?
Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome | (HHNS)
55
# True or false. It is an acceptable treatment to provide oral glucose buccally for the unresponsive diabetic emergency.
False ## Footnote Oral glucose in an unresponsive patient will cause airway obstruction and possible aspiration.
56
What is the name of the disease of a patient that is born with a **decreased ability to clot blood**?
hemophilia
57
# Fill in the blank. The study of the recognition, treatment, and management of blood related disorders is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Hematology
58
What should we do with the epi-pen **after** administration?
Dispose of it properly in a Sharps container.
59
What must happen before the body can identify an **allergen**?
The body must be **exposed** to the allergen at least **once** for the sensitization process.
60
# List: common allergens
* food * medication(s) * chemicals * plants * insect/animal bites or stings
61
Why is **angioedema** including the lips, tongue, and larynx considered critical/lethal?
It is considered critial/lethal due to **airway obstruction, narrowing, or occlusion**. Early recognition/suspicion and airway management are crucial.
62
# True or false. A patient can be hypersensitive to an allergen and still not progress to anaphylaxis.
True
63
What does the presence of **stridor** indicate?
Swelling of the upper airways.
64
What is the contraindication for the administration of the epi-pen?
**There are no contraindications if the patient is in true anaphylaxis**. Anaphylaxis is an emergent life threat.
65
How often should a patient with a severe allergic reaction be reassessed?
**Every 5 minutes**, staying alert for any signs of progression to anaphylaxis.
66
# List: Routes that toxin(s)/poison(s) enter the body
* Injection * Ingestion * Inhalation * Absorption
67
Is alcohol a central nervous system (CNS) **stimulant** or **depressant**?
Alcohol is a CNS **depressant**.
68
# Differentiate: Addiction and tolerance
* **Addiction:** is a physical and psychological need/desire to consume a particular substance (alcohol, stimulants, hallucinogens, etc...) * **Tolerance:** results when the abuse/addiction of a substance will no longer have the same effect and will require more of the substance to reach the individual goal/high.
69
# Define: dependence
It develops when a substance is misused so frequently that a psychological and physical need emerges.
70
What is it called when a person's reactions or behaviors are extreme and outside of societal norms?
behavioral crisis
71
# True or false. A patient's history of depression is a critical insight as to the risk of suicide.
True
72
What is the **disorder** called that results from spasming and swelling of the **smaller airways** (bronchioles)?
asthma
73
The acronym **COPD** stands for what respiratory disorder?
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease/Disorder
74
# List: Signs/symptoms of emphysema
* Chronic exertional dyspnea * Pursed lip breathing * Barrel chest * Decreased lung sounds * Chronic or worsened cyanosis
75
# List: Potential treatments for patients with an **exacerbated chronic respiratory complaint (respiratory crisis treatment)**
* High flow oxygen (O2) * Assistance with medication (metered dose inhalers MDI) * Position of comfort (POC), typically Semi-Fowler's * Assisted positive pressure ventilation (PPV) * Transport
76
# Fill in the blank. Hyperventilation syndrome is commonly associated with an \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
anxiety attack
77
What will the lung sound be when assessing the lung sounds on the affected side of a patient with a suspected **pulmonary embolism**?
Initially, the lung sounds will be clear in the affected area and possibly progress to diminished and/or absent.
78
What is an indication for the administration of a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) or a small-volume nebulizer (SVN)?
The patient is presenting with **dyspnea**, most likely with a history of chronic respiratory illness. Suspected bronchial spasms are commonly associated with wheezing.